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Semester 2 > 204 > Flashcards

204 Flashcards

1
Q

What year were the ASA Code of Ethics approved by the ASA Board of Directors?

1976
1984
2015
2018

A

2018

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2
Q

Types of credentialing include:

  1. Registration
  2. Certificate from accredited school
  3. Certification
  4. Licensure
A

1, 3, and 4

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3
Q

Healthcare professionals, such as SFAs are guided in their practice by:

  1. Standards
  2. Laws
  3. Regulations
  4. Policies
A

All of the above

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4
Q

A SFA maybe negligent if he/she exceeds his/her scope of practice that is defined by:

  1. Education
  2. Experience
  3. Policies and procedures
  4. Knowledge
A

All of the above

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5
Q

Effective January 1, 2020, once certified, _____ CEUs must be maintained every _____ years.

30; 2
38; 2
60; 2

A

38; 2

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6
Q

Billing requires the SFA to have a:

CPT code
ISBN#
NPI
Master’s degree

A

NPI

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7
Q

Suzie has taken the CSFA Exam and passed. For Suzie to keep her certification without retaking the exam, she must do which of the following:

Attend the national conference
Maintain continuing education (CE) credits
Attend the state meeting to be familiar with the state laws
All of the above

A

Maintain continuing education (CE) credits

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8
Q

Which type of business model would the SFA’s personal assets be protected?

Corporation
Limited Liability Company
General Partnership
S-Corporation

A

Limited Liability Company

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9
Q

Most Surgical Assistant programs are accredited through _____________.

OSHA
NBSTSA
CAAHEP
DOE

A

CAAHEP

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10
Q

The CSFA Examination consist of 175 questions, how many are scored?

100
150
175
200

A

150

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11
Q

The __________ is responsible for all decisions related to certification such as eligibility, renewal, and revocation, as well as developing the certification examination.

  1. Association of Surgical Assistants (ASA)
  2. Accreditation Review Council on Education in Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting ARC/STSA)
  3. National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)
  4. Commission of Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAHEEP)
A

National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)

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12
Q

_______________ demonstrates that a SFA from an accredited program has achieved a minimum level of knowledge and skills.

Licensure
A certificate
Certification
An Associate Degree

A

Certification

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13
Q

Unlawful physical harm is called:

Battery
Wrongful discharge
Defamation
Libel

A

Battery

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14
Q

Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?

Tort

Negligence

Malpractice

Assault and battery

A

Tort

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15
Q

If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed?

Primum non nocere

Res ipsa loquitur

Foreseeability

Intentional tort

A

Res ipsa loquitur

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16
Q

The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:

Doctrine of reasonable man

Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

Doctrine of respondeat superior

Doctrine of informed consent

A

Doctrine of reasonable man

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17
Q

A system of principles and beliefs intended to govern the behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is commonly referred to as:

Bioethics

Administrative law

Civil law

Code of ethics

A

Code of ethics

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18
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights entitles the patient to all of the following EXCEPT:

Considerate and respectful care

Refusal of all treatment

Experimental treatment without consent

Confidentiality

A

Experimental treatment without consent

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19
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA):

Gives patients the right to have elective surgery

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

Gives the patient the right to sue their surgeon

Allows patients to see any physician they chose

A

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a form of intentional misconduct?

  1. Slander
  2. Libel
  3. Negligence
  4. Invasion of privacy
A

Negligence

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21
Q

Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of respondeat superior?

  1. The things speaks for itself
  2. The matter will be settled by precedent
  3. Let the master answer
  4. The matter will be settled by justice
A

Let the master answer

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22
Q

Name the legal doctrine which applies to a SFA when he/she is acting under the direction and control of a physician or hospital who may be responsible for his/her negligence.

Res ipsa loquitur

Health Amendments Act

Respondeat superior

Primum non nocere

A

Respondeat superior

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23
Q

Granting of implied or informed permission by a patient for someone else to perform an action is called:

Indemnity

Tort

Consent

Protocol

A

Consent

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24
Q

Which of the following is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff is mutually responsible for an injury through a lack of care in combination with negligence of the healthcare provider?

  1. Comparative negligence
  2. Malevolence
  3. Malfeasance
  4. Contributory negligence
A

Contributory negligence

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25
Q

Ethics is defined as:

Legal obligation that one person owes another person

Moral obligation that one person owes another person

Laws

What the patient requests

A

Moral obligation that one person owes another person

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26
Q

The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which:

Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees

Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

A

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

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27
Q

Libel refers to:

Written information

Spoken information

Both A & B

Neither A or B

A

Written information

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28
Q

Grace F. signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier she does not fully understand what she has signed. This could constitute a liability case for?

Assault and battery

Lack of accountability

Improper documentation

Invasion of privacy

A

Assault and battery

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29
Q

A durable power of attorney made for healthcare decisions is called a:

Respondent superior

Health-care proxy

Res ipsa loquitur

Hippocratic oath

A

Health-care proxy

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30
Q

A failure to exercise that degree of skill ordinarily employed under similar circumstances by members of their profession in good standing in the same community or locality is the legal definition of:

Default

Negligence

Abandonment

Assault

A

Negligence

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31
Q

If a SFA places the operative patient’s well-being above all other factors, then the SFA is said to have a strong:

Ethical sense

Surgical conscience

Moral judgment

Set of values

A

Surgical conscience

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32
Q

_______________ techniques are used to resolve disputes in a rational way without anger or resentment.

Peaceful dispute resolution

Assimilation

Arguing

None of the above

A

Peaceful dispute resolution

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33
Q

When you pass the CSFA exam, the certification is described as:

Formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry

Legal right granted by a government agency which complies with a statute that authorizes the activities of the profession

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

Perform according to the facility guidelines

A

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

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34
Q

SFA Programs are accredited by:

CAAHEP

ARC-STSA

NBSTSA

ASA

A

CAAHEP

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35
Q

_____________ means understanding your own world views and those of the patient, while avoiding stereotyping and assumptions.

Universality

Culture competence

Monoculturalism

None of the above

A

Cultural competence

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36
Q

Which of the following is not a tort?

  1. Invasion of privacy
  2. Defamation
  3. Assault
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

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37
Q

The Latin phrase “aeger primo” refers to:

Patient first

Do no harm

Breathe

It speaks for itself

A

patient first

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38
Q

____________ is defined as the threat of touching in an injurious way.

Negligence

Assault

Malpractice

Battery

A

assault

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39
Q

Which of the following ethical principles refers to “do no harm”

Veracity

Nonmaleficene

Beneficence

Fidelity

A

nonmaleficence

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40
Q

Body heat is lost by radiation by:

A

heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings.

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41
Q

The subcutaneous layer can be described as:

A
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42
Q

The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat is/are:

A
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43
Q

The function of skin includes:

A
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44
Q

The most common skin cancer:

A

basal cell carcinoma

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45
Q

Place the following layers of the abdominal wall in order from laparotomy closure:

  1. Subcutaneous tissue
  2. Muscle
  3. Peritoneum
  4. Extraperitoneal fat
  5. Transversalis fascia
  6. Skin
  7. Deep fasica
A
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46
Q

Epidermis is distinguished by being ___________, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ____________.

A

composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

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47
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of the epidermis?

A
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48
Q

When closing skin in surgery, this type of needle is preferred:

A

cutting

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49
Q

The lines of cleavage of Langer’s lines are:

A
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50
Q

The prefix pertaining to fingernail is:

A

onych-

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51
Q

An autograft involves covering an injured area of skin with:

A

skin from an uninjured region of the patient’s body.

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52
Q

Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as:

A

Hidradenitis

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53
Q

The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:

A

Shearing

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54
Q

The nerve fibers in the dermis function to stimulate:

A

Muscles and glands in the dermis

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55
Q

Wound classification is assigned when:

Incision is made

Procedure is complete

Drain is placed

Cavity is entered

A

Procedure is complete

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56
Q

Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention?

Delayed primary

Primary union

Lag

Granulation

A

Granulation

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57
Q

When a tissue defect decreases in size by wound contraction, it is designated as healing by:

Primary intention

Secondary intention

Tertiary intention

Delayed intention

A
58
Q

Which statement concerning healing by second intention is FALSE?

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

Scar tissue formation is excessive

Healing is delayed

Granulation tissue fills in the wound defect

A

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

59
Q

Delayed wound healing may be related to:

Blood type

Gender

Ethnicity

Age

A

Age

60
Q

The protrusion of bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound closure is called:

Dehiscence

Evisceration

Wound disruption

Secondary suture line

A

Evisceration

61
Q

Serosanguineous drainage means:

Purulent

Green-tinged

Blood-tingued

Hemorrhage

A

Blood-tinged

62
Q

An adult male is injured in an automobile accident at 2a.m. An exploratory laparotomy for possible perforated bowel is initiated at 5a.m. Which of the following is the BEST wound classification in this scenario?

Clean

Clean contaminated

Contaminated

Dirty and infected

A

Contaminated

63
Q

Which can affect wound healing:
1. Diabetes
2. Nutritional status of patient
3. Anemia
4. Location of incision
5. Age of patient
6. Uremia

A

All of the above

64
Q

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. what was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery?

Clean wound, classification I

Clean/contaminated wound, classification II

Contaminated wound, classification III

Infected wound, classification IV

A

Contaminated wound, classification III

65
Q

A type of wound in which the alimentary, oropharyngeal, respiratory, or genitourinary regions are entered is classified as:

Clean contaminated

Clean

Contaminated

Infected

A

Clean contaminated

66
Q

What cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of collagen and elastin?

Proteoglycans

Ground substance

Fibroblasts

Collagenases and elastinases

A

Fibroblasts

67
Q

After tissue injury, the initial vascular and cellular response is the:

Inflammatory phase

Phagocytic phase

Injury phase

Epithelial phase

A

Inflammatory phase

68
Q

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury?

Bone

Epithelium

Muscle

Tendon

A

Epithelium

69
Q

Dense unsightly connective tissue or excessive scar formation that often is removed surgically is known as (a):

Proud flesh

Granuloma

Keloid

Pterygium

A

Keloid

70
Q

Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections?

Bacillus botulinum

Staphylococcus aureus

Diplococcus pneumoniae

Candida albicans

A

Staphylococcus aureus

71
Q

Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when preventing wound infection in the surgical patient?
1. Pathogen transmittal
2. Portal of entry into the susceptible host
3. Anesthetic options for the patient’s operative process
4. Invasion of the susceptible host

A

1, 2, and 4

72
Q

The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximated by sutures is called:

Dehisced space

Palmar space

Dead space

Intervillous space

A

Dead space

73
Q

The splitting open or gaping of a wound is called:

Evisceration

Dehiscence

Herniation

Eventration

A

Dehiscence

74
Q

Which of the following techniques demonstrate a proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections?
1. Administering appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time
2. Maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage from 48-72 hours postoperatively
3. Irrigating the wound with normal saline
4. Irrigating the wound with sterile water

A

1 and 3

75
Q

The most common cause of delayed wound healing in the operative patient is:

Wound infection

Adhesions

Tissue loss

Dehiscence

A

Wound infection

76
Q

A common pathogen typically associated with decubitus ulcers is Staphylococcus:

Proteus

Epidermidis

Pyogenes

Aureus

A

Aureus

77
Q

The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT:

Inflammatory phase

Fibroplastic phase

Chronic phase

Remodeling phase

A

Chronic phase

78
Q

A patient recently operated on for a ruptured appendix had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3. What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery?

Clean wound, classification I

Clean/contaminated wound, classification II

Contaminated wound, classification III

Infected wound, Classification IV

A

Infected wound, Classification IV

79
Q

Delayed primary closure would be the most appropriate would closure technique for which of the following procedures?

Removal of perforated appendix

Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer

Repair of an incisional hernia 12 weeks after an elective left colectomy

Repair of would dehiscence 1 week after elective left colectomy

A

Removal of perforated appendix

80
Q

During healing by first intention, the first five days are the ___________ phase; up to the fourteenth day is the ______________ phase; and from the fourteenth day until wound is fully healed is the _________ phase.

Fibroplasia (healing), maturation, inflammatory (lag)

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

Maturation, inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing)

Fibroplasia (healing), inflammatory (lag), maturation

A

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

81
Q

A 48-year-old tetraplegic with chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement. What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound?

The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing

The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing

A

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

82
Q

Which of the following would affect normal wound healing?
1. Penicillin allergy
2. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
3. Adhesions
4. Latex allergy

A

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

83
Q

There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing. Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team.

Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site

Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

The patient’s nutritional status

A

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

84
Q

Fibroblasts multiple rapidly, bridging wound edges and restoring of body structures during the __________ phase of first intention wound healing.

Lag

Hemostatic

Maturation

Healing

A

Healing

85
Q

Between which of the following postoperative days can dehiscence typically occur?

First and third

Fifth and tenth

Twelfth and fifteenth

Seventeenth and twentieth

A

Fifth and tenth

86
Q

A wound that is known to be infected at the time of surgery and is left open to be closed at a later date is categorized as:

First intention

Granulation

Delayed primary closure

Second intention

A

Delayed primary closure

87
Q

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout. The patient’s fever has subsided, and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will schedule the patient to return to the OR in 3 days for:

One more final debridement and washout

Packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure

Sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers

Delayed primary sutured closure

A

Delayed primary sutured closure

88
Q

Another name for adrenaline is:

Ephedrine

Epinephrine

Lidocaine

Levophed

A

Epinephrine

89
Q

The Sellick maneuver is performed:
1. To occlude the esophagus to prevent regurgitation
2. To visualize the tracheal lumen
3. To assist patient ventilation

A

1 & 2

90
Q

Your surgeon ask you to dilute 2% lidocaine so you can use 0.5% lidocaine for a local. How many cc of sterile water should be added to 1 ml of 2% lidocaine to create 0.5% lidocaine.

