2024 Exam GIL Flashcards

1
Q

Innate Vs Acquired Immunity (9 comparisons)

A

Innate immune responses are fast and constantly active, relying on general recognition of pathogens through pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) or microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs). These responses lack specificity and memory, utilizing physical and chemical barriers, the complement system, and cells of innate immunity like macrophages to provide broad protection.

In contrast, acquired immunity is slower during the first exposure to a pathogen but becomes faster and more effective in subsequent encounters. It is highly specific, using MHC class I and II receptors to recognize antigens on pathogen surfaces. This system involves both humoral immunity (B-cells and plasma cells) and cell-mediated immunity (T-cells), and it retains memory of previous infections to enhance future responses.

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2
Q

What are the 4 Cardinal Signs of Innate Inflammation?

A
  1. Oedema
  2. Redness
  3. Heat
  4. Pain / sensitivity
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3
Q

Explain the physiological basis for the oedema in detail.

A

Proinflammatory cytokines released by local macrophages / monocytes / neutrophils lead to increased vasodilation and increased localised blood flow and vascular permeability -> increases in vascular permeability leads to the leakage of plasma proteins from the blood vessels into the extracellular space -> increased protein concentration in extracellular space causes a change in the osmotic potential of the extracellular space, where water/fluid “follows” the proteins into the extracellular space -> causing oedema.

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4
Q

Explain the physiological basis for the redness in detail.

A

As a result of increased vasodilation brough about by pro-inflammatory cytokines, the diameter of blood vessels increases, and as a result,t ehy are more proximally located to the surface epithelium. As a result, the colour of the blood within the blood vessels is more visible through the more translucent epithelium, this colour is red, as the haem component within the haemoglobin within red blood cells is red in colour.

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5
Q

Explain the physiological basis for the heat in detail.

A

As a result of an increase in blood flow and vasodilation to the area due to pro-inflammatory cytokines, there is an increase in blood flow into the localised area. This causes an increase in heat as blood is composed in large part by water, which has a relatively high heat capacity and is able to transport heat effectively.

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6
Q

Explain the physiological basis for the pain/sensitivity in detail.

A

2 actions - firstly, pro-inflammatory cytokines act directly on local free-nerve endings to lower the threshold required to fire an AP (e.g., pain signal). Secondly, due to the increased oedema and pressure buildup in the extracellular space, there is pressure applied on free endings which is enough to stimulate the generation of AP, i.e., feeling pain/sensitivity.

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7
Q

Immunology in Perio - PMNs

A

Critical component of periodontal immunity, polymorphonuclear neutrophils; 3 key actions:
1. Degranulation: PMNs are able to degranulate and release soluble antimicrobial agents (e.g., defensins, lysozymes, cytokines), which are then able to attach to and directly kill bacteria within the sulcus, as well as mediate inflammatory processes.
2. Phagocytosis: PMNs are able to engulf and phagocytose bacteria, and then further act as antigen-presenting cells to activate the acquired immune system if needed.
3. NETosis: PMNs can unwind their DNA, and then bind them back together to form NETs (Neutrophil extracellular traps). When within range of a microbial target, they rapidly open their pasma membranes, and release the NETs to catch the microbe, either directly killing it or trapping it for other immune cells to kill the microbe. The PMN can (not always) die by forming using NETs.

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8
Q

Immunology in allergic reactions (T1 hypersensitivity)

A

Sensitisation phase:
1. allergen enters the body, where a dendritic cell will phagocytose, process and present it via an MHC class II receptor.
2. Naive T helper cell read the presented allergen protein and becomes activated, leading to the activation of nearby naive B cells via cytokines, into allergen-specific plasma cells.
3. These plasma cells produce and release specific IgE antibodiees for the allergen, which then go on to bind ot mast cells’ surface (variable numbers in different people, absed on level of activation), sensitising them for future exposures.

Then upon subsequent exposures to the specific allergen:
allergens bind to the specific IgE molecules on the surface of sensitised mast cells -> cross-linking of IgE and allergens. -> cross-linking leads to the degranulation of mast cells, releasng soluble factors (histamine, cytokines).

Severity of symptoms is determined by the number of mast cells that degranulate…
few mast cells -> less severe symptoms (swelling, itching, vomiting)
more mast cells -> more severe symptoms (hives, arrhythmias, anaphylaxis).

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9
Q

What are the structures within the respiratory tract?

A

two major parts: conducting and respiratory zone.

Conducting zone: nose, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles -> ends at terminal bronchiole.

Respiratory zone: starts at the respiratory bronchioles, then goes to alveolar ducts, sacs and alveoli.

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10
Q

What are the condition requirements for air intake? What are the 4 functions of the conducting zone?

