220 final exam Flashcards
- What is a key characteristic of a quasi-experimental (QE) design?
A) It always includes random assignment
B) The independent variable is always manipulated
C) It does not use random assignment, which can affect causality
D) It does not require a comparison group
C) It does not use random assignment, which can affect causality
similar to an experiment but does not use random assignment. This means the researcher cannot fully control who is in each group, which can make it harder to prove cause and effect.
participants are placed into groups based on certain criteria they meet, like age, gender, or a specific condition, instead of being randomly assigned. This means the researcher doesn’t have full control over who goes into which group.
What is required for a quasi-experimental design?
A) Random assignment of subjects
B) Comparison group and/or multiple measures
C) A single-group study
D) No need for pretests or posttests
B) Comparison group and/or multiple measures
Example: A study comparing rehabilitation programs might have a treatment group and a comparison group to measure effectiveness.
A quasi-experiment compares a treatment group to a control group but doesn’t use random assignment.
What are the two major categories of quasi-experimental designs?
A) True experiment and survey research
B) Nonequivalent groups and time-series designs
C) Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs
D) Experimental and ex post factor
Nonequivalent Groups Design:
This involves comparing two or more groups that are not randomly assigned. The groups might differ in important ways before the study starts.
Example: Comparing students in two schools, one with a new teaching method and one without, but the students weren’t randomly assigned to the schools. they might have been selected or placed in those schools for reasons unrelated to the study.
since participants aren’t randomly assigned, the groups might have pre-existing differences (called confounding variables)
Time-Series Design:
This looks at changes over time in the same group before and after an event or treatment.
Example: Studying crime rates before and after a new law is passed, using data from several months or years.
In a nonequivalent groups design, how are comparison groups determined?
A) Through random assignment
B) By letting participants choose
C) By using matching or comparing pre-existing groups
D) By assigning every participant to both groups
C) By using matching or comparing pre-existing groups
nonequivalent groups design, one group gets the treatment, and the other group does not. The goal is to compare the two groups to see if the treatment caused any differences. Since the groups are not randomly assigned, researchers try to make the groups as similar as possible (using things like matching by age, gender, etc.) before giving the treatment to one group. This way, any differences you see can be more confidently linked to the treatment rather than other factors.
Which of the following describes a Static Group Comparison design?
A) One group receives treatment, the other does not, and both are measured afterward
B) Both groups are tested before and after treatment
C) Only one group is tested after treatment
D) Groups are randomly assigned to treatments
A) One group receives treatment, the other does not, and both are measured afterward
Group 1 X O
—————————–
Group 2 () O
t1 t2
Posttest-Only Nonequivalent Groups Design
In a Pretest-Posttest Nonequivalent Control Group design, what happens?
A) Both groups are tested before and after treatment, but only one group gets the treatment
B) There is no pretest, only a posttest
C) Subjects are randomly assigned to groups
D) The independent variable is always manipulated
A) Both groups are tested before and after treatment, but only one group gets the treatment
Example: A school reform program is tested by measuring students’ performance before and after the program in both a treatment and control school.
Group 1 O X O
—————————————
Group 2 O () O
t1 t2 t3
Which quasi-experimental design uses a recollection or archived data as a pretest?
A) One-group pretest-posttest design
B) Proxy pretest design
C) Nonequivalent groups design
D) Interrupted time series design
Proxy pretest desgin
A Proxy Pretest Design uses old data or memories as the “pretest” instead of actually measuring people before the treatment.
Helps researchers compare before and after without taking a true pretest
What makes time-series designs different from other quasi-experimental designs?
A) They have no control group
B) They use repeated measurements over time before and after an intervention
C) They always use random assignment
D) They do not measure the dependent variable
B) They use repeated measurements over time before and after an intervention
they measure the same group many times — before and after something happens (like a treatment or event).
Example: A law reducing drunk driving is tested by analyzing accident rates over several years before and after the law is passed.
What is a key characteristic of an Interrupted Time Series design?
A) Only one measurement is taken before treatment
B) It includes repeated measures before and after treatment
C) It uses random assignment
D) It does not include a control group
B) It includes repeated measures before and after treatment
Group 1: O—O—O—O—X—O—O—O—O t1
t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t7 t8 t9
Before After
Which time-series variation involves stopping and then reintroducing the treatment?
A) Interrupted Time Series with Nonequivalent Treatment
B) Interrupted Time Series with Removed Treatment
C) Proxy Pretest Design
D) Static Group Comparison
B) Interrupted Time Series with Removed Treatment
O – O – X–O –O –O –[-X] –O –O –O
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t7 t8 t9 t10
O – O – X – O – O – [-X] – O – X – O – O
this would be re introduced
What is the main limitation of quasi-experimental designs?
A) They cannot be used in real-world settings
B) They lack internal validity and cannot prove causation as strongly as true experiments
C) They are too expensive to conduct
D) They require random assignment
B) They lack internal validity and cannot prove
confidence that the change was really caused by the experiment, not 3rd variable
Example: A program to reduce youth crime may show lower crime rates, but other factors (like police presence) may also contribute.
Which of the following is NOT a non-experimental research design?
A) Case study
B) Cross-sectional survey
C) True experiment
D) Key informant interview
C) True experiment
What defines a case study?
A) Randomly assigning subjects to groups
B) A detailed examination of one or a few cases using multiple data sources
C) Measuring cause and effect in a controlled environment
D) Only using numerical data
B) A detailed examination of one or a few cases using multiple data sources
Example: A researcher studies the response of one community to a new policing strategy by conducting interviews and analyzing documents.
What is a disadvantage of case studies?
A) They cannot be conducted in real-world settings
B) They lack generalizability and conclusive evidence for hypotheses
C) They cannot use different data sources
D) They are expensive
B) They lack generalizability and conclusive evidence for hypotheses
when your study results don’t apply well to other people, places, or situations.
That means it has low external validity.
What is NOT an advantage of case studies?
A) They allow flexible data collection techniques
B) They can be conducted in almost any setting
C) They provide highly detailed data
D) They always prove causality
D) They always prove causality
What are the six sources of data used in case studies?
A) Surveys, interviews, case law, experiments, focus groups, artifacts
B) Documents, records, interviews, direct observation, participant observation, physical evidence
C) Random sampling, interviews, case comparisons, cross-sectional surveys, focus groups, artifacts
D) Pretests, posttests, surveys, interviews, experiments, and documents
B) Documents, records, interviews, direct observation, participant observation, physical evidence
What is the correct order of steps in conducting a case study?
A) Develop theory → Select cases → Conduct study → Modify theory if needed
B) Select cases → Develop theory → Conduct study → Modify theory if needed
C) Conduct study → Develop theory → Select cases → Modify theory if needed
D) Modify theory → Conduct study → Develop theory → Select cases
A) Develop theory → Select cases → Conduct study → Modify theory if needed
What is sampling?
A) The process of analyzing data
B) The process of selecting observations
C) The process of creating theories
D) The process of measuring all elements in a population
B) The process of selecting observations
A researcher wants to study crime rates in Vancouver but cannot study every single person, so they take a sample instead.
Why do researchers use sampling?
A) It is more accurate than studying an entire population
B) It is often not possible or necessary to study an entire population
C) It is the only way to get a valid result
D) It prevents bias completely
B) It is often not possible or necessary to study an entire population
Example: A criminologist studying gang activity in Canada does not need to interview every gang member to understand general trends.
In probability sampling, what is true about each member of the population?
A) They have an unknown chance of selection
B) They are randomly removed from the sample
C) They have a known and non-zero chance of selection
D) They are selected based on the researcher’s preference
C) They have a known and non-zero chance of selection
Example: If there are 1,000 people in a population and 100 are randomly selected, each person has a 1 in 10 (10%) chance of being picked.
Every person in the population has a real chance of being chosen,
and you know what that chance is (even if it’s small).
What is a key feature of non-probability sampling?
A) Every element has a known chance of being selected
B) There is no way to estimate the probability of selection
C) It always represents the entire population accurately
D) It is the most scientific sampling method
Example: A researcher only interviews people who walk into a police station, which does not represent the entire city.
B) There is no way to estimate the probability of selection
not all individuals in the population have a known or equal chance of being selected
What is a sample element?
A) A list of elements in the population
B) The unit about which information is collected
C) The value of a variable in a population
D) A randomly chosen participant
B) The unit about which information is collected
unit or individual item that data is collected from. It’s like the smallest part of your data that contributes to the whole.
Example: If a researcher surveys 100 inmates, each inmate is a sample element.
What is the sampling frame?
A) The process of selecting observations
B) A list of elements in the population
C) The value of a variable in a sample
D) The process of generalizing to the population
B) A list of elements in the population
Example: If a researcher wants to study SFU students, the list of all registered students would be the sampling frame.
What is the main purpose of random selection?
A) To select participants in a way that represents the population
B) To ensure a study is ethical
C) To measure the entire population
D) To remove errors completely
A) To select participants in a way that represents the population
in a way that accurately represents the entire population
Example: If a study randomly selects 200 police officers from across Canada, it will likely represent all police officers.
How does probability theory help in sampling?
A) It ensures all data is 100% accurate
B) It allows us to estimate how closely a sample represents the population
C) It prevents bias completely
D) It eliminates errors in surveys
B) It allows us to estimate how closely a sample represents the population
helps us understand how well a sample (a small group) represents the whole population. It allows researchers to estimate the accuracy of their results and how much they might differ if they studied everyone.
What is simple random sampling?
A) Selecting a sample so that every element has an equal chance of being picked
B) Selecting participants based on researcher’s choice
C) Selecting only the most experienced participants
D) Picking participants based on location
A) Selecting a sample so that every element has an equal chance of being picked
Every individual in a group has the same chance of being chosen.
Imagine you have a jar with 100 marbles, each numbered 1 to 100. If you close your eyes and pick 10 marbles, each marble has an equal chance of being selected.
How does systematic random sampling work?
A) Selecting every kth element from a random list
B) Choosing a sample randomly without a list
C) Only picking participants who volunteer
D) Using a researcher’s personal judgment to pick participants
A) Selecting every kth element from a random list
Example: If a population has 10,000 people and a researcher wants 500, they could pick every 20th person until the selected 500 limit
What does a 95% confidence interval mean?
A) 95% of the population will have the same answer
B) The true value lies within the range 95% of the time
C) The data is always completely accurate
D) The margin of error is exactly 5%
B) The true value lies within the range 95% of the time
Imagine you have a big jar filled with lots of colorful marbles, and you want to know the average weight of all the marbles. Since weighing every single marble would take too long, you decide to randomly pick a handful of marbles, weigh them, and then use that information to guess the average weight of all the marbles in the jar.
Now, because you only weighed a few marbles, your guess might not be exactly right. But if you repeat this process many times—each time picking a different handful of marbles and calculating the average weight—you’ll notice that most of your guesses are pretty close to the true average weight of all the marbles.
A 95% confidence interval is like saying, “If I repeat this marble-weighing experiment 100 times, about 95 times out of those 100, my guess (the average weight from my handful of marbles) will be close enough to the true average weight of all the marbles.”
How does sample size affect standard error (SE)?
A) Larger samples decrease SE
B) Larger samples increase SE
C) Sample size has no effect on SE
D) SE is only used in non-random samples
Example: A sample of 1,000 people will have a smaller SE than a sample of 100 people.
A) Larger samples decrease SE
Small SE = your sample average is close to the true population average
Big SE = your sample average might be off by a lot
What is a major issue with non-probability sampling?
A) It cannot generalize to the population
B) It is more accurate than probability sampling
C) It removes all biases
D) It is always preferred in research
A) It cannot generalize to the population
Example: If a researcher only surveys people in a single police station, they cannot generalize results to all officers.
selecting participants where everyone doesn’t have an equal chance of being chosen.
What is purposive sampling?
A) Choosing participants based on knowledge or research needs
B) Selecting random people from a large list
C) Picking people based on their age only
D) Ensuring all groups are equally represented
Example: A researcher studying expert witnesses in courtrooms specifically picks experienced lawyers.
A) Choosing participants based on knowledge or research needs
A non-probability sampling method where researchers deliberately choose participants who have certain characteristics or knowledge relevant to the study
Purposive sampling = choosing specific people based on the research needs.
Focus groups = a research method where a group discusses a topic, often using purposive sampling for selection.
What is snowball sampling?
A) Selecting participants through recommendations from others
B) Choosing people randomly from a large list
C) Picking participants based on geographical location
D) Ensuring the study has equal representation of all groups
Example: A researcher studying gang culture interviews one member and asks them to introduce others.
A) Selecting participants through recommendations from others
What is the main reason researchers use sampling instead of studying an entire population?
A) It is always more accurate
B) It is often impossible or unnecessary to study the entire population
C) It prevents researcher bias
D) It ensures every individual is included
B) It is often impossible or unnecessary to study the entire population
Example: If a criminologist wants to study crime rates in Canada, they won’t interview every citizen. Instead, they take a sample to represent the population.
