(23) Gastroenteritis Flashcards

1
Q

Normal flora organism density in the GIT varies. How many organisms are in the stomach?

A

10^3-10^6

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2
Q

Normal flora organism density in the GIT varies. How many organisms are in the small bowel?

A

10^5-10^7

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3
Q

Normal flora organism density in the GIT varies. How many organisms are in the large bowel?

A

10^9-10^11

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4
Q

The faecal flora has been estimated to have a metabolic capacity equal to what?

A

That of the liver

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5
Q

What type of bacteria makes up most of the commensal flora of the gut?

A

Obligate anaerobic bacteria (cannot survive in presence of bacteria) e.g bacteroides

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6
Q

By how much do obligate anaerobes outnumber the facultatively anaerobic coliforms such as E.coli (commensal flora of the gut)?

A

By at least 100:1

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7
Q

Give an example of a facultative anaerobe in the gut (can survive in but does not need oxygen)

A

Escherichia coli (gram neg bacilli)

Enterococcus faecalis (gram pos cocci)

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8
Q

Commensal flora of the gut have many beneficial effects. Give examples

A
  • metabolism
  • colonisation resistance
  • antibody induction
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9
Q

What may have a profound effects on the composition of gut flora?

A

Diet eg. bottle-fed vs. breast-fed babies

Variation can later predispose to certain infections

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10
Q

Give 2 examples of obligate anaerobes in the gut

A

Bacteriodes sp. (gram neg bacilli)

Clostridium perfringens (gram pos bacilli)

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11
Q

What are the most common types of bacteria making up the commensal flora of the gut?

A
  • bacteroides

- prevotella

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12
Q

It is very difficult to identify pathogenic organisms from commensal flora in the gut. Give one example why

A

Many commensals can sometimes cause disease eg. E. coli

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13
Q

How common is diarrhoeal disease?

A
  • second leading cause of death in children under 5
  • kills around 760,000 children under 5 each year
  • 1.7 billions cases every year globally
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14
Q

Diarrhoea is the leading cause of what in children under 5?

A

Malnutrition

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15
Q

Diarrhoeal disease is often associated with what?

A

Travel

Change in environment - change diet - affect normal flora

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16
Q

What are the common BACTERIAL causes of diarrhoeal disease?

A
  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • E.coli
  • campylobacter
  • vibrio cholerae
  • clostridium difficile
  • staph aureus
  • bacillus cereus
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17
Q

What are the common PARASITIC (protozoa) causes of diarrhoeal disease?

A
  • entamoeba hist.
  • giardia lamblia
  • cryptosporidium
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18
Q

What are the common causes of VIRAL diarrhoeal disease?

A
  • norovirus

- rotavirus

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19
Q

The main causes of diarrhoeal disease can come under which 4 categories?

A
  • bacterial
  • parasitic
  • viral
  • non-infective
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20
Q

How has the number of outbreaks of food borne disease in England and Wales changed since 1992?

A

Decreased

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21
Q

The biggest proportion of food borne disease each year is due to what?

A

Salmonella spp.

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22
Q

How has the number of outbreaks of non-foodborne disease changed in England and Wales since 1992 ?

A

Unsteady, lots of peaks and trophy

But increased overall

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23
Q

Outbreaks of non-foodborne disease is associated with what?

A

Recreational water (swimming pools, lakes etc)

Animals (zoos, farmers, poor hand hygiene)

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24
Q

What are the main causes of non-foodborne disease?

A
  • cryptosporidium spp.

- VTEC 0157 causes have increased significantly since 1992

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25
Q

Describe the typical presenting complaint of diarrhoeal disease

A
  • acute onset
  • vomiting
  • diarrhoea (frequency, mucous, blood)
  • abdominal pain
  • systemic effects eg. fever
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26
Q

Give some complications associated with diarrhoeal disease

A
  • dehydration
  • toxic megacolon
  • renal failure
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • haemolytic uraemic syndrome
  • salmonella (disseminate and cause infections elsewhere)
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27
Q

What is Gullain-Barre syndrome and which bacterial infection is it associated with?

A

Autoimmune syndrome against part of peripheral nervous system

Associated with campylobacter infections

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28
Q

What 3 main investigations would you do in a presenting complaint of diarrhoeal disease?

A
  • bloods
  • abdominal x-ray (if severe)
  • stool sample
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29
Q

Which blood tests would you do as part of investigations?

A
  • FBC
  • U&E
  • CRP
  • blood cultures (for infection that has disseminated)
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30
Q

What would you need/what would you do with a stool, sample as part of investigations?

A
  • ova, parasites and cysts (OCP)
  • microscopy, culture and sensitivity (MC&S)
  • clostridium difficile toxin (CDT)
  • viral PCR
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31
Q

What is the most common cause of gut infection in England and Wales?

A

Norovirus

viral gastroenteritis

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32
Q

What type of virus is norovirus?

A

SRSV (small round structured virus)

Norwalk-like virus

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33
Q

How many cases of norovirus viral gastroenteritis are there in England every year?

A

About 600,000 - 1 million

Hence far more common than other well-known gut infections such as salmonella and campylobacter

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34
Q

What is norovirus disease known as and why?

A

Winter vomiting disease

Massive peaks during the winter months

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35
Q

Why is viral gastroenteritis so contagious?

A

Symptoms include diarrhoea and vomiting - AEROSOLS

Low infective dose, lasts on surfaces in the environment (very successful pathogen!)

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36
Q

How long does viral gastroenteritis illness last?

A

Illness lasts for 24-48 hours - no specific treatment

37
Q

How can you manage viral gastroenteritis?

A

Let the illness take its course, drink lots of water to prevent dehydration

No specific treatment

38
Q

How can spread of viral gastroenteritis be controlled/prevented?

A

Stay away from work

Good hygiene and hand washing

39
Q

Give the 2 main causes of parasitic gastroenteritis

A
  • cryptosporidium
  • giardia
  • entamoeba

(amongst others)

40
Q

Cryptosporidium is predominantly spread by what?

A

Cryptosporidiosis = mainly waterborne disease

  • contaminated drinking water
  • swimming pools
  • water features
  • natural waters
  • animal and human contact
  • other routes
41
Q

Cryptosporidium oocysts are resistant to what?

A

Chlorine based disinfectants

42
Q

Cryptosporidium infections in the 2nd half of the year (summer) are predominantly what?

A

C. hominis

Thought to be related to foreign travel and swimming pools

43
Q

The largest outbreak of food borne cryptosporidiosis was in Yorkshire in 2012. What caused in?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

Linked to bagged salad

44
Q

Cryptosporidium infection is most common in who?

A

Young children

45
Q

What is the main symptom of cryptosporidum infection and what is the treatment?

A

Watery diarrhoea

No specific treatment

46
Q

What are the two main mechanisms that bacteria use in bacterial gastroenteritis?

A
  • enterotoxin production

- adherence

47
Q

Which bacteria use enterotoxin production as a mechanism of infection in gastro-enteritis?

A
  • vibrio cholerae
  • escherichia coli
  • clostridium perfringens
  • staphylococcus aureus
  • bacillus cereus
  • clostridium difficile
48
Q

Which bacteria use adherence as a mechanism of infection in gastroenteritis?

A
  • shigella sonnei/flexneri
  • escherichia coli
  • campylobacter jejuni
  • salmonellae
49
Q

What are the 3 different types of E. coli based on their mechanism of infection?

A
  • entertoxigenic (ETEC)
  • verotoxigenic (VTEC)
  • entertoadherent (EAEC)
50
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in England/Wales?

A

Campylobacter

Undercooked meat

51
Q

The spores of which bacteria can survive cooking?

A
  • clostridium perfringens

- bacillus cereus

52
Q

Name 5 different types of E. coli

A
  • EHEC/VTEC = enterohaemorrhagic. Colitis/HUS
  • ETEC = enterotoxigenic. Travellers’ diarrhoea
  • EAggEC = enteroaggregative. Travellers’ diarrhoea
  • EIEC = enteroinvasive. Dysentery like
  • EPEC = enteropathgenic. Childhood diarrhoea
53
Q

What strain of E. coli was there an outbreak of in the UK in 2011?

A

E. coli 0157

54
Q

What type of E. coli is E. coli 0157?

A
  • enterohaemorrhagic
  • VTEC
  • shiga-like toxin producing
55
Q

When was the first outbreak of E. coli 057?

56
Q

What is the virulence factor of E. coli 0157?

A

Shiga toxin (acts on red blood cells)

57
Q

What is the major source of E. coli 057?

58
Q

About 10-15% of E. coli 057 patients develop what?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the E. coli enterotoxin?

A
  • activated G protein
  • increased levels of cAMP
  • activated ion channels
  • overexcrete chloride ions
  • water follows out of cells into bowel by osmosis
  • massive outpouring of fluid = severe diarrhoea and massive dehydration
60
Q

Why can killing E. coli with antibiotics make disease worse?

A

Killing bacteria = release more toxin = makes disease worse

61
Q

What was the sanitation in Haiti like before earthquake?

A

12% had piped water

17% had functioning sewage system

62
Q

What disease outbreak was there in Haiti post-earthquake (surprisingly)

A

Cholera

Largest outbreak in recent years

CDC “cholera is unlikely to occur, as it is absent in the Caribbean”

63
Q

How did cholera occur in Haiti despite it being absent in the Caribbean?

