217 v3 Flashcards
L Class VOR range: Normally usable from 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 18,000 feet AGL at a radial distance out to ____ NM
40 NM
HA Class VOR range: Between 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 14,500 feet, out to a distance of ____NM; between 14,500 feet and 60,000 feet, usable up to ____ NM; between 18,000 feet and 45,000 feet AGL, usable range increases to ____ NM.
40 NM; 100 NM; 130 NM
T Class VOR range: Normally usable only within ____ NM between 1,000 feet AGL up to 12,000 feet AGL
25 NM
VOR tuned to a VOT should have the CDI centered and the bearing pointer reading 0 degrees with a ____ indication or 180 degrees with a ____ indication. The allowable tolerance is +/- ____ degrees
FROM; TO; +/- 4 degrees
Designated ground checkpoint for VOR: Should read within ____ degrees of the specified course TO or FROm the VOR.
4 degrees
DME check should be within ____ mile(s) or ____% of the total distance (whichever is greater).
1/2 mile or 3%
Airborne checkpoints for VOR consist of certified radials that should be received over specific points or landmarks while airborne in the immediate vicinity of an airport. Must be +/- ____ degrees of the specified radial.
+/- 6 degrees
Dual VOR check must be within ____ degrees of each other
4 degrees
Localizer transmitter normally sits at the ____ end of the runway, specifically about ____ feet beyond the ____ end of the ILS runway, so that it transmits its course signal along the extended runway centerline.
departure end; 1,000 feet; departure end
Glideslope transmitter normally sits about ____ feet from the runway threshold so the TCH of a 3 degree glideslope is between 30-50 feet.
1,000 feet
Localizer width may vary between ____ and ____ degrees.
3 and 6 degrees
Localizer width produces a signal +/- ____ feet either side of centerline at the threshold
350 feet
A localizer is approximately ____ times more sensitive than a VOR signal, therefore, a full scale deflection means you are ____-____ degrees off course.
4 times; 1.5-3 degrees
Localizer may be offset up to ____ degrees, if it exceeds ____ degrees offset then it will be published as an ____ approach.
3 degrees; 3 degrees; LDA
ILS critical area: ATC will not authorize aircraft or vehicles to operate inside the ILS critical area when an aircraft is between the ILS FAF and the airport when the weather is below ____ ft ceiling and/or
800 foot; <2SM vis
The glideslope of an ILS has a usable range of ____ NM
10 NM
ATC is required to provide vector headings to within ____ degrees of the localizer course, at least ____ NM from the glideslope intercept point, and at an altitude ____ glideslope.
30 degrees; 2 NM; below
The localizer course may be flown outside of the ____ NM flight check distance if the instrument procedure depicts a greater distance or radar services are provided. If the controller clears you to intercept a localizer course, regardless of the distance from the antenna, radar service is being provided and you are expected to intercept the localizer
18 NM
Except during high crosswind situations, an accepted technique is to limit heading corrections to within ____ degrees of the inbound course
5 degrees
Should a minor deviation from the GS occur on an ILS, an accepted technique is to make small coordinated pitch and power changes that result in a VVI change of less than ____ to ____ FPM, which equates to ~____-____ degrees of pitch change
200 to 300 FPM; 1-2 degrees
(T/F) If the MA is initiated at the DH, obstacle clearance takes into account the momentary dip below DH during the go-around maneuver to accommodate for the downward vector an aircraft has when flying a constant rate descent.
True
If the course warning flag is displayed during the final approach, ____.
Initiate a MA procedure.
If the glideslope warning is displayed, the approach may be flown no lower than the published ____ or, if not publushed, no lower than the ____ for that aircraft category.
localizer-only altitude; circling minimum altitude
During localizer back course approaches, the CDI is more sensitive because ____.
The localizer antannae is located at the approach end of the runway compared to the departure end of the runway with a normal localizer approach
Localizer Back Course Approach: To maintain the proper aircraft heading/localizer course relationship, set the ____ in the course selector window.
published front course
An LDA approach is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer but is offset more than ____ degrees but not more than ____ for straight-in minimums.
3 degrees; 30 degrees
Simplified Directional Facility (SFD) Approach: This facility provides a final approach course similar to that of the ILS localizer and the LDA; however, a SFD approach will not have ____ capability.
Glideslope
The SFD signal width is fixed at either ____ or ____ degrees as necessary to provide for maximum flyability and optimum course quality.
6 or 12 degrees
Wake Turbulence: The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is ____, ____, and ____.
Heavy, clean and slow.
Wake Turbulence: Aircraft with ____ wing spans (relative to the vortex generating aircraft) will usually find it more difficult to counter the imposed roll produced by vortex flow.
Short
Wake Turbulence: A light wind with a cross-runway component of ____-____ kts (depending on conditions) can result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway.
1-5 kts
Wake Turbulence: CAUTION: The ____ ____ _____ requires maximum caution regarding the effects of wake turbulence.
light quartering tailwind
Wake Turbulence: When departing behind a large aircraft; note the other aircraft’s rotation point and, if able rotate your aircraft ____ that point. If unable, consider waiting ____ minutes to allow the wake induced vortices to dissipate.
prior to; 2 minutes
Wake Turbulence: Helicopters. In a slow hover taxi or stationary hover near the surface, helicopter main rotor(s) generate downwash producing high velocity outwash vortices to a distance that equates to approximately ____ times the diameter of the rotor.
3
RVSM is a program that enables vertical separation to be reduced from ____ feet to ____ feet between properly equipped aircraft and appropriately trained aircrew operating from FL ____ to FL 410.
2,000 feet to 1,000 feet; FL 290
Magnetic course 000-179 degrees = ____ Flight Levels
Odd
Pilots and crews that are operating in RVSM airspace in a non-RVSM compliant aircraft will state “____ ____” upon initial contact with each frequency change.
Negative RVSM
(T/F) Never follow a TCAS RA if it requires maneuvering contrary to “right-of-way” rules, “cloud clearance” rules for VFR, IFR, or other such criteria.
F; Pilots are expected to follow the RAs to resolve the immediate traffic conflict. Deviations from rules or clearances should be kept to the minimum necessary to satisfy an RA, but the RA must be satified.
Setting the Altimeter to QNE sets the altimeter to __.__
29.92
____ Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature
Density Altitude
If the pitot tube freezes over, trapping air inside, as the aircraft climbs the airspeed will ____.
Increase.
On a High Altitude Teardrop Penetration approach, the optimum descent gradient is ____ ft/nm. The maximum descent gradient is ____ ft/nm.
800 ft/nm; 1,000 ft/nm
Approach Category E provides a minimum of 300 ft obstacle clearance in the circling area with an arc radii of ____ miles.
4.5 miles
When the missed approach course is within ____ degrees of the final approach course, it is considered a straight missed approach.
15 degees
Most missed approach climb gradients require the standard ____ ft/nm.
200 ft/nm
