Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Meds > 20 > Flashcards

20 Flashcards

1
Q

Epi released from the adrenal medulla is considered a

A

a. Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. If a pt is taking albuterol (a beta-agonist), do not give
A

a. A beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What fires at once “all or nothing”
A

a. Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Sympathetic is
A

a. Short preganglionic fibers, long postganglionic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Preganglionic fibers release
A

a. Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What breaks down Ach
A

a. Cholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Adrenergic fibers
A

a. Release NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. When developing a dry mouth drug, what do you target
A

a. M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following is an irreversible indirect acting cholinergic
A

a. Parathion  pick the one that isn’t reversible (‘-stigmine’ agents, donepezil, galantamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Cevimeline
A

a. Increases salivation and lacrimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What regenerates AChE
A

a. Pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What does atropine not do
A

ronchoconstriction (b/c it does bronchodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What does atropine not treat
A

a. Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is a quaternary amine that is used to dry secretions
A

a. Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
A

a. Succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers will result in an increase in serum potassium
A

a. Succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What mediates actin-myosin binding
A

a. Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs results in dry mouth and sedation and binds to a histamine receptor
A

a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. T/F: variation is defined as diff drug concentrations at sites of drug action or by different responses to the same drug concentration
A

a. T

20
Q
  1. (had a description of the pt taking amitriptyline and its ability to block alpha-1 receptors). What type of variation is this
A

a. Pharmacodynamic

21
Q
  1. Chinese do not metabolize alcohol well and get an increase in what in their plasma
A

a. Acetaldehyde

22
Q
  1. Older pts have what phase of metabolism impaired resulting in drug accumulation
A

a. Phase 1

23
Q
  1. Pregnant pt takes lithium which is excreted through the kidney. How her pregnancy affect the drug concentration of lithium?
A

a. Decrease lithium level

24
Q
  1. Pregnant pt have ____ RBF and ____ GFR
A

a. Increase, increase

25
Q
  1. Pt is taking a drug with codeine. what effect occurs due to the pt’s drugs
A

a. Slowed absorption

26
Q
  1. What anti-epileptic medication results in gingival hyperplasia and affects CYP450 3A4
A

a. Phenytoin (be careful b/c all 3 anti-epileptic medications were listed)

27
Q
  1. Which of the following adverse effects is independent of the main pharmacological action?
A

a. Clozapine and seizures

28
Q
  1. What is an example of a non-covalent interaction of toxin-induced cell damage?
A

Hydrogen Peroxide

29
Q
  1. What results from the covalent modification of DNA
A

a. Mutagenesis

30
Q
  1. What results in anaphylactic shock
A

a. Penicillin

31
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs results in less platelet count
A

a. Valproic acid/divalprox

32
Q
  1. At what phase do Na+ channels open
A

a. Phase 0

33
Q
  1. On a ECG, which of the following is atrial depolarization
A

a. P wave

34
Q

a. P wave

A

a. Bradycardia

35
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs has an altered taste
A

a. Propafenone  class Ic

36
Q
  1. Which of the following classes serves as a beta-blocker
A

a. Class II

37
Q
  1. Which of the following classes serves as a potassium channel blocker
A

a. Class III

38
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs results in QT prolongation and increased risk for TdP
A

a. Dofetilide

39
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is a “slow” L-type calcium channel blocker
A

a. Diltiazem

40
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs will result in gingival hyperplasia
A

a. Amlodipine  a class IV dihydropyridine (b/c ends in ‘-dipine’)

41
Q
  1. Cardiac output is a function of stroke volume and
A

a. Heart rate

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase-3 enzyme inhibitor
A

a. Milrinone

43
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs increases O2 supply but does not change O2 demand
A

a. Nitroglycerin

44
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs inhibits late inward sodium current in ischemic myocardium
A

a. Ranolazine

45
Q
  1. Which of the following ischemic heart diseases is due to a fixed blockage and not plaque rupture
A

a. Stable ischemic heart disease

Meds (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions