204 Flashcards
What year were the ASA Code of Ethics approved by the ASA Board of Directors?
1976
1984
2015
2018
2018
Types of credentialing include:
- Registration
- Certificate from accredited school
- Certification
- Licensure
1, 3, and 4
Healthcare professionals, such as SFAs are guided in their practice by:
- Standards
- Laws
- Regulations
- Policies
All of the above
A SFA maybe negligent if he/she exceeds his/her scope of practice that is defined by:
- Education
- Experience
- Policies and procedures
- Knowledge
All of the above
Effective January 1, 2020, once certified, _____ CEUs must be maintained every _____ years.
30; 2
38; 2
60; 2
38; 2
Billing requires the SFA to have a:
CPT code
ISBN#
NPI
Master’s degree
NPI
Suzie has taken the CSFA Exam and passed. For Suzie to keep her certification without retaking the exam, she must do which of the following:
Attend the national conference
Maintain continuing education (CE) credits
Attend the state meeting to be familiar with the state laws
All of the above
Maintain continuing education (CE) credits
Which type of business model would the SFA’s personal assets be protected?
Corporation
Limited Liability Company
General Partnership
S-Corporation
Limited Liability Company
Most Surgical Assistant programs are accredited through _____________.
OSHA
NBSTSA
CAAHEP
DOE
CAAHEP
The CSFA Examination consist of 175 questions, how many are scored?
100
150
175
200
150
The __________ is responsible for all decisions related to certification such as eligibility, renewal, and revocation, as well as developing the certification examination.
- Association of Surgical Assistants (ASA)
- Accreditation Review Council on Education in Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting ARC/STSA)
- National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)
- Commission of Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAHEEP)
National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)
_______________ demonstrates that a SFA from an accredited program has achieved a minimum level of knowledge and skills.
Licensure
A certificate
Certification
An Associate Degree
Certification
Unlawful physical harm is called:
Battery
Wrongful discharge
Defamation
Libel
Battery
Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?
Tort
Negligence
Malpractice
Assault and battery
Tort
If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed?
Primum non nocere
Res ipsa loquitur
Foreseeability
Intentional tort
Res ipsa loquitur
The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:
Doctrine of reasonable man
Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
Doctrine of respondeat superior
Doctrine of informed consent
Doctrine of reasonable man
A system of principles and beliefs intended to govern the behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is commonly referred to as:
Bioethics
Administrative law
Civil law
Code of ethics
Code of ethics
The Patient’s Bill of Rights entitles the patient to all of the following EXCEPT:
Considerate and respectful care
Refusal of all treatment
Experimental treatment without consent
Confidentiality
Experimental treatment without consent
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA):
Gives patients the right to have elective surgery
Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records
Gives the patient the right to sue their surgeon
Allows patients to see any physician they chose
Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records
Which of the following is not a form of intentional misconduct?
- Slander
- Libel
- Negligence
- Invasion of privacy
Negligence
Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of respondeat superior?
- The things speaks for itself
- The matter will be settled by precedent
- Let the master answer
- The matter will be settled by justice
Let the master answer
Name the legal doctrine which applies to a SFA when he/she is acting under the direction and control of a physician or hospital who may be responsible for his/her negligence.
Res ipsa loquitur
Health Amendments Act
Respondeat superior
Primum non nocere
Respondeat superior
Granting of implied or informed permission by a patient for someone else to perform an action is called:
Indemnity
Tort
Consent
Protocol
Consent
Which of the following is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff is mutually responsible for an injury through a lack of care in combination with negligence of the healthcare provider?
- Comparative negligence
- Malevolence
- Malfeasance
- Contributory negligence
Contributory negligence
Ethics is defined as:
Legal obligation that one person owes another person
Moral obligation that one person owes another person
Laws
What the patient requests
Moral obligation that one person owes another person
The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which:
Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff
Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts
Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees
Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment
Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts
Libel refers to:
Written information
Spoken information
Both A & B
Neither A or B
Written information
Grace F. signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier she does not fully understand what she has signed. This could constitute a liability case for?
Assault and battery
Lack of accountability
Improper documentation
Invasion of privacy
Assault and battery
A durable power of attorney made for healthcare decisions is called a:
Respondent superior
Health-care proxy
Res ipsa loquitur
Hippocratic oath
Health-care proxy
A failure to exercise that degree of skill ordinarily employed under similar circumstances by members of their profession in good standing in the same community or locality is the legal definition of:
Default
Negligence
Abandonment
Assault
Negligence
If a SFA places the operative patient’s well-being above all other factors, then the SFA is said to have a strong:
Ethical sense
Surgical conscience
Moral judgment
Set of values
Surgical conscience
_______________ techniques are used to resolve disputes in a rational way without anger or resentment.
Peaceful dispute resolution
Assimilation
Arguing
None of the above
Peaceful dispute resolution
When you pass the CSFA exam, the certification is described as:
Formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry
Legal right granted by a government agency which complies with a statute that authorizes the activities of the profession
Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard
Perform according to the facility guidelines
Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard
SFA Programs are accredited by:
CAAHEP
ARC-STSA
NBSTSA
ASA
CAAHEP
_____________ means understanding your own world views and those of the patient, while avoiding stereotyping and assumptions.
Universality
Culture competence
Monoculturalism
None of the above
Cultural competence
Which of the following is not a tort?
- Invasion of privacy
- Defamation
- Assault
- All of the above
All of the above
The Latin phrase “aeger primo” refers to:
Patient first
Do no harm
Breathe
It speaks for itself
patient first
____________ is defined as the threat of touching in an injurious way.
Negligence
Assault
Malpractice
Battery
assault
Which of the following ethical principles refers to “do no harm”
Veracity
Nonmaleficene
Beneficence
Fidelity
nonmaleficence
Body heat is lost by radiation by:
heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings.
The subcutaneous layer can be described as:
The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat is/are:
The function of skin includes:
The most common skin cancer:
basal cell carcinoma
Place the following layers of the abdominal wall in order from laparotomy closure:
- Subcutaneous tissue
- Muscle
- Peritoneum
- Extraperitoneal fat
- Transversalis fascia
- Skin
- Deep fasica
Epidermis is distinguished by being ___________, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ____________.
composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue
Which is NOT a characteristic of the epidermis?
When closing skin in surgery, this type of needle is preferred:
cutting
The lines of cleavage of Langer’s lines are:
The prefix pertaining to fingernail is:
onych-
An autograft involves covering an injured area of skin with:
skin from an uninjured region of the patient’s body.
Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as:
Hidradenitis
The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:
Shearing
The nerve fibers in the dermis function to stimulate:
Muscles and glands in the dermis
Wound classification is assigned when:
Incision is made
Procedure is complete
Drain is placed
Cavity is entered
Procedure is complete
Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention?
Delayed primary
Primary union
Lag
Granulation
Granulation
When a tissue defect decreases in size by wound contraction, it is designated as healing by:
Primary intention
Secondary intention
Tertiary intention
Delayed intention
Which statement concerning healing by second intention is FALSE?
Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially
Scar tissue formation is excessive
Healing is delayed
Granulation tissue fills in the wound defect
Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially
Delayed wound healing may be related to:
Blood type
Gender
Ethnicity
Age
Age
The protrusion of bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound closure is called:
Dehiscence
Evisceration
Wound disruption
Secondary suture line
Evisceration
Serosanguineous drainage means:
Purulent
Green-tinged
Blood-tingued
Hemorrhage
Blood-tinged
An adult male is injured in an automobile accident at 2a.m. An exploratory laparotomy for possible perforated bowel is initiated at 5a.m. Which of the following is the BEST wound classification in this scenario?
Clean
Clean contaminated
Contaminated
Dirty and infected
Contaminated
Which can affect wound healing:
1. Diabetes
2. Nutritional status of patient
3. Anemia
4. Location of incision
5. Age of patient
6. Uremia
All of the above
A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. what was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery?
Clean wound, classification I
Clean/contaminated wound, classification II
Contaminated wound, classification III
Infected wound, classification IV
Contaminated wound, classification III
A type of wound in which the alimentary, oropharyngeal, respiratory, or genitourinary regions are entered is classified as:
Clean contaminated
Clean
Contaminated
Infected
Clean contaminated
What cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of collagen and elastin?
Proteoglycans
Ground substance
Fibroblasts
Collagenases and elastinases
Fibroblasts
After tissue injury, the initial vascular and cellular response is the:
Inflammatory phase
Phagocytic phase
Injury phase
Epithelial phase
Inflammatory phase
Which of the following heals the quickest after injury?
Bone
Epithelium
Muscle
Tendon
Epithelium
Dense unsightly connective tissue or excessive scar formation that often is removed surgically is known as (a):
Proud flesh
Granuloma
Keloid
Pterygium
Keloid
Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections?
Bacillus botulinum
Staphylococcus aureus
Diplococcus pneumoniae
Candida albicans
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when preventing wound infection in the surgical patient?
1. Pathogen transmittal
2. Portal of entry into the susceptible host
3. Anesthetic options for the patient’s operative process
4. Invasion of the susceptible host
1, 2, and 4
The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximated by sutures is called:
Dehisced space
Palmar space
Dead space
Intervillous space
Dead space
The splitting open or gaping of a wound is called:
Evisceration
Dehiscence
Herniation
Eventration
Dehiscence
Which of the following techniques demonstrate a proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections?
1. Administering appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time
2. Maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage from 48-72 hours postoperatively
3. Irrigating the wound with normal saline
4. Irrigating the wound with sterile water
1 and 3
The most common cause of delayed wound healing in the operative patient is:
Wound infection
Adhesions
Tissue loss
Dehiscence
Wound infection
A common pathogen typically associated with decubitus ulcers is Staphylococcus:
Proteus
Epidermidis
Pyogenes
Aureus
Aureus
The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT:
Inflammatory phase
Fibroplastic phase
Chronic phase
Remodeling phase
Chronic phase
A patient recently operated on for a ruptured appendix had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3. What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery?
Clean wound, classification I
Clean/contaminated wound, classification II
Contaminated wound, classification III
Infected wound, Classification IV
Infected wound, Classification IV
Delayed primary closure would be the most appropriate would closure technique for which of the following procedures?
Removal of perforated appendix
Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer
Repair of an incisional hernia 12 weeks after an elective left colectomy
Repair of would dehiscence 1 week after elective left colectomy
Removal of perforated appendix
During healing by first intention, the first five days are the ___________ phase; up to the fourteenth day is the ______________ phase; and from the fourteenth day until wound is fully healed is the _________ phase.
Fibroplasia (healing), maturation, inflammatory (lag)
Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation
Maturation, inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing)
Fibroplasia (healing), inflammatory (lag), maturation
Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation
A 48-year-old tetraplegic with chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement. What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound?
The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing
The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots
The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection
Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing
The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection
Which of the following would affect normal wound healing?
1. Penicillin allergy
2. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
3. Adhesions
4. Latex allergy
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing. Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team.
Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site
Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
The patient’s nutritional status
Antimicrobial prophylaxis
Fibroblasts multiple rapidly, bridging wound edges and restoring of body structures during the __________ phase of first intention wound healing.
Lag
Hemostatic
Maturation
Healing
Healing
Between which of the following postoperative days can dehiscence typically occur?
First and third
Fifth and tenth
Twelfth and fifteenth
Seventeenth and twentieth
Fifth and tenth
A wound that is known to be infected at the time of surgery and is left open to be closed at a later date is categorized as:
First intention
Granulation
Delayed primary closure
Second intention
Delayed primary closure
A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout. The patient’s fever has subsided, and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will schedule the patient to return to the OR in 3 days for:
One more final debridement and washout
Packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure
Sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers
Delayed primary sutured closure
Delayed primary sutured closure
Another name for adrenaline is:
Ephedrine
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
Levophed
Epinephrine
The Sellick maneuver is performed:
1. To occlude the esophagus to prevent regurgitation
2. To visualize the tracheal lumen
3. To assist patient ventilation
1 & 2
Your surgeon ask you to dilute 2% lidocaine so you can use 0.5% lidocaine for a local. How many cc of sterile water should be added to 1 ml of 2% lidocaine to create 0.5% lidocaine.
1 cc
2 cc
3 cc
4 cc
3 cc
Epidural anesthesia is administered:
Anterior (deep to) to the lumbar or sacral nerve roots
Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots
Into precisely the same subarachnoid space as spinal anesthesia, but in the sacral area
Directly into the cerebral spinal fluid at any point from the ventricles in the brain, to the cauda equina
Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots
Which Which of the following is the correct order of the pathway of pain?
Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain
Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain
Through the paravertebral space, to the nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain
Through the epidural space, nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain
Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain
Biotransformation of amides takes place where?
Liver
Kidneys
Spleen
Bloodstream
Liver
One ml is equal to:
12 cc
10 cc
5 cc
1 cc
1 cc
The most widely used local anesthetic is:
Carbocaine
Marcaine
Prilocaine
Lidocaine
Lidocaine
A vasoconstrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is:
Ephedrine
Epinephrine
Aramine
Ethrane
Epinephrine
The generic name for Marcaine is:
Xylocaine
Bupivaciane
Oxytocin
Lidocaine
Bupivaciane
Which of these needles would have the largest diameter?
16
18
25
27
16
The type of anesthetic technique in which medication is injected under the skin to anesthetize the nerve endings and nerve fibers is call a(n) _______ anesthetic
Topical
Local
Epidural
Spinal block
Local
Which of the following is a parenteral medication route?
1. Intramuscular
2. Subcutaneous
3. Intravenous
All of the above
Which All of the following statements is FALSE concerning hypodermic needles?
Hypodermic needles may be used to withdraw medication from a vial, to inject medication into tissue, or to withdraw body fluids. Most needles used in the operating room are disposable and the hub is color coded by size. The diameter of hypodermic needles is indicated by a gauge number which means the diameter of the needle and range from size 12 to 30. The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.
The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.
When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?
0.25%
0.5%
0.75%
1.0%
0.25%
A standard syringe is calibrated in _______________________.
Cubic centimeters
Units
Hundredth of a cubic centimeter
None of the above
Cubic centimeters
In what locations is lidocaine with epinephrine contraindicated?
1. Penis
2. Fingers
3. Toes
All of the above
One of the many proprietary names for lidocaine is?
Xylocaine HCL
Mepivicaine
3% Polocaine
Marcaine
Xylocaine HCL
All of the following are reasons to include a vasoconstrictor EXCEPT:
1. Lower blood flow to injection site
2. Increase anesthetic blood levels
3. Increase duration of local
4. Improve field of vision
- Increase anesthetic blood levels
What portion of the nerve do local anesthetics work?
Neuron
Dendrites
Nerve membrane
Myelinated sheath
Nerve membrane
Which of the following instruments would NOT be found on a resection and recession?
1. Jameson muscle hook
2. Castroviejo caliper
3. Castroviejo trephine
4. Stevens scissor
Castroviejo trephine
The ________ is a cylindrical instrument used to increase the inside diameter of a tubular structure.
a. chisel
b. dilator
c. stricture
d. curette
dilator
T or F: Pronged retractors are usually selected for retraction of shallow/subcutaneous tissue.
True
Strong dissecting scissors such as curved ______ scissors are used on fascia and large tendons.
Mayo
The Babcock clamp is an atraumatic, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or________ tubes.
a. intestinal
b. tissue
c. kocher
d. fallopian
fallopian
An old wound with a mature scar will need:
Blunt dissection
Sharp dissection
A culture prior to dissection
Will need a drain postoperatively
Sharp dissection
Fibrous connective tissue requires heavy scissors, such as the ________ scissors for cutting.
a.
Curved Mayo
b.
Stevens tenotomy
c.
Metzenbaum
d.
Castroviejo
Curved Mayo
When doing a laparoscopy, this instruments would be best suited to grasp a loop of bowel.
Grasper
Dolphin tip dissector
Debakey
Aggressive tip
Debakey
A solid knife used to cut the sternum during chest surgery is a:
Langenbeck
Lebsche
Hurd
Lambert-Berry
Lebsche
The SFA is getting ready to perform skin closure of an incision. Which of the following forceps should generally be used during skin closure?
Russian
Bonney
Adson
DeBakey
Adson
T or F: When a clamp is attached to tissue, it should be held by the tip to prevent accidental unlocking.
False
Which of the following conditions is MOST common when insulation failure occurs in laparoscopic surgery?
Hypothermia
Wound infection
Tissue injury
Adhesions
Tissue injury
Surgical instruments that are not considered in the category of clamps, retractors, or cutting instruments, but are used in most procedures, are typically included within the category of:
a. specialty instruments.
b. microsurgical instruments.
c. accessory and ancillary instruments.
d. endomechanicals.
accessory and ancillary instruments
The ___________, which has a T tip with fine serrations at the tip, often is used to clamp or grasp adipose tissue.
a. Allis clamp
b. Doyen
c. bulldog
d. Satinsky
Allis clamp
Forceps used to grasp lung tissue is a/an:
Crile
Adson
Duval
Walton
Duval
Fomon, Cottle, and Aufricht retractors are all considered which of the following kinds of instrument?
Neuro
CV
ENT
Ortho
ENT
The Heaney clamp is used specifically in ________ surgery to grasp the uterine ligaments.
a. orthopedic
b. gynecological
c. urological
d. general
gynecological
When should the SFA check the overall integrity of laparoscopic instruments to ensure insulation failure does not occur?
Before usage
Weekly
After usage
Monthly
Before usage
When passing sutures for deep ligation with a tonsil hemostat, how far from the tip is most “optimal” for the suture to be clamped?
At back of the jaw from maximum security
At the half-way point of the jaw
The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip
2 mm from the tip
The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip
T or F: It is easier for the SFA to vary the position of the retractor and force of retraction with hand-held retractors.
True
A ________ is a grasping instrument with sharp pointed tips, generally used to manipulate or grasp tissue such as the thyroid or cervix.
tenaculum
A self-retaining neurosurgical retractor that is used in maintaing traction on brain tissue is the:
Beckman-Adson
Cloward
Leyla-Yasargil
Jansen
Leyla-Yasargil
The typical suction tip used in lumbar spine surgery is known as the:
Poole suction tip
Renton suction tip
Frazier suction tip
Yankauer suction tip
Frazier suction tip
_____________ finish is used on laser surgery instruments.
a. Titanium anodizing
b. Highly polished or mirror
c. Satin
d. Black chromium
Black chromium
T or F: The hand is often the best retractor; it is softly padded and responsive through tactile sense.
True
“Straight-up” skin retraction during dissection serves to:
Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery
Maximize trans-illumination of the surgical site
Minimize risk to deep vascular structures
Minimize post-op bleeding
Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery
In which procedure would a Murphy-Lane bone skid be used?
Laminectomy
Menisectomy
Hip prosthesis
Bankart procedure
Hip prosthesis
A frazier tip suction held to the back of a Cottonoid pattie are likely used to clear the operative field in which of the following:
Laparoscopic surgery
Endoscopic surgery
Open abdominal surgery
Microsurgery
Microsurgery
The Babcock clamp is a(n) ________, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or fallopian tubes.
a. cutting
b. grasping
c. atraumatic
d. retracting
atraumatic
T or F: Before repositioning any retracting device, the SFA should inform the surgeon.
True
____________ reduces glare but is also prone to staining.
a.
Silver finish
b.
Black chromium
c.
Satin finish
d.
Highly polished or mirror finish
Satin finish
Only partially __________ clamps and smooth tissue forceps are used in the lungs, spleen, liver, or thyroid.
a. double-action rongeur
b. single-action rongeur
c. atraumatic
d. occluding
occluding
Which of the following instruments is NOT an example of a rongeur?
Kerrison
Hudson
Leksell
Lempert
Hudson