What is the key difference between probability and non-probability sampling?
A) Probability sampling selects elements randomly, while non-probability does not
B) Non-probability sampling always has a higher accuracy rate
C) Probability sampling is only used in experiments
D) Non-probability sampling uses a fixed selection method
A) Probability sampling selects elements randomly, while non-probability does not
Example: If we randomly select students from a university list, it’s probability sampling. If we pick only students who volunteer, it’s non-probability sampling.
Convenience Sampling
➤ Asking people who are nearby or easy to contact (like your classmates or people at the mall).
Purposive Sampling
➤ Picking people on purpose because they have special knowledge or experience (like interviewing doctors for a study about hospitals).
Snowball Sampling
➤ One person helps you find others (like a friend telling another friend to join your study).
What is the key feature of probability sampling?
A) Each member of the population has a known and non-zero chance of selection
B) It guarantees representation of all subgroups
C) It is the fastest sampling method
D) It prevents all sampling errors
A) Each member of the population has a known and non-zero chance of selection
This means that every person or thing in the larger group (population) has a chance of being chosen for the study, and that chance is not zero. In other words, no one is left out, and everyone has a fair shot at being picke
What is a sample element?
A) A person or unit about which information is collected
B) The list of all elements in a population
C) The total group being studied
D) The variable being measured
A) A person or unit about which information is collected
Example: If a researcher is surveying 100 police officers, each officer is a sample element.
What is the difference between a population parameter and a sample statistic?
A) Population parameters apply to the entire population, while sample statistics describe a sample
B) A sample statistic is always the same as the population parameter
C) Population parameters change based on sample size
D) Sample statistics are more accurate than population parameters
A) Population parameters apply to the entire population, while sample statistics describe a sample
Example: The average height of all police officers in Canada is a population parameter, while the average height from a sample of 200 officers is a sample statistic.
What is the main purpose of random selection in probability sampling?
A) To reduce researcher bias and accurately represent the population
B) To make data collection faster
C) To ensure each sample element has the same opinion
D) To eliminate the need for data analysis
A) To reduce researcher bias and accurately represent the population
Example: A criminology professor wants a random sample of students. She uses a random number generator to select 50 names from a list of 500 students.
What is the correct formula for calculating the standard error (SE)?
A) SE = SD / √n
B) SE = SD × n
C) SE = SD + n
D) SE = SD² / n
A) SE = SD / √n
Example: If the standard deviation (SD) of survey responses is 10 and the sample size (n) is 100, the standard error (SE) would be 10/√100 = 1.
If the population average approval rating is 50% with a standard error (SE) of 5%, what percentage of estimates will fall within 1 SE (45%-55%)?
A) 68%
B) 95%
C) 99%
D) 100%
A) 68%
Example: If we take multiple random samples, 68% of them will show approval ratings between 45% and 55%.
What does a 95% confidence interval mean?
A) 95% of the population falls within the interval
B) 95% of samples will have estimates within 2 SEs of the true population value
C) The sample is always correct
D) The data is biased
B) 95% of samples will have estimates within 2 SEs of the true population value
Example: If a poll estimates that 60% of people approve of a policy with a 95% confidence interval of ±4%, the real approval rate in the population is likely between 56% and 64%.
Which sampling method selects every kth unit from a randomly ordered list?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Systematic random sampling
D) Cluster sampling
C) Systematic random sampling
Example: If a university has 37,000 students and we pick every 20th student from a list, we are using systematic random sampling.
Strata sampling
Focuses on individuals from each group (called “strata”) You divide the population into small groups based on something like age, gender, or income
Cluster
Focuses on entire groups, not individuals from every group
You divide the population into big chunks (clusters) like schools, hospitals, or neighborhoods
What is the purpose of stratified random sampling?
A) To ensure key subgroups are represented in the sample
B) To select every kth unit from a list
C) To reduce the total number of participants needed
D) To eliminate all sampling bia
A) To ensure key subgroups are represented in the sample
Example: If we want to study crime rates in different neighborhoods, we first divide the city into neighborhoods (strata) and randomly sample from each one.
When is cluster sampling useful?
A) When studying a geographically dispersed population
B) When needing a sample that includes all population subgroups equally
C) When collecting qualitative data
D) When analyzing experimental results
A) When studying a geographically dispersed population
Example: A criminologist studying rural crime divides the province into counties, randomly selects counties, and surveys all people in those counties.
Which non-probability sampling method selects participants based on the researcher’s knowledge?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Purposive sampling
C) Stratified sampling
D) Cluster sampling
B) Purposive sampling
Convenience Sampling: Selecting participants who are easiest to reach. For example, surveying people at a nearby shopping mall because they’re readily available.
Purposive Sampling: Choosing participants based on specific characteristics or knowledge the researcher needs. For instance, selecting experienced teachers to study new educational methods.
Stratified Sampling: Dividing the population into distinct subgroups (strata) based on certain characteristics, then randomly sampling from each subgroup. An example would be grouping a population by age ranges and randomly selecting individuals from each age group. (individuals)
Cluster Sampling: Dividing the population into clusters, randomly selecting some clusters, and including all members from those clusters. For example, randomly selecting certain schools and surveying all students in those schools. (big groups from the whole population)
How does snowball sampling work?
A) Participants recommend others who meet the study criteria
B) Researchers randomly select participants from a list
C) Participants are assigned to groups randomly
D) A fixed percentage of each population subgroup is included
A) Participants recommend others who meet the study criteria
Example: A criminologist studying drug trafficking asks one drug dealer to refer others who are willing to participate in the study.
What is the difference between random selection and random assignment?
A) Random selection picks study participants; random assignment puts them into groups
B) Both are the same
C) Random selection applies to experiments only
D) Random assignment ensures a representative sample
Random Selection: This refers to how participants are chosen from a larger population to be part of a study. Each individual has an equal chance of being selected, which helps ensure that the sample represents the broader population.
Random Assignment: Once participants are selected for the study, random assignment involves placing them into different groups (e.g., experimental or control groups) using a random method. This process ensures that each participant has an equal chance of being assigned to any group, helping to control for biases and confounding variables.
What happens to the width of a confidence interval if we increase the sample size from 100 to 400?
A) The confidence interval gets narrower
B) The confidence interval gets wider
C) The confidence interval stays the same
D) The confidence interval disappears
A) The confidence interval gets narrower
Explanation: Larger samples reduce sampling error, making confidence intervals smaller (narrower).
When you increase the standard error, your confidence interval becomes wider (less precise).
When you decrease the standard error (like by using a bigger sample size), your confidence interval becomes smaller (more precise).
Why is ethics in research considered “not an afterthought” in social science?
a) Ethics is only relevant when harm has already occurred.
b) Ethics must be considered from the beginning of a study.
c) Ethics applies only to medical research, not social science.
d) Ethics is optional unless the study is controversial.
b) Ethics must be considered from the beginning of a study.
Example: Before starting a study, researchers must follow ethical guidelines, not just after problems happen.
What is the role of guidelines and review boards in research?
a) They punish researchers who break ethical rules.
b) They ensure research follows ethical standards and minimizes harm.
c) They allow researchers to conduct any study without restrictions.
d) They only review studies after they are completed.
b) They ensure research follows ethical standards and minimizes harm.
Example: A university’s ethics board checks if a research study is safe for participants.
Which unethical study involved Nazi doctors performing experiments on humans during World War II?
a) Tuskegee Syphilis Study
b) Willowbrook Study
c) Nuremberg Experiments
d) Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital Study
c) Nuremberg Experiments
Example: Nazi doctors conducted harmful experiments on prisoners without consent.
What was the major ethical violation in the Tuskegee Syphilis Study (1932)?
a) Participants were misled and denied proper treatment.
b) Participants were forced to take experimental drugs.
c) Participants were not harmed in any way.
d) Participants voluntarily agreed to be part of the study
a) Participants were misled and denied proper treatment.
Example: Black men were studied for syphilis and didn’t give him the medicine for cure even though there was
What did the Willowbrook Study (1963) do that was unethical?
a) It forced children to participate in a dangerous study.
b) It studied mental illness without ethical approval.
c) It infected children with hepatitis without proper consent.
d) It provided false results to protect researchers.
c) It infected children with hepatitis without proper consent.
Example: Researchers exposed children to hepatitis without full parental consent.
According to the Oxford English Dictionary (OED), how is ethics defined?
a) Rules of conduct recognized in certain associations or human life.
b) Personal opinions on right and wrong.
c) Guidelines that only apply in medical research.
d) A set of laws that must be enforced by police.
a) Rules of conduct recognized in certain associations or human life.
Example: Ethical rules exist in workplaces, research, and law enforcement.
What is a key ethical concern in research involving human participants?
a) Ensuring no harm comes to participants unless absolutely necessary.
b) Guaranteeing all research has positive results.
c) Allowing deception without any justification.
d) Releasing all participant information to the public.
a) Ensuring no harm comes to participants unless absolutely necessary.
Example: A study on stress shouldn’t put participants at serious risk.
What ethical issue was raised by Stanley Milgram’s 1961 Obedience Study?
a) Participants believed they were harming others, causing emotional distress.
b) Participants were told they had complete control over the study.
c) The study proved that all humans are naturally cruel.
d) Participants were able to stop whenever they wanted without pressure.
a) Participants believed they were harming others, causing emotional distress.
electric shock test
Example: Participants thought they were shocking a person, even though it wasn’t real.
Why is voluntary participation important in research?
a) It makes the research more ethical and protects participants’ rights.
b) It guarantees that all participants will benefit from the study.
c) It ensures the study results will always be accurate.
d) It prevents researchers from analyzing data.
a) It makes the research more ethical and protects participants’ rights.
Example: A person should not be forced to take part in a study against their will.
What is the difference between anonymity and confidentiality in research?
a) Anonymity means researchers don’t know participant identities, while confidentiality means they do but keep it private.
b) Anonymity allows researchers to share participant names, while confidentiality does not.
c) Confidentiality means names are publicly shared, while anonymity keeps them private.
d) There is no difference between the two.
a) Anonymity means researchers don’t know participant identities, while confidentiality means they do but keep it private.
Example: A survey with no names is anonymous, but a private interview is confidential.
When is it considered ethical to deceive participants in research?
a) If there is a strong scientific reason and no harm is done.
b) If the researcher does not want to explain the study.
c) If participants are unlikely to find out.
d) If the researcher wants to test how people react to lies.
a) If there is a strong scientific reason and no harm is done.
Example: In a smoke study, participants were tricked into believing there was danger to see how they reacted.
Which of the following is a legal risk researchers might face?
a) Becoming an accessory to a crime.
b) Being forced to participate in their own study.
c) Failing to publish their findings.
d) Being required to fabricate data.
a) Becoming an accessory to a crime.
Example: A researcher studying gang activity might accidentally become involved in illegal acts
How can a researcher get drawn into a criminal role?
a) By observing illegal acts and not reporting them.
b) By fabricating results in a study.
c) By ensuring all participants remain anonymous.
d) By publishing findings too quickly.
a) By observing illegal acts and not reporting them.
Example: A researcher studying drug trafficking might witness a crime but not report it.
Which of the following is an ethical issue in research?
a) Withholding beneficial treatment from a control group.
b) Publishing research in an academic journal.
c) Ensuring anonymity for all participants.
d) Following Institutional Review Board (IRB) procedures.
a) Withholding beneficial treatment from a control group.
Example: A medical study that gives a life-saving drug to some participants but not others.
Why might researchers face ethical dilemmas when reporting staff misconduct?
a) Reporting misbehavior could put their career at risk.
b) Staff members are allowed to act unethically.
c) Ethical guidelines do not apply to research staff.
d) There are no consequences for staff misconduct.
a) Reporting misbehavior could put their career at risk.
Example: A researcher sees staff mistreating participants but fears retaliation (revenge) if they report it.
What ethical guidelines does Canada follow for research involving humans?
a) The Belmont Report
b) The Nuremberg Code
c) The Tri-Council Policy Statement (TCPS-2)
d) The APA Code of Ethics
c) The Tri-Council Policy Statement (TCPS-2)
Example: Canadian researchers must follow TCPS-2 to protect human participants.
What are the three core ethical principles of the Belmont Report (1978)?
a) Anonymity, Confidentiality, and Honesty
b) Voluntary Participation, Deception, and Objectivity
c) Respect for Persons, Beneficence, and Justice
d) Harm Reduction, Legal Protection, and Reciprocity
c) Respect for Persons, Beneficence, and Justice
Example: The Belmont Report ensures participants are treated with dignity, benefit from research, and are fairly included.
What is the main purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?
a) To determine whether a study’s risks to human subjects are acceptable.
b) To punish researchers who break ethical rules.
c) To approve research that deceives participants.
d) To provide funding for ethical research.
a) To determine whether a study’s risks to human subjects are acceptable.
Example: Before a study begins, the IRB decides if participants will be properly protected.
Which of the following is something an IRB evaluates?
a) Whether a study has proper safeguards for participants.
b) If a researcher’s hypothesis is interesting.
c) How many citations a study includes.
d) If a study will become popular in the media.
a) Whether a study has proper safeguards for participants.
Example: The IRB checks that a study does not put people at unnecessary risk.
What ethical problem was associated with the Tearoom Trade study (Humphreys)?
a) Participants’ privacy was violated without their consent.
b) Participants were harmed physically.
c) The researcher reported illegal behavior to the police.
d) Participants voluntarily signed up for the study.
a) Participants’ privacy was violated without their consent.
Example: The researcher secretly recorded men in public restrooms without their knowledge.
What major ethical concern arose from the Stanford Prison Experiment (Zimbardo)?
a) Participants experienced extreme psychological harm.
b) The study was conducted in a real prison.
c) All participants were fully aware of the study’s risks.
d) The study proved that prisons are unethical.
a) Participants experienced extreme psychological harm.
Example: Participants became abusive or traumatized due to the intense role-play environment.
Which of the following is a common topic in crime surveys?
a) Victimization experiences.
b) Favorite movies of offenders.
c) Weather patterns and crime rates.
d) Social media usage of participants.
a) Victimization experiences.
Example: Surveys ask people if they have been victims of crimes.
What is the difference between frequency and prevalence in self-reported crime surveys?
a) Frequency measures how often a crime occurs, while prevalence measures how many people commit it.
b) Frequency measures how many people commit a crime, while prevalence measures how severe the crime is.
c) Frequency and prevalence mean the same thing.
d) Prevalence only applies to violent crimes.
a) Frequency measures how often a crime occurs, while prevalence measures how many people commit it.
Example: If five people commit theft ten times each, frequency is 50, but prevalence is 5.
What is an important consideration when formatting survey questions?
a) Keeping the questions short and easy to read.
b) Making questions as long and complex as possible.
c) Only using open-ended questions.
d) Avoiding structured response formats.
a) Keeping the questions short and easy to read.
Example: A short, clear question is easier to answer accurately.
Which of the following is a guideline for writing good survey questions?
a) Avoid using negative wording.
b) Use double-barreled questions.
c) Ensure questions are biased.
d) Make questions unclear.
a) Avoid using negative wording.
Example: Instead of “Do you disagree that crime is decreasing?” ask, “Do you think crime is increasing or decreasing?”
What is an advantage of structured (close-ended) survey questions?
a) They are easy to process and analyze.
b) They allow unlimited responses.
c) They take longer to complete.
d) They increase non-response rates.
a) They are easy to process and analyze.
Example: A multiple-choice survey is easier to analyze than open-ended answers.
What is a disadvantage of open-ended survey questions?
a) They can lead to misunderstandings and bias.
b) They limit what respondents can say.
c) They are always better than close-ended questions.
d) They don’t provide meaningful data.
a) They can lead to misunderstandings and bias.
Example: If someone writes a long, unclear answer, it can be hard to interpret.
Why is it important to avoid double-barreled questions in surveys?
a) They confuse respondents by asking two things at once.
b) They make the survey easier to complete.
c) They improve the accuracy of answers.
d) They encourage more detailed responses.
a) They confuse respondents by asking two things at once.
Example: “Do you think police should be stricter and increase funding?” asks two things at once.
Which of the following is a key issue in ethical research involving human participants? a) Ensuring the research is profitable for the researcher
b) Weighing potential harm against the potential benefits for participants
c) Ensuring all participants are paid equally
d) Avoiding any form of deception regardless of the study’s importance
b) Weighing potential harm against the potential benefits for participants
Example: A researcher must balance the possible benefits of a study with the risks posed to participants.
What ethical issue is raised by the Stanford Prison Experiment (Zimbardo)? a) Deceptive practices without valid justification
b) Participants being forced to remain in the study
c) Harm caused to participants due to the study’s design
d) Lack of confidentiality in the study results
c) Harm caused to participants due to the study’s design
Example: The Stanford Prison Experiment caused severe emotional and psychological harm to participants due to the intense conditions of the study.
A researcher becomes legally liable if they:
a) Fail to obtain informed consent from participants
b) Report their findings in a timely manner
c) Provide compensation for participants’ time
d) Publish their study without approval from an IRB
a) Fail to obtain informed consent from participants
Example: A researcher fails to obtain consent from a participant before including them in the study, leading to potential legal issues.
What is the main function of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs)?
a) To approve the research funding
b) To assess the ethical risks of research and ensure safeguards are in place
c) To provide a public opinion on the research topic
d) To assist with data analysis for the study
b) To assess the ethical risks of research and ensure safeguards are in place
Example: An IRB reviews a proposed research study to ensure that participants’ rights and safety are protected.
Which study involved a secret observation of men in public restrooms without their consent? a) Stanford Prison Experiment
b) Tearoom Trade Study
c) Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital Study
d) Milgram’s Obedience Study
b) Tearoom Trade Study
Example: In the Tearoom Trade Study, Humphreys observed men without their knowledge to study homosexual behavior.
What is the key difference between frequency and prevalence in self-reported crime surveys?
a) Frequency refers to the number of crimes committed by a participant, while prevalence refers to how many people have committed a crime
b) Frequency refers to the number of people who have committed a crime, while prevalence refers to how often the crime occurs
c) Frequency and prevalence are interchangeable terms
d) Prevalence only applies to violent crimes
a) Frequency refers to the number of crimes committed by a participant, while prevalence refers to how many people have committed a crime
Example: In a survey about drug use, frequency refers to how many times a participant used drugs, while prevalence refers to how many people have used drugs in the population.
What is an important consideration when designing survey questions?
a) Avoiding short questions for the sake of clarity
b) Ensuring questions are easy to read and concise
c) Using long, detailed questions to gain deeper insights
d) Only asking open-ended questions to allow for more detailed responses
Example: A well-designed survey question is short, clear, and simple, ensuring that participants understand and can respond effectively.
b) Ensuring questions are easy to read and concise
Which of the following is an example of a dichotomous question? a) “What is your opinion on climate change: Strongly agree, Agree, Disagree, Strongly disagree?”
b) “Did you vote in the last election: Yes / No?”
c) “What is your age?”
d) “Please check all the types of social media you use: Facebook, Instagram, Twitter, Other.”
b) “Did you vote in the last election: Yes / No?”
