Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Meds > 21 > Flashcards

21 Flashcards

1
Q

Beta adrenoreceptor blocks (beta blockers) are in which Vaugh williams classification for antiarrhythmic
medications?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

b. Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following substances is released by the adrenal medulla and is considered to be a
neurohormone?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine

A

a. Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In older pt or those over the age of 65, it is not uncommon to see a decrease in hepatic activity,
especially ______ metabolism which can lead to drug accumulation

a. Phase I
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

a. Phase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which antianginal medication has a risk of QT prolongation and may cause an arrhythmia called torsade
de points (TdP)?
a. Atenolol
b. Isosorbide mononitrate
c. Ranolazine
d. Verapamil
A

c. Ranolazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Beta 1 receptor agonist leads to all of the following except

a. increase d HR
b. Bronchodilation
c. Positive inotropy
d. Increased conduction

A

Except Bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Beta 1 receptor agonist leads to all of the following:

A

increase d HR
Positive inotropy
Increased conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect that has been associated MOST COMMONLY with which one of the
following antiseizure medications?

a. Iamotrtigine
b. Topiramate
c. Phenytoin
d. Levetiracetam

A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cardiac output is a function of HR and other factor ?

a. Afterload
b. End diastolic volume
c. End systolic volume
d. Stroke volume

A

Stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Which of the following agents has the greatest risk causing orthostatic hypotension when your pt goes
from sitting to standing
a. Tamsulosin
b. Clonidine
c. Dexmedetomidine
d. Terazosin
A

Terazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following agents is considered first line treatment to increase HR and to dry secretion in
patients exposed to nerve agents?
a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Atropine
c. Edrophonium
d. Pralidoxime
A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which medication increased cardiac contractility by stimulating myocardial beta 1 receptors?

a. Digitoxin
b. DOBUTamine- stress test?
c. Levosimendan
d. Milirinone

A

DOBUTamine- stress test?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a good surrogate marker of myocardial oxygen demand?

a. Afterload
b. Double product (heart x systolic BP)
c. Preload
d. Troponin

A

Double product (heart x systolic BP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient is utilizing the beta agonist albuterol (ventolin) on an as needed basis for asthma. Which on the
following meds is most likely to result in a pharmacodynamic interaction and negate the beneficial effect
of albuterol?
a. Propanoid a beta block → were thinking this bc pharmacodynamic ?? Yess I see that
now
b. Ibuprofen, NSAID I think but I also see interactions with beta blockers in the SG
i. 22.Patient is using an albuterol inhaler, which is likely to interact
ii. a. NSAIDs ?
c. Cetirizine, antihistamine
d. Furosemide, loop diuretic

A

Propanoid a beta block → were thinking this bc pharmacodynamic ?? Yess I see that
now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Individual drug variation can result from pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic differences and may
also be categorized as idiosyncratic. Which of the following statements provides an example of a
pharmacodynamic effect?
a. Metabolism by liver enzyme CYP3A4
b. Protein binding to albumin
c. Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptor
d. Increased distribution

A

Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

. Which one of the following med is more likely to be association w the development of anaphylactic
shock?
a. Clozapine
b. Valproic acid
c. Sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim (bactrim)
d. Penicillin (pen VK)

A

Penicillin (pen VK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During dental procedure which drugs should you avoid in pt w history of asthma?

a. Aspirin
b. Opiates
c. Antihistamines
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers is classified as depolarizing paralytic?

a. Pancuronium
b. Rocuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. Vecuronium

A

Succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Grapefruit juice inhibitor of which liver enzyme

a. Cyp2d6
b. cyp3A4
c. Cyp2c9
d. Cyp2b19

A

cyp3A4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ventricular repolarization represented on the ECG by the

a. P wave
b. PR interval
c. QRS complex
d. T wave

A

T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

. Which of the following agent is a phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor

a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Milirinone
d. Phenylephrine

