(22) Trauma and Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

What is the medical definition of trauma?

A

An injury or wound to living tissue caused by an extrinsic agent

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2
Q

Give some examples of trauma

A
  • road traffic accident
  • stabbing
  • gunshot wound
  • burns
  • aneurysm repair
  • tumour excision
  • caesarean section
  • amputation of diabetic foot
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3
Q

What was the mortality rate of the wounded reaching hospital in the Vietnam War (1973) compared to World War I (1918)?

A

World War I = 40%

Vietnam War = 13%

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4
Q

Give 4 possible immediate features of physical trauma

A
  • intravascular fluid loss
  • extravascular volume
  • tissue destruction
  • obstructed/impaired breathing

all can lead to potential mortality

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5
Q

In addition to the immediate features, give 3 possible later features of physical trauma

A
  • starvation
  • infection
  • inflammation

all can lead to potential mortality

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6
Q

Describe an example of how fractures and internal injuries due to RTA can lead to organ dysfunction and infection

A

Blood loss + impaired breathing + infection barrier penetration

  • reduced circulating volume
  • reduced red cells so reduced O2
  • reduced white cells so reduced immune response
  • reduced cardiac output and blood pressure
  • reduced organ perfusion
  • reduced energy substrate delivery to cells and tissues
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7
Q

Blood loss + impaired breathing + infection barrier penetration leads to a reduction in many things eg. organ perfusion and O2 levels. What are the 2 ultimate consequences?

A

Major organ dysfunction (GI/heart/brain/renal etc)

Infection barrier penetration (sepsis)

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8
Q

What are the 2 components of shock?

A
  • interruption to the supply of substrates to the cell

- interruption to the removal of metabolites from the cell

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9
Q

Give examples of substrates required by a cell

A
  • oxygen
  • glucose
  • water
  • lipids
  • amino acids
  • micronutrients
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10
Q

Give examples of metabolites that need to be removed from cells

A
  • CO2
  • water
  • free radicals
  • toxic metabolites
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11
Q

What are the 3 phases after injury/surgery/burns/infection?

A

Phase 1 = clinical shock

Phase 2 = hypercatabolic state

Phase 3 = recovery (anabolic state)

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12
Q

Spontaneous recovery can occur after phase 1. What is this called?

A

Physiological adaptation

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13
Q

What intervention can occur after phase 1?

A

Resuscitation

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14
Q

When does phase 1 (clinical shock) occur?

A

Develops within 2-6 hours after injury

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15
Q

How long does phase 1 (clinical shock) last for?

A

24-48 hours

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16
Q

What is secreted during phase 1 (clinical shock)?

A
  • cytokines
  • catecholamines
  • cortisol
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17
Q

Cytokines, catecholamines and cortisol are secreted during phase 1 (clinical shock). What does this lead to?

A
  • increased heart rate (tachycardia)
  • increased respiratory rate
  • peripheral vasoconstriction (selective peripheral shut-down to preserve vital organs)
  • hypovolaemia
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18
Q

What are the primary aims of phase 1 (clinical shock) after injury?

A
  1. stop bleeding

2. prevent infection

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19
Q

When does phase 2 (catabolic state) occur?

A

Approx 2 days after injury

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20
Q

Is phase 2 (catabolic state) necessary?

A

Necessary for survival but if it persists or if it is severe, it can increased chance of mortality

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21
Q

What is released in phase 2 (catabolic state)?

A
  • catecholamines
  • glucagon
  • ACTH causing increased cortisol
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22
Q

What happens in phase 2 (catabolic state)?

A
  • increased oxygen consumption
  • increased metabolic rate
  • increased negative nitrogen balance (skeletal muscle breakdown to release amino acids)
  • increased glycolysis (skeletal energy reserve depleted)
  • increased lipolysis (adipose tissue breakdown to release fatty acids)
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23
Q

What are the primary aims of phase 2 (catabolic state) after injury?

A
  1. avoid sepsis

2. provide adequate nutrition

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24
Q

When does phase 3 (anabolic state) occur?

A

Approx 3-8 days after uncomplicated surgery

May not occur for weeks after severe trauma and sepsis

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25
Q

Phase 3 (anabolic state) coincides with what?

A

The beginning of diuresis and request for oral intake

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26
Q

In phase 3 (anabolic state) there is gradual restoration of what?

A
  • body protein synthesis
  • normal nitrogen balance
  • fat stores
  • muscle strength
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27
Q

What is critical during phase 3 (anabolic state)?