What is a common problem when using dichotomous questions in surveys?
a) They provide too many response options for the participant
b) They can force participants into an artificial choice, limiting their ability to express themselves
c) They take too long to answer
d) They are more complex than multiple-choice questions
Example: A participant may have mixed feelings about voting but is forced to answer “Yes” or “No.”
b) They can force participants into an artificial choice, limiting their ability to express themselves
When designing a multiple-choice checklist, it is important to ensure that:
a) All alternatives are covered
b) There are only three choices to avoid confusion
c) The wording of alternatives is biased towards a certain answer
d) The list is as long as possible for thoroughness
a) All alternatives are covered
Example: A checklist asks participants to mark all the drugs they have ever tried, ensuring that all possible options (e.g., marijuana, ecstasy, cocaine, etc.) are included.
Which of the following is an example of a nominal-level question?
a) How many years of education have you completed?
b) Rank these sports from your most to least favorite.
c) What is your occupation? (Plumber, Teacher, Doctor, Flight Attendant)
d) On a scale of 1-5, how satisfied are you with your job?
c) What is your occupation? (Plumber, Teacher, Doctor, Flight Attendant)
Example: Asking someone’s occupation categorizes them without any ranking, making it nominal.
asks for information about categories or labels without any specific order or ranking.
For example:
What is your favorite color? (Red, Blue, Green, etc.)
What is your gender? (Male, Female, Other)
What type of question requires respondents to rank their preferences in order?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
b) Ordinal
Example: Ranking TV shows from most to least favorite is an ordinal question because it orders responses.
What is a key feature of an interval scale question?
a) It categorizes data without any order
b) It has equal intervals but no true zero
c) It ranks data but does not show exact differences
d) It includes a true zero and allows for ratios
b) It has equal intervals but no true zero
the differences between numbers are consistent (for example, the difference between 10 and 20 is the same as between 30 and 40), but there is no true zero point.
On a scale from 0 to 10, how satisfied are you with our service?”
0 means “not at all satisfied”
10 means “extremely satisfied”
In an interval scale, 0 still has meaning (like “not at all satisfied”), but it doesn’t mean “none” or “nothing exists.”
Which of the following is an example of a question rather than a statement?
a) Vancouver’s Safe Consumption Sites promote drug use.
b) What do you think about Vancouver’s Safe Consumption Sites?
c) The government should close Safe Consumption Sites.
d) Safe Consumption Sites send a pro-drug message.
b) What do you think about Vancouver’s Safe Consumption Sites?
Example: A question asks for opinions, while a statement expresses one.
A Likert-scale question is commonly used for which of the following?
a) Asking open-ended questions
b) Measuring opinions on a statement
c) Ranking preferences
d) Collecting factual data
b) Measuring opinions, feelings, attitudes on a statement
Example: “Most homeless people are too lazy to get a job. Strongly Agree – Strongly Disagree” is a Likert-scale question.
What is the purpose of a contingency question in a survey?
a) To ask all respondents the same questions
b) To follow up based on a previous answer
c) To measure opinions on a specific topic
d) To rank responses in order
b) To follow up based on a previous answer
Example: If someone answers “Yes” to “Have you ever smoked marijuana?”, they might be asked how many times.
Which of the following best describes a matrix question format?
a) It asks different follow-up questions based on previous responses.
b) It presents multiple related statements with the same response scale.
c) It forces respondents to choose between two options.
d) It ranks options from best to worst.
b) It presents multiple related statements with the same response scale.
when you ask several similar questions in a grid or table layout. The rows list the statements or items, and the columns have the same set of answer options (like a Likert scale).
Example: A table with statements like “SCS promote drug use” and “SCS save lives,” both rated on a Strongly Agree to Strongly Disagree scale, is a matrix question.
A survey question asks, “Do you think Safe Consumption Sites are effective and should receive more funding?” What is the problem with this question?
a) It is biased
b) It is too broad
c) It is a double-barreled question
d) It requires looking up records
c) It is a double-barreled question
Example: This question combines two issues (effectiveness and funding) and should be split into two separate questions.
Which of the following is a common issue when designing survey questions?
a) Making questions too short
b) Including complex terms that respondents may not understand
c) Using simple and clear language
d) Asking about only one topic per question
b) Including complex terms that respondents may not understand
Example: If respondents don’t have enough information, they might guess or skip the question.
When designing a self-report survey, which type of question should come first?
a) Open-ended questions
b) Boring demographic questions
c) Interesting questions
d) Provocative question
c) Interesting questions
Example: Engaging questions first keep respondents interested before moving to more difficult or personal ones.
Which of the following is a major advantage of group-administered surveys?
a) They are more expensive than mail surveys
b) They have lower response rates
c) They provide privacy while allowing researcher contact
d) They take longer to collect data
c) They provide privacy while allowing researcher contact
Example: Conducting a survey in a classroom setting ensures privacy while maintaining researcher contact.
What is a disadvantage of mail surveys compared to online surveys?
a) They are more private
b) They have higher response rates
c) They do not allow for question clarification
d) They allow better control over question order
c) They do not allow for question clarification
Example: If a respondent does not understand a mailed question, they cannot ask for clarification.
Which of the following can help increase survey response rates?
a) Making the survey long and complex
b) Sending reminder mailings
c) Asking only open-ended questions
d) Avoiding prepaid return options
b) Sending reminder mailings
Example: Sending reminder emails or letters encourages more people to complete the survey.
What is one major advantage of face-to-face interviews?
a) They are less time-consuming than other methods
b) They allow the interviewer to observe body language and clarify responses
c) They are cheaper than online surveys
d) They have lower response rates than mail survey
b) They allow the interviewer to observe body language and clarify responses
Example: An interviewer can clarify unclear responses in person, unlike with a written survey.
What is a potential problem with face-to-face interviews?
a) They make it easier for respondents to lie
b) They cannot be recorded for later analysis
c) Interviewer bias can influence responses
d) They prevent social desirability effects
c) Interviewer bias can influence responses
Example: If the interviewer has a strong opinion on a topic, their facial expressions or tone could influence responses.
A researcher surveys 250 people, and 180 complete the survey. What is the response rate?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 72%
d) 80%
c) 72%
Example: Response rate = (180/250) × 100 = 72%.
If some people in the sample are in prison, how does this affect response rate calculations?
a) The total sample size might be adjusted
b) The response rate will always decrease
c) It does not affect response rate calculations
d) The survey must be redone
a) The total sample size might be adjusted
Example: If 35 people cannot be contacted, the denominator might be adjusted to reflect only reachable participants.
If some people in your sample (like those in prison) can’t be reached, you don’t count them in the total when calculating response rate. So the sample size is adjusted to only include the people you could reach.
Which of the following is an example of a nonresponse category?
a) Respondent completed the survey but skipped one question
b) Respondent was in the sample frame but never answered
c) Respondent answered but gave an unclear response
d) Respondent’s answer contradicted itself
b) Respondent was in the sample frame but never answered
Example: Someone in the sample frame who never picked up the phone or replied to an email falls into the “not contacted” category.
What is the primary purpose of a focus group?
a) To collect data through surveys
b) To generate hypotheses through individual interviews
c) To elicit and understand a range of opinions and experiences
d) To conduct controlled experiments
Correct Answer: c) To elicit and understand a range of opinions and experiences
“To get thoughts and experiences from people who are either randomly chosen or connected to the topic, so the researcher can understand different views.”
What is an advantage of using focus groups in research?
a) Results are easily generalizable to the population
b) It provides a “general feel” for consensus among the group
c) Focus groups are less expensive than surveys
d) They allow for individual opinions without group influence
Correct Answer: b) It provides a “general feel” for consensus among the group
“General feel” means you get a sense of what most people in the group think — like the overall opinion or mood.
if majority agree or disagreee.
Example: A focus group discussion on a social issue like homelessness may reveal common concerns shared by the group
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using focus groups?
a) Results are too generalizable
b) They may not capture variance within the group
c) They are too expensive to conduct
d) There is no opportunity for interaction among participants
Correct Answer: b) They may not capture variance within the group
Example: If all participants in a focus group agree on a topic, the nuances of differing opinions within the group might be overlooked.
Agree with the loudest voice
Hold back their true thoughts to avoid conflict
Or just go along with the group
What is the ideal number of participants for a focus group?
a) 3-5
b) 6-12
c) 12-20
d) 20-30
b) 6-12
Example: A typical focus group might include 8 people to ensure a diverse range of opinions without becoming too large to manage.
Which of the following is NOT a consideration in planning focus groups?
a) Ethics
b) Recruitment
c) Recording
d) Survey administration
d) Survey administration
Example: When planning focus groups, the focus is on ethics, recruitment, and analysis, not survey administration.
What is the most appropriate method for recording observations in field research?
a) Video, photo, audio
b) Written reports only
c) Phone surveys
d) No recording required
a) Video, photo, audio
Example: Using video and audio recordings allows for accurate capture of behavior in natural settings.
Which of the following is a primary strength of field research?
a) High cost
b) Flexibility
c) Requires large sample sizes
d) Involves controlled environments
b) Flexibility
Example: Researchers studying alcohol-related violence in real-world settings can adjust their methods as the situation evolves.
Adapt to changes while observing
Ask new questions if something unexpected happens
What is a major disadvantage of field research?
a) Lack of depth in understanding
b) Good for establishing causality
c) May lack reliability and generalizability
d) Can be completed quickly
c) May lack reliability and generalizability
Example: Observations of a specific neighborhood may not apply to other areas, limiting the ability to generalize findings.
What is a key advantage of secondary data?
a) Expensive and time-consuming to collect
b) Can be easily manipulated for personal gain
c) Cheap and quick to access
d) Always highly accurate
c) Cheap and quick to access
Example: Using publicly available crime statistics is a cost-effective way to gather data for research.
hange or twist the information to make it look the way they want, even if it’s not true, so they can benefit from it.
What is a primary disadvantage of secondary data? a) It is always highly reliable
b) It may not be well-designed or implemented
c) It is costly to access
d) It always fits the researcher’s needs perfectly
b) It may not be well-designed or implemented
Example: A dataset from a government agency may not align with the specific variables the researcher needs, affecting the study’s validity.
What is the primary purpose of content analysis?
a) To collect observational data
b) To measure the frequency of behaviors in a population
c) To systematically analyze messages and their meanings
d) To survey participants on their attitudes
c) To systematically analyze messages and their meanings
to understand how things like words, images, or themes appear in media or documents. It helps researchers identify what is being talked about or what messages are being sent, and it can be used to count how often something happens (like how often a certain word is used).
Example: Researchers might use content analysis to examine how frequently a specific word, like “violence,” appears in media coverage.
Which of the following is an example of thematic analysis in content analysis?
a) Counting the number of violent words in a text
b) Identifying recurring themes in media portrayals of crime
c) Analyzing the time spent on violent scenes in films
d) Measuring the volume of crime coverage across multiple news sources
b) Identifying recurring themes in media portrayals of crime
Content analysis: Counts how many times certain words, phrases, or ideas appear. (Focuses on how often something shows up.) count how many times people say words like “stress,” “fun,” or “boring.” Manifest content:
Thematic analysis: Looks for meaning and patterns or themes in what people say. (Focuses on what things mean.) look deeper to find patterns like “pressure from grades” or “social support from friends” — even if people use different words. latent content
What is the key distinction between manifest and latent content in content analysis?
a) Manifest content is abstract, latent content is concrete
b) Manifest content is easy to quantify, latent content requires interpretation
c) Manifest content is never visible, latent content is always visible
d) There is no difference between manifest and latent content
Manifest content = the obvious, clear words you can see or hear.
(Example: Someone says “I’m sad” — the word sad is manifest.)
Latent content = the hidden meaning or underlying message.
(Example: Someone smiles but sounds upset — they might actually be sad.)
Example: In analyzing a TV show, manifest content could be the number of violent actions, while latent content might involve the underlying messages about violence.
What does pretesting in content analysis involve?
a) Finalizing the data collection
b) Developing coding schemes and practicing them
c) Analyzing completed data for errors
d) Measuring reliability after data collection
b) Developing coding schemes and practicing them
testing your research method on a small sample first to see if it works well. You check if your coding system (the way you categorize the data) is clear and makes sense. This way, you can find out if the method will work in the same way when applied to a larger or different group of people.
During pretesting, you code the data (like sorting it into categories like “family,” “work,” etc.).
Which is an example of a systematic observation method in field research?
a) Observing behavior at random time points
b) Following people and asking them questions
c) Using a time interval to observe behavior continuously
d) Collecting data from a fixed set of participants
c) Using a time interval to observe behavior continuously
As the researcher, you get to decide the plan and structure of the observation. You choose what specific behaviors to observe, when and where to observe, and how you will record your observations. The key is that the process should be consistent and follow a structured method to ensure the data collected is reliable and valid.
What type of role does an observer take in the “complete observer” method?
a) Actively participates and interacts with the group
b) Does not interact or disclose their researcher status
c) Acts as a participant but discloses researcher status
d) Directly influences the group dynamics by asking questions
b) Does not interact or disclose their researcher status
Example: A researcher observes a group of people without engaging with them, to study natural behaviors without influence.