1 cc

2 cc

3 cc

4 cc

A

3 cc

91
Q

Epidural anesthesia is administered:

Anterior (deep to) to the lumbar or sacral nerve roots

Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots

Into precisely the same subarachnoid space as spinal anesthesia, but in the sacral area

Directly into the cerebral spinal fluid at any point from the ventricles in the brain, to the cauda equina

A

Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots

92
Q

Which Which of the following is the correct order of the pathway of pain?

Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

Through the paravertebral space, to the nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

Through the epidural space, nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

A

Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

93
Q

Biotransformation of amides takes place where?

Liver

Kidneys

Spleen

Bloodstream

A

Liver

94
Q

One ml is equal to:

12 cc

10 cc

5 cc

1 cc

A

1 cc

95
Q

The most widely used local anesthetic is:

Carbocaine

Marcaine

Prilocaine

Lidocaine

A

Lidocaine

96
Q

A vasoconstrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is:

Ephedrine

Epinephrine

Aramine

Ethrane

A

Epinephrine

97
Q

The generic name for Marcaine is:

Xylocaine

Bupivaciane

Oxytocin

Lidocaine

A

Bupivaciane

98
Q

Which of these needles would have the largest diameter?

16

18

25

27

A

16

99
Q

The type of anesthetic technique in which medication is injected under the skin to anesthetize the nerve endings and nerve fibers is call a(n) _______ anesthetic

Topical

Local

Epidural

Spinal block

A

Local

100
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral medication route?
1. Intramuscular
2. Subcutaneous
3. Intravenous

A

All of the above

101
Q

Which All of the following statements is FALSE concerning hypodermic needles?

    Hypodermic needles may be used to withdraw medication from a vial, to inject medication into tissue, or to withdraw body fluids.

Most needles used in the operating room are disposable and the hub is color coded by size.
The diameter of hypodermic needles is indicated by a gauge number which means the diameter of the needle and range from size 12 to 30.
The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.
A

The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.

102
Q

When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?

0.25%

0.5%

0.75%

1.0%

A

0.25%

103
Q

A standard syringe is calibrated in _______________________.

Cubic centimeters

Units

Hundredth of a cubic centimeter

None of the above

A

Cubic centimeters

104
Q

In what locations is lidocaine with epinephrine contraindicated?
1. Penis
2. Fingers
3. Toes

A

All of the above

105
Q

One of the many proprietary names for lidocaine is?

Xylocaine HCL

Mepivicaine

3% Polocaine

Marcaine

A

Xylocaine HCL

106
Q

All of the following are reasons to include a vasoconstrictor EXCEPT:
1. Lower blood flow to injection site
2. Increase anesthetic blood levels
3. Increase duration of local
4. Improve field of vision

A
  1. Increase anesthetic blood levels
107
Q

What portion of the nerve do local anesthetics work?

Neuron

Dendrites

Nerve membrane

Myelinated sheath

A

Nerve membrane

108
Q

Which of the following instruments would NOT be found on a resection and recession?
1. Jameson muscle hook
2. Castroviejo caliper
3. Castroviejo trephine
4. Stevens scissor

A

Castroviejo trephine

109
Q

The ________ is a cylindrical instrument used to increase the inside diameter of a tubular structure.

a. chisel
b. dilator
c. stricture
d. curette

A

dilator

110
Q

T or F: Pronged retractors are usually selected for retraction of shallow/subcutaneous tissue.

A

True

111
Q

Strong dissecting scissors such as curved ______ scissors are used on fascia and large tendons.

A

Mayo

112
Q

The Babcock clamp is an atraumatic, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or________ tubes.

a. intestinal
b. tissue
c. kocher
d. fallopian

A

fallopian

113
Q

An old wound with a mature scar will need:

Blunt dissection

Sharp dissection

A culture prior to dissection

Will need a drain postoperatively

A

Sharp dissection

114
Q

Fibrous connective tissue requires heavy scissors, such as the ________ scissors for cutting.

a.
Curved Mayo

b.
Stevens tenotomy

c.
Metzenbaum

d.
Castroviejo

A

Curved Mayo

115
Q

When doing a laparoscopy, this instruments would be best suited to grasp a loop of bowel.

Grasper

Dolphin tip dissector

Debakey

Aggressive tip

A

Debakey

116
Q

A solid knife used to cut the sternum during chest surgery is a:

Langenbeck

Lebsche

Hurd

Lambert-Berry

A

Lebsche

117
Q

The SFA is getting ready to perform skin closure of an incision. Which of the following forceps should generally be used during skin closure?

Russian

Bonney

Adson

DeBakey

A

Adson

118
Q

T or F: When a clamp is attached to tissue, it should be held by the tip to prevent accidental unlocking.

A

False

119
Q

Which of the following conditions is MOST common when insulation failure occurs in laparoscopic surgery?

Hypothermia

Wound infection

Tissue injury

Adhesions

A

Tissue injury

120
Q

Surgical instruments that are not considered in the category of clamps, retractors, or cutting instruments, but are used in most procedures, are typically included within the category of:

a. specialty instruments.
b. microsurgical instruments.
c. accessory and ancillary instruments.
d. endomechanicals.

A

accessory and ancillary instruments

121
Q

The ___________, which has a T tip with fine serrations at the tip, often is used to clamp or grasp adipose tissue.

a. Allis clamp
b. Doyen
c. bulldog
d. Satinsky

A

Allis clamp

122
Q

Forceps used to grasp lung tissue is a/an:

Crile

Adson

Duval

Walton

A

Duval

123
Q

Fomon, Cottle, and Aufricht retractors are all considered which of the following kinds of instrument?

Neuro

CV

ENT

Ortho

A

ENT

124
Q

The Heaney clamp is used specifically in ________ surgery to grasp the uterine ligaments.

a. orthopedic
b. gynecological
c. urological
d. general

A

gynecological

125
Q

When should the SFA check the overall integrity of laparoscopic instruments to ensure insulation failure does not occur?

Before usage

Weekly

After usage

Monthly

A

Before usage

126
Q

When passing sutures for deep ligation with a tonsil hemostat, how far from the tip is most “optimal” for the suture to be clamped?

At back of the jaw from maximum security

At the half-way point of the jaw

The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip

2 mm from the tip

A

The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip

127
Q

T or F: It is easier for the SFA to vary the position of the retractor and force of retraction with hand-held retractors.

A

True

128
Q

A ________ is a grasping instrument with sharp pointed tips, generally used to manipulate or grasp tissue such as the thyroid or cervix.

A

tenaculum

129
Q

A self-retaining neurosurgical retractor that is used in maintaing traction on brain tissue is the:

Beckman-Adson

Cloward

Leyla-Yasargil

Jansen

A

Leyla-Yasargil

130
Q

The typical suction tip used in lumbar spine surgery is known as the:

Poole suction tip

Renton suction tip

Frazier suction tip

Yankauer suction tip

A

Frazier suction tip

131
Q

_____________ finish is used on laser surgery instruments.

a. Titanium anodizing
b. Highly polished or mirror
c. Satin
d. Black chromium

A

Black chromium

132
Q

T or F: The hand is often the best retractor; it is softly padded and responsive through tactile sense.

A

True

133
Q

“Straight-up” skin retraction during dissection serves to:

Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery

Maximize trans-illumination of the surgical site

Minimize risk to deep vascular structures

Minimize post-op bleeding

A

Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery

134
Q

In which procedure would a Murphy-Lane bone skid be used?

Laminectomy

Menisectomy

Hip prosthesis

Bankart procedure

A

Hip prosthesis

135
Q

A frazier tip suction held to the back of a Cottonoid pattie are likely used to clear the operative field in which of the following:

Laparoscopic surgery

Endoscopic surgery

Open abdominal surgery

Microsurgery

A

Microsurgery

136
Q

The Babcock clamp is a(n) ________, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or fallopian tubes.

a. cutting
b. grasping
c. atraumatic
d. retracting

A

atraumatic

137
Q

T or F: Before repositioning any retracting device, the SFA should inform the surgeon.

A

True

138
Q

____________ reduces glare but is also prone to staining.

a.
Silver finish

b.
Black chromium

c.
Satin finish

d.
Highly polished or mirror finish

A

Satin finish

139
Q

Only partially __________ clamps and smooth tissue forceps are used in the lungs, spleen, liver, or thyroid.

a. double-action rongeur
b. single-action rongeur
c. atraumatic
d. occluding

A

occluding

140
Q

Which of the following instruments is NOT an example of a rongeur?
Kerrison
Hudson
Leksell
Lempert

A

Hudson

Semester 2 (4 decks)

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