A

Result of introduction, through human activity, of a V. cholerae strain from a distant geographic source

Likely from UN aid workers

64
Q

Name 4 types of salmonella (salmonella is the genus and has loads of different strains)

A
  • S. typhi
  • S. paratyphi
  • S. enteritidis
  • S. typhimurium
65
Q

What is the difference between typhoidal and non-typhoidal salmonella?

A

Typhoidal = able to disseminate, likely to invade cells outside of the GIT, fevers etc

Non-typhoidal = Stays in the GIT

66
Q

Does salmonella use toxins to infect?

A

No, it is the bacteria itself that causes problems

67
Q

Why are antibiotics generally avoided in gastro-enteritis treatment?

A
  • may increase duration of salmonella carriage

- may worse E. coli HUS (release a large amount of toxin as they die)

68
Q

Antibiotics are generally avoided in gastroenteritis treatment except…

A
  • in very young and very old
  • campylobacter (prolonged or severe symptoms)
  • invasion (eg. positive blood cultures)
69
Q

Antibiotic-associated diarrhoea occurs in how many patients?

A

5-30% patients during, or up to, 2 months post-treatment (diarrhoea as side effect of antibiotics)

(particularly broad-spectrum antibiotics)

70
Q

Why does antibiotic-associated diarrhoea occur?

A

Disruption of gut microflora

  • change in metabolism (carbohydrates/bile acids)
  • overgrowth of pathogenic organisms
71
Q

What are the symptoms of antibiotic-associtaed diarrhoea?

A

Range from mild diarrhoea to pseudomembranous colitis

  • toxic megacolon
  • bowel perforation
  • septic shock
72
Q

Which organisms are associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhoea?

A
  • clostridium difficile (10-25% AAD)
  • C. perfringens
  • S. aureus
  • Candida spp.
  • klebsiella spp.
  • salmonella spp.
73
Q

Give a particular risk factor of C. difficile diarrhoea

A

Old age

80% of cases are in patients over the age of 65

74
Q

How has the number of reports of C. diff changed since 1982?

A

Increased gradually and significantly

Associated with antibiotic use

75
Q

There has been emergence of a new strain of C. diff which is associated with 2.5-3.5-fold increase in death rate. What is the new strain?

A

CD 027/nap1

76
Q

Which antibiotics are associated with a HIGH risk of CDI (C. diff infection)?

A
  • cephalosporins

- clindamycin

77
Q

Which antibiotics are associated with a MEDIUM risk of CDI (C. diff infection)?

A
  • ampicillin/amoxycillin
  • co-trimoxazole
  • macrolides
  • fluoroquinolones
78
Q

Which antibiotics are associated with LOW risk of CDI (C. diff infection)?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • metronidazole
  • anti-pseudomonal penicillins
  • b-lactamse inhibitor
  • tetracyclines
  • rifampicin
  • vancomycin
79
Q

CD 027 is particularly resistant to which antibiotic?

A

Fluoroquinolones - so these antibiotics can drive 027 infection

80
Q

What are the CDI key control measures?

A
  • early warning system to identify changes in local epidemiology
  • reduce risk of transmission
  • early isolation/cohorting of patients with diarrhoea
  • environmental cleaning, chlorine
  • hand hygiene, soap and water
  • examine/optimise/reduce overall antibiotic use
  • limit high risk agents in high risk patients
  • feedback CDI and antibiotic data on a regular basis
81
Q

How have the CDI rates in England changed within the period 2007-2010?

A

Decreased so the control measures are working but it is still a problem

Hospitals get fined for their C diff cases

82
Q

What is the current CDI therapy?

A

Oral metronidazole/oral vancomycin

Vanc is superior in severe CDI

83
Q

The current CDI therapy is oral metronidazole/oral vancomycin. There is relapse in how many patients?

84
Q

With treatment, how long does it take until full resolution of diarrhoea in C diff?

A

Mean 3-5 days

85
Q

Vancomycin and metronidazole (CDI therapy) use is a risk for what?

A

VRE selection

Potential for emergence of resistance to vancomycin/metronidazole in C. difficile

86
Q

What is a new treatment for CDI?

A

Oral fidaxomicin (very expensive!)

87
Q

What was the result of a trial investigating the efficacy of faecal transplant for C. diff infection?

A

Resolution of diarrhoea with no relapse for 10 weeks

Restores protective effect of gut flora - breaks repetitive cycle for antibiotics

81% recovered

27% and 31% of patients receiving vancomycin only recovered

88
Q

What did patients show after faecal transplant?

A

Patients showed increased diversity in colonic microflora, similar to that of healthy donor