A

Adequate nutrition supply

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28
Q

What syndrome are patients in phase 3 (anabolic state) at risk of?

A

Refeeding syndrome

May last a few weeks/months

  • obesity paradox
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29
Q

What is the 1st stage of inflammatory response at a trauma site

A

Bacteria and pathogens enter wound

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30
Q

What is the 2nd stage of inflammatory response at a trauma site?

A

Platelets release clotting factors

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31
Q

What is the 3rd stage of inflammatory response at a trauma site?

A

Mast cells secrete factors that mediate vasodilation to increase blood delivery to the injured area

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32
Q

What is the 4th stage of inflammatory response at a trauma site?

A

Neutrophils and macrophages recruited to phagocytose pathogens

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33
Q

What is the 5th state of inflammatory response at a trauma site?

A

Macrophages secrete cytokines to attract immune cells and proliferate the inflammatory response

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34
Q

What is the 6th stage of inflammatory response at a trauma site?

A

Inflammatory response continues until wound is healed

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35
Q

What happens in systemic capillary leak?

A

An injury causes inflammatory mediator release which causes H2O, NaCl, albumin and energy substrates to leak from the capillaries causing dangerous hypotension

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36
Q

What is involved in an inflammatory response mediated by cytokines IL-1, IL-6 and TNF?

A
  • fibroblast proliferation (repair)
  • local effects eg. chemotaxis, vasodilatation, cell adhesion proteins
  • metabolic effects (catabolic)
  • acute phase proteins
  • T cell activation and B cell proliferation
  • anorexia
  • endocrine effects (catabolic, anabolic)
  • fever
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37
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  • heat
  • redness
  • swelling
  • pain
  • loss of function
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38
Q

What are the effects of cytokine-mediated secretion of catabolic hormones (endocrine effects of cytokines)?

A

eg. IL-1 and TNF-a

  • increased ACTH leading to increased cortisol
  • increased glucagon
  • increased catecholamines
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39
Q

What are the effects of cytokine-mediated inhibition of anabolic hormones (endocrine effects of cytokines)?

A
  • decreased growth hormone

- decreased insulin

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40
Q

What happens in normal metabolism?

A

Oxidation of dietary carbohydrate, lipid and protein

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41
Q

How long can glycogen stores maintain glucose for in health?

A

Up to 24 hours

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42
Q

Does the brain have a glycogen store?

A

No

Requires continuous supply of glucose and O2

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43
Q

What is the obligate substrate of the brain?

A

Glucose

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44
Q

How much glucose does the brain need?

A

120g per day per 1kg of muscle

45
Q

How long will the brain survive in circulatory failure?

A

No more than 2 minutes

46
Q

What happens when the brain is in circulatory failure?

A

Adapts to using ketones as an energy substrate

47
Q

Which organs can survive hours of interruption of blood supply and why?

A
  • kidney
  • liver

They are capable of gluconeogenesis

48
Q

Different tissues use different substrates. What do the liver and kidney use?

A

Fatty acids/amino acids

49
Q

Different tissues use different substrates. What does skeletal muscle use?

A

Glycogen stores/fatty acids

50
Q

What 3 things happen when the supply of glucose and oxygen is interrupted? (metabolic response to trauma)

A
  1. glycogenolysis
  2. gluconeogenesis
  3. lipolysis and ketogenesis
51
Q

What if glycogenolysis and how long can it last for?

A

Break down of glycogen to glucose

24 hours max

52
Q

What happens in gluoneogenesis?

A

Skeletal + secreted protein breakdown

amino acids to glucose and lactate production

53
Q

How much glucose can be made from muscle?

A

1kg muscle = 200g protein = 120g glucose

54
Q

How much nitrogen loss occurs in gluconeogenesis?

A

60-70g per day but may be up to 300g

55
Q

Name 2 common ketones in humans

A
  • actetoacetic acid

- B-hydroxybutyrate

56
Q

State the pathway of lipolysis and ketongeneis

A

FFA (free fatty acids) converted to acetyl CoA converted to acetoacetate and hydroxybutyrate

57
Q

What happens to the metabolism when there is increased ketones due to ketogenesis?

A

There is a gradual change to ketone metabolism by CNS which spares protein stores and muscles (metabolic response to trauma)

58
Q

Ketones are acids. Therefore what does increased levels cause?

A

A diuresis with loss of H2O and electrolytes

59
Q

What is the key adaptation to hypoxia?

A

Anaerobic metabolism

60
Q

What are the main pathways in AEROBIC metabolism

A

glycolysis + TCA cycle + oxidative phosphorylation

61
Q

How many moles of ATP can be made from 1 mole of glucose in AEROBIC metabolism?

A

36 moles of ATP

62
Q

How many moles of ATP can be made from 1 mole of glucose in ANAEROBIC metabolism?

A

2 moles of ATP

63
Q

Anaerobic metabolism leads to loss of ATP. What effect does this have on the cell?

A
  • loss of membrane Na/K pump = cellular swelling

- loss of membrane integrity = lysosomal enzyme release

64
Q

Lactic acidosis may occur in anaerobic metabolism. What defines lactic acidosis?

A

pH 60nmol/L

[lactate] > 5.0 mmol/L

65
Q

Describe the pathways in which inadequate oxygen can lead to cell death via anaerobic metabolism

A
  • inadequate oxygen
  • anaerobic metabolism
  • inadequate energy production
  • metabolic failure
  • cell death
  • inadequate oxygen
  • anaerobic metabolism
  • lactic acid production
  • metabolic acidosis
  • cell death
66
Q

What two components make up normal protein turnover (to maintain muscle mass and maintain plasma protein)?

A
  • synthesis of new protein

- skeletal muscle proteolysis

67
Q

There can be an imbalance in protein turnover (trauma protein turnover). What two components create this?

A
  • decreased synthesis of new protein

- increased skeletal muscle proteolysis

68
Q

In trauma protein turnover, what causes decreased synthesis of new protein?

A
  • increased inflammatory mediators and scavengers (CRP, haptoglobin, clotting factors, modulators of clotting eg. protease inhibitors)
  • decreased albumin
69
Q

In trauma protein turnover, what causes increased skeletal muscle proteolysis?

A
  • increase in free amino acids (transported to liver for gluconeogenesis and protein synthesis)
  • increase in plasma ammonia
  • increased N2 loss (via urinary excretion of urea)
70
Q

What proportion of the body’s protein is readily available as a source of energy?

A

Around 30%

71
Q

What stops muscle wasting in starvation?

A

Administration of adequate calories as carbohydrate/lipid

72
Q

In starvation, administration of adequate calories as carbohydrate/lipid would normally stop muscle wasting. Why is this not true for trauma/sepsis patients?

A

Because the primary stimulation for protein breakdown is cytokine secretion from activated macrophages

73
Q

What does further proteolysis result in?

A

Life-threatening damage to essential structural and secreted protein

74
Q

What does respiratory muscle weakness (due to proteolysis) result in?

A

Poor cough, retention of secretions ultimately pneumonia

75
Q

Why is lactate produced from pyruvate in hypoxia?

A

Pyruvate cannot undergo oxidative phosphorylation via the TCA cycle but is reduced to lactate

76
Q

Anaerobic metabolism can only continue until when?

A

Until lactate becomes toxic and the H+ inhibits enzymes

Increased lactate = tissue hypoxia

77
Q

What can lactate be used as in trauma?

A

A prognostic marker

78
Q

Lactate can be used as a prognostic marker in trauma. What would indicate a poor prognosis?

A

Failure of blood lactate to return to normal following a trauma resuscitation

79
Q

What is the % mortality with blood lactate

80
Q

What is the % mortality with blood lactate 2-4mmol/L?

81
Q

What is the % mortality with blood lactate >5mmol/L?

A

Around 100%

82
Q

Describe the viscous cycle in hypoxia and lactate production

A
  • mitochondrial failure due to hypoxia
  • reduced oxidative phosphorylation
  • NADH converted to NAD+
  • anaerobic glycolysis continues
83
Q

In nutrition and recovery, nutritional support should consider..

A
  • demands of hyper metabolic state

- pre-trauma nutritional state

84
Q

When does nitrogen loss peak?

A

long bone: 60-70g muscle protein

4-8 days

severe burns: 300g muscle protein

85
Q

What does immobilisation increase loss of?

A
  • calcium
  • phosphate
  • magnesium
    etc
86
Q

Nutrition is crucial in helping patients through hyper-metabolic phase and preparing for anabolic recovery. State 3 important things you should remember

A
  • ambient temperature
  • use the gut if possible (nasogastric tubes)
  • TPN (trace elements, fat-soluble vitamins)
87
Q

What is primary malnutrition?

A
  • protein-calorie undernutrition (starvation)

- dietary deficiency of specific nutrients (eg. trace elements, water-soluble vitamins, fat-soluble vitamins)

88
Q

What is secondary malnutrition?

A
  • nutrients suppressed in adequate amounts but appetite is suppressed
  • nutrients present in adequate amounts but absorption and utilisation are inadequate
  • increased demand for specific nutrients to meet physiological needs
89
Q

What are the consequences of malnutrition?

A
  • negative nitrogen balance
  • muscle wasting
  • widespread cellular dysfunction
  • other complications
90
Q

What is malnutrition associated with?

A
  • infection
  • poor wound healing
  • changes in drug metabolism
  • prolonged hospitalisation
  • increased mortality
91
Q

What is the overall incidence of malnutrition in hospitalised patients?

A

Approximately 50%

92
Q

State the stages in the pathway where starvation and malnutrition can lead to referring syndrome

A
  • starvation/malnutrition
  • glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and protein catabolism
  • protein, fat, mineral, electrolyte and vitamin depletion (salt and water intolerance)
  • refeeding (switch to anabolism)
  • fluid, salt, nutrients (CHO major energy source)
  • insulin secretion
  • increased protein and glycogen synthesis (increased glucose uptake, utilisation of thiamine, uptake of K+, Mg2+, PO42- )
  • hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, thiamine deficiency, salt and water retention-odema
  • refeeding syndrome
93
Q

Why does refeeding syndrome cause depletion of electrolytes?

A

During refeeding, insulin secretion resumes in response to increased blood sugar; resulting in increased glycogen, fat and protein synthesis. This process requires phosphates, magnesium and potassium which are already depleted and the stores rapidly become used up.

94
Q

How many newborn infants are affected by CF in the UK?

A

1 in 2,500

95
Q

What does CFTR protein stand for?

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator protein

96
Q

Where are the cAMP dependent chloride channels found? (affected by CF)

A

The apical membrane of secretory and absorptive epithelial cells within the

  • airways
  • pancreas
  • liver
  • intestine
  • sweat glands
  • vas deferens
97
Q

What is the function of the CFTR protein?

A

Facilitates production of thin, watery, free-flowing mucus

  • lubricating airways and secretory ducts
  • protecting the lining of the airways, digestive system and reproductive system

So that macromolecules (eg. digestive enzymes) can be secreted smoothly out of secretory ducts

98
Q

What does CFTR dysfunction lead to?

A

Failure to maintain hydration of macromolecules in the lumen of the ducts of the lungs, pancreas, intestine, liver and vas deference - causing secretions to precipitate and cause obstruction

99
Q

CFTR dysfunction leads to digestive enzyme deficiencies. What does this lead to?

A

Malnutrition

100
Q

Why does CFTR dysfunction lead to lung disease and persistent infection and inflammatory state?

A
  • mucous plugging
  • bacterial colonisation
  • neutrophils accumulate
  • elastase is secreted which digests lung proteins causing tissue damage
  • dead neutrophils release DNA which increased viscosity of CF sputum
  • this leads to more mucous plugging and therefore more infection
101
Q

Give 4 main aspects of gastrointestinal disease in cystic fibrosis

A
  • meconium ileus at birth (15%)
  • severe hepatobiliary disease
  • pancreatic cysts = exocrine insufficiency
  • poor appetite, failure to thrive, low weight
102
Q

What does meconium ileus have an associated risk of?

A

Intestinal failure

103
Q

What does severe hepatobiliary disease in CF lead to?

A

Compromised hepatic metabolism of lipids, steroid hormones, drugs and toxins

104
Q

What does exocrine insufficiency due to pancreatic cysts in CF lead to?

A

Insulin - diabetes

Lipase - lipid malabsorption, steatorrhoea, fat soluble vitamin deficiency

Proteases - protein malnutrition

105
Q

What treatments are used in CF for respiratory disease ?

A
  • physiotherapy
  • exercise
  • bronchodilators
  • antibiotics (oral/nebuliser/IV)
  • steroids
  • mucolytics (DNase)
106
Q

What treatment is used in CF for GI disease?

A
  • pancreatic enzyme replacement (Creon)
  • lifelong nutritional supplements
  • fat-soluble vitamins
  • high calorie diet
  • ursodeoxycholic acid
107
Q

What are the aims of CF treatment for GI disease?

A
  • maintain body weight
  • avoid catabolic state
  • introduce artificial feed early if sick
108
Q

What are the aims of CF treatment for respiratory disease?

A
  • reduce infection

- reduce inflammation

109
Q

What is Creon?

A

Drug for CF - pancreatic enzyme replacement

Contains lipase, protease and amylase

Made from pig pancreas