A

Milirinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is an example of an irreversible indirect acting cholinergic agent?

a. Sarin
b. Donepezil
c. Galantamine
d. Rivastigmine

A

Sarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Toxin induced cell damage from drug metabolites can occur through a series of non covalent and
covalent interactions. Which one of the following is considered a non covalent type of interaction
a. Exposed hepatocytes resulting in hepatoxicity
b. Increase protein resulting in nephrotoxicity
c. Increased build up of glutathione
d. Formation of h2o2

A

Formation of h2o2

23
Q

A patient present to the dental clinic for routine cleaning. The pt complains of extreme dry mouth and
feeling sleepy. You review the medication profile, which one of the following medications is most likely to
result in dry mouth and sedation due to pharmacodynamic based receptor effects at the histamine
receptor?
a. Diphenhydramine, benadryl - allergy med this is what I found too
b. Sertraline (zoloft), depression
c. Propranolol, blood pressure medication
d. Valproic acid, anti seizure medication

A

Diphenhydramine, benadryl - allergy med this is what I found too

24
Q

What are the 3 endogenous catecholamines?

a. Norepinephrine, dopamine, epinephrine
b. Dopamine, vasopressin, phenylephrine
c. Norepinephrine, dobutamine, epinephrine
d. Dobutamine, vasopressin, norepinephrine

A

Norepinephrine, dopamine, epinephrine

25
Q

Which of the following results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?

a. Teratogenicity
b. Mutagenesis
c. Carcinogenicity
d. Cardiotoxicity

A

Mutagenesis

26
Q

Which of the following beta blockers would be considered be safest to use in a pt with severe asthma?

a. Timolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Propranolol

A

Metoprolol

27
Q

Sympathetic post ganglionic neuron released which of the following

a. Norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Dopamine
d. Tyrosine

A

Norepinephrine

28
Q

A new drug is in developement that is designed to treat chronic dry mouth. In order to minimize the
potential for adverse effects and unwanted clinical effects while maximizing the ability to stimulate saliva
secretion, which of the following receptors should this new drug be a selective agonist of?
a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. Post ganglionic nicotinic receptor

A

M3

29
Q

Physical state of pregnancy can contribute to the drug variation. Which of the following statement is a
correct observation of a physiologic change that commonly occurs during pregnancy?
a. Increased renal blood flow and decreased GFR
b. Increased renal blood flow and GFR
c. Increased maternal plasma protein
d. Decreased cardiac output

A

Increased renal blood flow and GFR

30
Q

Calcium channel blockers are in which vaughan-williams classification for antiarrhythmic medications?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

Class IV

31
Q 
Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is considered a quaternary amine, meaning it has greater
peripheral effects and low CNS effects?
a. Atropine
b. Benztropine
c. Dicyclomine
d. Glycopyrrolate
A

Glycopyrrolate

32
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of alpha 1 adrenergic receptor activation?

a. Inhibitory peripheral response
b. Increases sympathetic tone
c. Decreases blood pressure
d. Causes bronchodilation

A

Increases sympathetic tone

33
Q 
In a patient who presents w severe cholinergic toxicity, which of the following symptoms would atropine
not be effective in treatment
a. Bradycardia
b. Hypersalivation
c. Paralysis
d. Urination
A

Paralysis

34
Q 
Which potent alpha agonist can be used both as a nasal decongestant and for short term management
for hypotension
a. Epinephrine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Dopamine
A

Phenylephrine

35
Q 
An example of adverse effect that is independent of the drug’s main pharmacological mechanism of
action is which of the following
a. Aspirin and tinnitus
b. Sertraline and stomach upset
c. Clozapine and sedation
d. Hydroxyzine and dry eyes
A

Aspirin and tinnitus

36
Q

Which type of arrhythmia with a HR greater than 100 beats pr minute?

a. Asystole
b. bradycardia
c. Heart block
d. Tachycardia

A

Tachycardia

37
Q 
Which of the following drugs is used to regenerated acetylcholinesterase following exposure to nerve
agents
a. Atropine
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Pralidoxime
d. Succinylcholine
A

Pralidoxime

38
Q 
Which of the following medication improves angine by inhibiting calcium ions influx through L type of
slow calcium channels?
a. Amlodipine (norvasc)
b. Metoprolol (lopressor/tropol XL)
c. Nitroglycerine (nitrostat)
d. Ranolazine (ranexa)
A

Amlodipine (norvasc)

39
Q

Which of the following is the preferred dose and route of epinephrine for management of anaphylaxis?

a. 0.3 mg IV
b. 0.3 mg subcutaneously
c. 0.3 mg IMG
d. 1 mg IV

A

0.3 mg IMG

40
Q

Fluoxetine is a SSRI antidepressant and inhibitor of cytochrome p450 2d6. Risperidone is antipsychotic
and is a substance for cytochrome p450 2d6. What effect would you expect fluoxetine to have on
risperidone in terms of concentration?
a. Risperidone levels increase
b. Risperidone leaves decrease
c. Risperidone levels not impacted

A

Risperidone levels increase

41
Q 
Which medication is an example of selective beta 2 agonist that provides short term control in patients w
asthma?
a. Albuterol
b. Formoterol
c. Salmeterol
d. Budesonide
A

Albuterol

42
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding beta 2 adrenergic receptor

a. Enhanced myocardial contractility
b. Excitatory responses
c. Triggers bronchodilation
d. Increase in chronotropy and inotropy

A

Triggers bronchodilation

43
Q

Which of the following medication has a risk of gingival hyperplasia ?

a. Acebutolol
b. Dilitazem
c. Ivabradine
d. Ranolazine

A

Dilitazem

44
Q

A drug that has an effect of increasing gastric emptying will have an effect on gastrointestinal absorption
of drug?
a. Increased absorption
b. Decreased absorption
c. Initial decrease and then an increase in absorption
d. No effect on absorption

A

Increased absorption

45
Q

Ethnic variation is a possible contributor to the quantitative and qualitative responses that individuals
experience to medication and other drugs. An example of this is that some individuals of chinese
descent do not metabolize alcohol as well and may experience flushing and palpitations. This is
because of a buildup of plasma concentrations of _________
a. Nitric oxide
b. Acetaldehyde
c. Renin
d. Acetic acid

A

Acetaldehyde

46
Q 
Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic
system?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Atropine
d. Acetylcholine
A

Acetylcholine

47
Q

Which of the following medication has a possible adverse drug reaction (ADR) of photosensitivity which
may make it painful for pt to have a dental light in their eyes?
a. Amidraonine
b. Disopyramide
c. Metoprolol
d. Propafenone

A

Amidraonine

48
Q

Which ion is required to bind to actin and myosin to produce cardiac contractility?

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium

A

Calcium

49
Q 
Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to see in patient presenting with acute
cholinergic toxicity?
a. Diarrhea
b. Dry mouth
c. Emesis
d. Miosis
A

Dry mouth

50
Q 
Movement of this ion is responsible for the rapid repolarization phase (phase 3) of the cardiac action
potential?
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
A

Potassium

51
Q

What is a common pharmacologic effect of alpha adrenergic antagonist that can occur if a dental
patients gets up from their chair too quickly?
a. Alpha 2 blockade - orthostatic hypertension
b. Alpha 2 blockade - orthostatic hypotension
c. Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypotension
d. Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypertension

A

Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypotension

52
Q

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for breaking down free acetylcholine in the serum?

a. Monoamine oxidase
b. catechol O methyl transferase
c. Acetylcholinesterase
d. Dopamine

A

Acetylcholinesterase

53
Q

What substance is released by PREGANGLIONIC fibers in the autonomic nervous system?

a. Acetylcholine
b. COMT
c. Epinephrine
d. Dopamine

A

Acetylcholine

Meds (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions