2.3 Immune-Mediated Diseases in Practice Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “spectrum” of immune-mediated diseases (IMDs)?

A

IMDs can range widely from organ-specific (e.g., myasthenia gravis) to non-organ specific (systemic lupus erythematosus)

  • there may be primary idiopathic diseases and diseases secondary to an underlying trigger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the general pathogenesis of IMDs?

A

etiology of many autoimmune diseases is UNCLEAR, and likely multi-factorial (genetic, infectious, and less likely: hormonal)

(1) loss of tolerance: the immune system overreacts to normal tissues or harmless exogenous proteins

  • exposure to pathogenic antigen is usually seen in association with an inflammatory response (PAMPs, and thus cytokines)
  • exposure to dietary antigen is usually seen in an anti-inflammatory environment (no PAMPs, no cytokines)
  • with loss of tolerace, T cells proliferate in an inflammatory environment, making them reactive to harmless subtances or self

(2) trigger factors:

  • release of sequestered antigens (eye, sperm), which the immune system does not normally contact
  • molecular mimicry: similarities between foreign and self molecules
  • polyclonal T and B cell activation
  • abnormal immunoregulation

(3) infection:

  • thought to influence autoimmune diseases at several levels: expose sequestered antigens (e.g., testicular infection)
  • incite inflammation: “bystander activation”
  • bacterial superantigens: polyclonal activation of T/B cells
  • molecular mimicry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is there a link between vaccination and IMDs?

A

IMHA and IMPA have been linked to vaccination

  • if an animal has been vaccinated within 4 weeks of IMD development, this should be investigated before continuing the vaccination regimen
  • it could simply be a coincidence, so do not jump to conclusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the signalment of patients with IMDs?

A

idiopathic / primary / non-associative IMDs are often seen in

  • juvenile to middle-aged patients, though dogs and cats of any age may be affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most important diagnostic we do to investigate IMDs?

A

history and physical exam!

  • IMDs are generally characterized by remission and exacerbation: “waxing and waning”

various presentations, including: lameness, pyrexia, mucocutaneous lesions, lethargy, dyspnea, weight loss, PU/PD, seizures, effusive, painful joints, skin lesions, pallor +/- petechiae, and more!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum database

A

begin with a thorough history and physical exam and then move on to:

(1) blood tests, especially in cases of pallor

  • CBC/coagulation profile
  • blood smears
  • biochemistry

(2) next, perform a urinalysis

(3) other tests to eliminate specific IMDs: radiography and arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What could you expect to see on CBC / coagulation profile in IMD cases?

A

(1) anemia

  • regenerative: IMHA
  • non-regenrative: infection, uremia, hepatic disease, chrinic bleeding, attack of precursors, etc.

(2) thrombocytopenia

  • immune mediated thrombocytopenia (IMTP): expect < 10,000-20,000

(3) leucopenia

  • anti-leucocyte antibodies: SLE, imune-mediated neutropenia
  • cannot diagnose commercially: by exclusion only

(4) coagulation abnormalities

  • increased APTT, PT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What could you expect on a blood smear in IMD cases?

A

identify whether there is regenerative / non-regenrative anemia

  • look for the presence of sphereocytes and ghost cells to indicate anemia due to hemolysis (IMHA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What could you expect on biochemistry in IMD cases?

A

MANY posibilities:

  • azotemia, increased inorganic phosphate: glomerular lesions
  • hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia: PLN
  • hyperbilirubinemia: prehepatic disease / hemolysis
  • hyperglobinemia: inflammatory disease, polyclonal B cell activation
  • increased CK and lactate dehydrogenase activity: polymyostitis and or myocarditis

note, one would not see all of these in the same patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What could one see on urinalysis in IMD cases?

A

proteinuria: PLN

  • rule out UTI
  • rule out occult (hidden) infections: many arthropod-borne (e.g., anaplasma, rickettsia): vector-borne diseases are one cause of inflammatory glomerular nephritis
  • 34% of proteinuric dogs were seropositive for a vector-borne disease
  • make sure to always read ion context of hydration status. E.g., 1+ protein with very concentrated urine, likely not a problem. 1+ protein with very dilute urine, like a problem

hematuria, pyuria, erythrocyte casts: membranoproliferative GN (IMD)

  • rule out UTI and occult infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What specific immunological tests can indicate IMD?

A

(1) in-saline agglutination

  • IMHA

(2) coomb’s tests

  • follow-up for negative in-saline agglutination

(3) AChR autoantibodies

  • tests for acquired myasthenia gravis
  • most-common neuromuscular IMD

(4) antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

  • hallmark of SLE
  • indirect immunofluorescence / immunoperoxidase test

(5) biopsies

  • lesions may not be specific to a disease, but often signal immune-mediated destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the common principles for IMD treatment?

A

treatment relies on halting ongoing damage while satisfying nutritional and nursing requirements

  • non-specific immunosuppressants (corticosteroids) are the mainstay of therapy
  • various adjunctive therapies (diet, surgery, GI protection, etc) are also often used
  • nursing case is vital for QOL ansd treatment success (as treatment is long term)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List some of the immunomodulatory therapies

A
  1. corticosteroids
  2. alkylating agents
  3. antimetabolites (NEVER in cats)
  4. vinca alkaloids
  5. calcinerurin inhibitors
  6. ciclosporine
  7. human IVIG (polyspecific IgG derived from healthy donor plasma)

many of these are also anti-cancer drugs used in small animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do corticosteroids affect the cell?

A
  • corticosteroids associate with albumin and transcortin in the blood
  • they dissociate and passively diffuse into cells where they bind to a cytoplsamic receptor
  • this unmasks a DNA binding domain which reveals corticosteroid-responsive sites

they can UPREGULATE regulatory proteins or DOWNREGULATE inflammatory molecules (eosinophols, T cell, mast cell, macrophage, DCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the main considerations when using corticosteroids as treatment for IMD?

dosing and adverse effects

A

dosing:

  • VERY LOW dose: physiological
  • LOW dose: anti-inflammatory (AA cascade inhibition, pro-inflammatory cytokine inhibition)
  • HIGHER doses: immunosuppressive (likely due to immune cell downregulation - T cell, macrophage, APCs, etc.)

potential adverse effects:

  • CNS: lethargy, aggressive, anxious
  • musculoskeletal: atrophy, weakness, exercise intollerance
  • GIT: ulceration
  • mineralocorticoid action: fluid and electrolyte imbalanace
  • metabolic: look cushinoid, can induce DM in cats
  • also: opportunistic infections due to immunosuppression (stay away from public areas with your animal!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the main corticosteroids used for immunomodulation?

A

(1) prednisolone

  • predominantly glucocorticoid activity, low mineralocorticoid activity

(2) dexamethasone

  • same molecule as prednisolone, except includes fluoride (F) and CH3 group
  • NO mineralocorticoid activity (more sutable for CHF patients - no water retention via aldosterone effects)
  • longer DOA: cummulative effects and overdose more likely

(3) methylpred

  • no info given
  • not commonly used (I assume)
17
Q

How are the other immunomodulatory agents used in IMDs?

A

(1) alkylating agents: chlorambucil

  • alkylate DNA: inhibit protein synthesis, prevent mitosis
  • both cellular and humoral immunity are suppressed by alkylating agents, BUT also cytotoxic
  • chlorambucil is the slowest acting and least cytotoxic of the alkylating agents: myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression) not seen until after 1mo use
  • alkylating agents are also used as anti-neoplastic drugs

(2) antimetabolites: azathioprine

  • antiproliferative and immunosuppressive agent
  • azathioprine antagonizes purine metabolism and may inhibit synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins
  • slow onset (4-6wks)
  • many potential adverse effects (myelosuppression, hepatic toxicity)

(3) vinca alkaloids: vincristine, vinblastine

  • antimitotic agents: binds to tubulin and breaks down microtubules
  • increases the release of platelets (used for IMTP): does not increase survival but does decrease hospitalization time
  • extravasion -> massive epithelial necrosis

(4) calcineurin inhibitors: ciclosporin

  • IL-2 inhibitors: decreases T cell growth factor and IL-gamma production by T cells
  • advantage: more specific than other immunomodulatory drugs
  • gingival hyperplasia most common side effect in dogs

(5) human IVIG

  • used for very quick effects
  • difficult to acquire, and expensive: not available in UK currentlt
18
Q

What are the guidelines for immunomodulatory therapy?

A

(1) start with prednisone or prednisolone

  • 2-4 mg/kg/day
  • cats less senstitive - higher doses: but NOTE, cats never develop PU/PD with glucocorticoid use, so if PU/PD seen, indicates DM development!
  • large dogs senstitive: lower dose or use mg/m^2
  • give with doxyxycline of high risk of occult infection (vector-borne)
  • consider adjunctive agent for IMHA or other aggressive IMD: azathioprine in dogs, chlorambucil in cats

should see improvement in 7 days, if not, give adunctive agent and review diagnosis

(2) MONITOR

  • CBC / UA every 7-14 days

(3) TAPER

  • taper corticosteroid over 3-4 months following remission
  • 20-25% decrease evert 2-4 weeks as long as remission is maintained
  • do NOT alter adjunctve treament at the same time, unless essential
  • if signs recur, return to previous dose, and taper more slowly

NEVER use three immunosuprpessive drugs at the same time; if no response after second drug: wrong dose? wring diagnosis? not absorbing?

(4) STOP

  • may end corticosteroid use if remission persists
  • be cautious tapering adjuctive therapy (2 months +)
  • all treatment may be stopped if long-term remission persists
  • nursing care still vital!