Which of the following would require formal approval from an organization for field research access?
a) Studying a public park
b) Observing people in a shopping mall
c) Research in a formal organization, like the police department
d) Conducting a survey in a university classroom
c) Research in a formal organization, like the police department
Example: If studying police officers’ behavior, researchers would need approval from the department to access subjects and data.
Which of the following best describes “Hawthorne Effect” in observational studies?
a) Participants alter their behavior because they know they are being observed
b) Observers influence their participants’ behavior intentionally
c) The study loses its validity when observers leave the scene
d) It refers to the time period when studies are conducted
a) Participants alter their behavior because they know they are being observed
Example: Employees might work harder if they know they are being watched in an office setting.
Which of the following is NOT a common difficulty in observational studies on crime?
a) Offenses are rare and unpredictable
b) Observers may deter criminal behavior
c) Observers can never record crimes happening
d) Observers may face physical risks
c) Observers can never record crimes happening
Example: Observers might witness an attempted theft but could be unable to intervene or record the event directly for ethical reasons.
What is the process of selecting observations?
A. Responding
B. Sampling
C. Observing
D. Testing
Correct: B. Sampling
Example: A criminologist randomly chooses 100 people from a city to participate in a survey.
What type of unobtrusive measure examines deterioration of materials?
A. Interview
B. Erosion measure
C. Experiment
D. Survey
unobtrusive measure is a research method used to collect data without directly interacting with participants or influencing their behavior.
An erosion measure is when researchers look at things that have been used a lot to learn something.
For example, if a researcher checks out how worn-out library books are, like if pages are torn or covers are damaged, they can guess which books are read the most.
It’s a way of studying things without asking people directly – just by looking at how much the things have been used or worn down.
Deterioration of materials means when things get worse or break down over time because they’re being used or exposed to certain conditions.
A question with only two possible responses is called a:
A. Open-ended question
B. Likert scale
C. Dichotomous question
D. Interval scale
Correct: C. Dichotomous question
Example: “Do you support the death penalty? Yes or No.”
What is it called when participants answer to look good to the researcher?
A. Experimenter bias
B. Social responsibility
C. Social desirability
D. Research reactivity
Correct: C. Social desirability
answer questions in a way that they think will make them look good to the researcher, rather than being completely honest.
Who conducted the famous mock prison study?
A. Milgram
B. Bandura
C. Zimbardo
D. Pavlov
Correct: C. Zimbardo
Example: The Stanford Prison Experiment tested roles of guards and prisoners
What happens when participation changes someone’s attitudes?
A. Attrition
B. Social desirability
C. Reactivity
D. Randomization
Correct: C. Reactivity
Example: A student becomes more empathetic after doing a survey on victims.
Reactivity = When just being in the study changes how someone thinks, feels, or acts.
What refers to the underlying meaning in communication?
A. Manifest content
B. Response set
C. Literal content
D. Latent content
Correct: D. Latent content
Example: A gang member saying “we took care of him” may imply violence, not just help.
What is the number of complete surveys divided by the number of eligible cases?
A. Validity rate
B. Dropout rate
C. Response rate
D. Sample rate
Correct: C. Response rate
Example: Out of 100 contacted people, 80 completed the survey. That’s an 80% response rate.
What is a standardized data collection form?
A. Interview
B. Observation sheet
C. Survey instrument
D. Score card
Correct: C. Survey instrument
Example: A structured questionnaire given to every participant in a study.
The value for a variable in a population is called a:
A. Estimate
B. Statistic
C. Mean
D. Parameter
Correct: D. Parameter
Example: The average income of all Canadians is a parameter.
What kind of scale asks opinions along a continuum?
A. Nominal
B. Dichotomous
C. Likert
D. Binary
Correct: C. Likert
Example: “I feel safe in my neighborhood” rated from Strongly Agree to Strongly Disagree.
What is a list of all the elements in a population?
A. Database
B. Sample
C. Sampling frame
D. Variable list
Correct: C. Sampling frame
Example: A list of all licensed drivers in a city used to randomly select participants.
Data you did not collect yourself is called:
A. Primary data
B. Qualitative data
C. Secondary data
D. Experimental data
Correct: C. Secondary data
Example: Using police reports from last year in your current study.
What happens when respondents fall into a pattern of answering?
A. Bias
B. Reactivity
C. Response set
D. Dishonesty
Correct: C. Response set
Example: A person answers “Agree” to everything out of habit.
What kind of observation is done at fixed time intervals?
A. Instant observation
B. Time sampling
C. Continuous coding
D. Cross-sectional
Correct: B. Time sampling
Example: Observing and recording what a person does every 5 minutes.
The distribution of an infinite number of samples is called:
A. Parameter curve
B. Standard deviation
C. Sampling distribution
D. Bell curve
Correct: C. Sampling distribution
Example: A graph showing how sample means vary if we repeated the survey 1000 times.
Pretesting a survey is called a:
A. Focus group
B. Pilot study
C. Pre-survey
D. Sample run
Correct: B. Pilot study
Example: Trying your survey on 10 people to fix unclear questions before full launch.
Picking the most typical case is what type of sampling?
A. Random sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Convenience sampling
D. Typical case sampling
Correct: D. Typical case sampling
Example: Choosing an average-performing school for a study on student behavior.
The spread of scores around the average is called:
A. Mean deviation
B. Range
C. Standard error
D. Sampling error
Correct: C. Standard error
Example: If the average test score is 75%, the standard error tells how much it might vary from sample to sample.
When a researcher observes but doesn’t participate or reveal identity, their role is:
A. Participant observer
B. Field interviewer
C. Covert researcher
D. Complete observer
Correct: D. Complete observer
Example: Watching inmates in a yard without letting them know you’re studying them.
Who conducted the 1961 study on obedience?
A. Zimbardo
B. Bandura
C. Milgram
D. Skinner
Correct: C. Milgram
Example: Participants were told to shock a person for wrong answers, testing obedience to authority.
The value for a variable in a sample is a:
A. Parameter
B. Statistic
C. Range
D. Median
Correct: B. Statistic
Example: The average height of 100 high school students is a sample statistic.
Statistic = value from a sample.
Parameter = value from a population.
What is the minimum number of participants for a focus group?
A. Three
B. Six
C. Ten
D. Two
Correct: B. Six
Example: A criminology researcher gathers 6 police officers to discuss community policing.
What is a small group discussion or interview called?
A. Group chat
B. Interview panel
C. Focus group
D. Roundtable
Correct: C. Focus group
Example: A study team meets with 8 people to explore public opinions on crime preve