A

3 Ws: warm, wet and wash.

  1. filtration - traps dust / allergens via mucus and vibrissa in nose.
  2. cleansing - moves trapped particles within mucus to the pharynx through the actions of muco-ciliary elevator.
  3. moisten - moistens and humidifies the air via serous and mucous secretions.
  4. heat exchange - Warms / cools the air via vasculature (blood vessels).
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11
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory zone?

A
  1. site of external respiration - exchange of O2 and CO2 between the atmosphere and cells of the body.
  2. Facilitates oxygenation of blood and release of O2 into the environment.
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12
Q

What are the 8 cell types within the respiratory tract?

A
  1. pseudo-stratified columnar ciliated epithelium
  2. brush cells
  3. goblet cells
  4. basal cells
  5. alveolar type 1
  6. alveolar type 2
  7. club cells
  8. small granule cells
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13
Q

Describe the location and function of the pseudo-stratified columnar ciliated epithelium.

A

pseudostratified ciliated epithelium is located throughout the respiratory tract except larynx and pharynx.

  1. It moistens and protects the airways.
  2. Physical barrier against pathogens.
  3. Contain mitochondria which help to facilitate mucus production as well as the muco-ciliary elevator.
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14
Q

Describe the location and function of the Brush cell.

A

Brush cells, also known as airway tuft cells, are found interspersed within the respiratory epithelium. These columnar cells have a microvillous apex containing 120-140 apical microvilli and are connected to afferent sensory nerve endings at their base.

Their primary function is chemosensory, allowing them to detect harmful substances, such as bacterial pneumonia, airborne allergens, and fungi. In response to these threats, brush cells release acetylcholine, which stimulates neighboring cells with motile cilia, increasing their beating. This defensive mechanism enhances the clearance of harmful particles from the airways, contributing to the body’s protective response against respiratory threats.

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15
Q

Describe the location and function of the Goblet cells.

A

Goblet cells are located within the conducting zone of the respiratory system. They produce mucus, which contains mucin and glycoproteins, playing a key role in trapping particles and pathogens, thereby protecting the respiratory tract from harmful substances.

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16
Q

Describe the location and function of the Basal (short) cells.

A

Basal cells are located in the respiratory epithelium and function as stem cells. They have the ability to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types within the respiratory epithelium. In response to injury, basal cells increase their proliferation rate, contributing to the repair and regeneration of the epithelial lining.

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17
Q

Type 1 pneumocyte

A

they are located with in the alveolus with large cells with dense nucleus-large surface area which allows it to facilitate exchange. Makes up most of alveolar lining.

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18
Q

Type 2 pneumocyte

A

They are located within the alveolus, they produce pulmonary surfactant which is largely lipid content (90 % lipid, 10 % proteins), preventing collapse of the lungs after expiration. It reduces surface tension to prevent collapse.

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19
Q

What is COPD? what are it symptoms?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory condition characterized by several key symptoms. One common symptom is the activation of accessory muscles during breathing, indicating increased effort to breathe. Dyspnoea, or labored and difficult breathing, often causes mental distress due to the inability to ventilate enough to meet the body’s demand for air. Another notable symptom is wheezing, a continuous whistling noise caused by airway narrowing, most pronounced during expiration, which is often prolonged.

Cyanosis, a late-stage symptom, manifests as a blue discoloration of the nail beds, mucous membranes, or skin. It occurs when deoxyhaemoglobin levels exceed 5 g/100 mL of blood. Importantly, cyanosis may not appear in anaemic patients with hypoxia due to low haemoglobin levels, while patients with polycythemia (increased red blood cells) can exhibit cyanosis despite having normal oxygen levels (HbO2).

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20
Q

What are the causes of dyspoea?

A

Causes of dyspnoea (difficulty or labored breathing) include several physiological and psychological factors. One key cause is the presence of abnormal respiratory gases in the blood, particularly elevated levels of carbon dioxide (CO₂). Another factor is sensations arising from the respiratory muscles, where the body becomes aware that an abnormally high amount of effort is required to maintain adequate ventilation. Additionally, neurogenic and emotional factors, such as anxiety or claustrophobia, can also contribute to the sensation of dyspnoea.

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21
Q

Describe the causes and effects of asthma.

A

Asthma is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the airways. Symptoms can be triggered by various factors, including allergens, respiratory infections, or physical exercise. The effects of asthma include the secretion of excessive amounts of thick mucus and smooth muscle spasms, both of which lead to the narrowing of the airways, making it difficult to breathe. These airway obstructions contribute to the hallmark symptoms of asthma, such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

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22
Q

Describe the causes and effects of chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic bronchitis is caused by the inhalation of cigarette smoke, polluted air, or other irritants. These irritants trigger an inflammatory response in the airways, leading to the over-secretion of mucus by goblet cells. Additionally, the function of cialia is impaired, reducing the clearance of mucus from the airways. Therefore, more of the microbes and foreign bodies are trapped within the respiratory zone and cannot be removed. This causes frequent and repeated infections in this lung -> chronic bronchitis. As a result, the airways becomes restricted, contributing to symptoms such as persistent coughing, difficulty breathing, and increased mucus production.

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23
Q

Describe the causes and effects of emphysema.

A

Emphysema is caused by the inhalation of irritants, such as cigarette smoke, which triggers an autoimmune response. Alveolar macrophages release enzymes that damage the alveolar walls. It can also have a genetic cause, such as antitrypsin deficiency, which leads to insufficient protection of the lungs from enzyme damage.

The effects of emphysema include the breakdown of alveolar walls, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. Additionally, the degradation of elastin impairs the lungs’ elastic recoil, making it more difficult for the lungs to exhale air. As a result, respiration becomes impaired and breathing more laborious.

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24
Q

Describe PEP-PTS.

A

The PEP-PTS (Phosphoenolpyruvate-Phosphotransferase System) is a high-affinity transport system that functions as an efficient mechanism for transporting mono- and disaccharides. It acts like a “teaspoon,” ensuring precise uptake of sugars. This system is constitutively active for glucose and sucrose but inducible for other sugars.

PEP-PTS operates optimally in famine conditions, such as environments with neutral pH and limited carbohydrate availability. However, it is repressed in feast conditions, when there is a low pH and an abundance of sugars.

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25
Q

Describe Permease Transport.

A

Glucose permease is a lower-affinity, high-capacity transport system, acting like a “shovel” to move large volumes of glucose across the membrane. It operates optimally in feast conditions, such as environments with low pH and high sugar concentrations, facilitating efficient glucose uptake. In contrast, glucose permease is repressed under famine conditions, where the pH is neutral, and carbohydrate availability is limited.

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26
Q

When is most effective to have fluoride?

A

Fluoride is an inhibitor of enolase, reducing PEP production (which is required for glucose transport in the PEP-PTS system). Therefore, fluoride would be more effective in famine environments, when the PEP-PTS system is most active.

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27
Q

Describe the Metabolic Effects of Fluoride

A

Fluoride inhibits enolase, an enzyme in the glycolytic pathway, which reduces the production of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Since PEP is required for glucose transport via the PEP-PTS system, this inhibition directly affects glucose uptake under glucose-limiting conditions. As a result, the organism’s ability to grow is reduced due to the low levels of PEP available for transport.

In glucose excess conditions, the effect of fluoride on bacteria is minimized because the PEP-PTS system is repressed. In these conditions, glucose uptake is carried out by glucose permease, which does not depend on PEP. Thus, fluoride’s inhibitory effect is less impactful when sugar is abundant.

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28
Q

Glucose uptake system presents in acidogenic bacteria. Play a role in the pathogenesis of caries.

A
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29
Q

Feast and Famine Regulation Systems

A

In glucose-limited (famine) conditions, the reduced availability of glucose decreases pyruvate kinase (PK) activity. This reduction allows phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to accumulate, which is crucial for glucose transport via the PEP-PTS system. The accumulation of PEP favors the PFL pathway, ensuring the organism maximizes the efficiency of glucose uptake in these conditions.

In contrast, during feast conditions with an excess of glucose, high concentrations of glycolytic intermediates, particularly fructose-1,6-diphosphate (FDP), are produced. This abundance shifts the metabolic balance towards the LDH pathway, favoring the use of the glucose permease system for glucose uptake, which is independent of PEP and operates efficiently under high glucose availability.

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30
Q

Anatomy

A
31
Q

Describe the swallowing processes

A

Swallowing / Deglutition:

  1. Buccal Phase (Voluntary) – This phase involves the oral cavity and oropharynx. The bolus is compressed against the hard palate by the tongue. The tongue then retracts, forcing the bolus into the oropharynx while the soft palate elevates to seal off the nasopharynx, preventing food from entering the nasal passages. The bolus contacts the oropharynx, triggering a reflex to continue the swallowing process.
  2. Pharyngeal Phase (Involuntary) – This phase also involves the oral cavity and oropharynx. Two actions occur simultaneously: first, tactile receptors in the palatal arch and uvula are stimulated, prompting a coordinated muscle contraction pattern in the pharyngeal muscles, initiated by the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata, to push the bolus down into the esophagus. Secondly, the larynx elevates and the epiglottis folds over, preventing the bolus from entering the respiratory tract.
  3. Esophageal Phase (Involuntary) – This phase involves the esophagus and stomach. The pharyngeal muscles contract, pushing the bolus through the relaxed upper esophageal sphincter into the esophagus. Peristaltic waves then move the bolus down the esophagus. As the bolus reaches the stomach, the lower esophageal sphincter relaxes, allowing food to enter the stomach.
32
Q

What are the 5 tastes? Why are they important for living?

A
  1. Sweet (via glucose, alcohols, ketones)
  2. Bitter (via Nitrogen and alkaloids)
  3. Salty (via Na+)
  4. Sour (via H+)
  5. Umami (L-glutamate)

They are important for:
1. nutrient identification
2. avoidance of harmful subtances
3. apeptite regulation
4. feedback mechanism for digestion

33
Q

Which nerve is responsible for taste?

A
34
Q

Which cells are found in taste buds?

A

Gustatory receptor cells - detect different taste sensations. Contain gustatory hairs projecting through taste pores.

Supporting cells - structural support for taste buds.

Basal cells - divide + differentiate forming new receptor cells to replenish taste buds.

35
Q

Describe the process of taste.

A
  1. tastant binds to gustatory receptor cell.
    *Note tastebuds are present on soft palate, larynx, fungiform, vallate and foliate papilla (not filiform papillae).
  2. causes a depolarising receptor potential (with calcium entry via voltage-gated channels).
  3. Neurotransmitter release from receptor cell.
  4. Detected by afferent nerve fibres that synpase with receptor cell.
  5. initiate action potential in terminal endings. -> afferent nerve fibres AP initiated -> taste signal to CNS (ending at cerebral cortex).
36
Q

What is the equation for demin and remin?

A

Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2(s)=10Ca2+(aq) +6PO4(3-)(aq) +2OH-(aq)

37
Q

What are the factors of remineralisation? (protective factors)

A
  1. adequate fluoride
  2. low amount of simple CHOs (esp. sucrose) and acidic foods
  3. Low levels of cariogenic bacteria
  4. Good salivary protection
38
Q

What are the factors of demineralisation (pathological factors)?

A
  1. lack of fluoride
  2. high amounts of simple CHOs and acidic foods
  3. Mature and acidic plaque (high numbers of streptococcus mutans)
  4. Poor salivary protection
39
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

A living, well-organised cooperating community of microorganisms and their environment.

40
Q

What is a dental biofilm?

A

forms when bacteria adhere to a tooth surface and then multiply and aggregate.

41
Q

What is a pellicle?

A

a thin coating of salivary proteins and glycoproteins, amkes it easier for bacteria to stick to teeth.

42
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of a cariogenic biofilm?

A
  1. low biodiversity
  2. high levels of acidogenic and aciduric bacteria
  3. Low levels of alkali producing bacteria
  4. Resting pH of biofilm is acidic
43
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of a commensal non-cariogenic biofilm?

A
  1. high biodiversity
  2. Low levels of acidogenic and aciduric bacteria
  3. high levels of alkali producing bacteria
  4. resting pH of biofilm is neutral or slightly alkaline
44
Q

What is the critical pH? and what happens if the pH is less than the critical pH?

A

the pH at which a solution (biofilm) is just saturated with respect to a particular mineral (HA or FA).

If the solution pH is less than the critical pH, the solution is unsaturated and the mineral will tend to dissolve.

Critical pH of HA is 5.5
Critical pH of FA is 4.5

45
Q

Describe the demineralisation & remineralisation process.

A
  1. Cariogenic bacteria metabolise simple CHOs to produce weak organic acids (lactic acid).
  2. Decreased pH of biofilm (increased H+ ions).
  3. Acid reacts with PO4 ions & HCO3- ions (stimulated saliva) to mop up H+ ions.
  4. Works to recover and bring pH up to neutral level (above critical pH).
  5. If buffering systems are overwhelmed -> biofilm becomes unsaturated, equilibrium favours demineralisation:
    - pH of biofilm drops below the critical pH of HA of 5.5
    - HA crystals breakdown -> release Ca2+ & PO4^2- ions to remineralise and supersaturate the biofilm.
    *Note: close system (ions released are trapped within the biofilm).
46
Q

Mineral impurities of newly erupted teeth

A

On eruption, the enamel rods contain many impurities such as sodium, zinc, strontium, carbonate, magnesium within the structure of the crystal.
- Carbonate is the most common impurity hence called carbonated HA.
- The impurities result in the crystal being smaller and more soluble to acid than HA.

When carbonated HA is remineralised, the carbonate ion is replaced by a PO4 ion forming HA upon remin.

***Young children with newly emerged teeth have a higher risk of caries compared to more matured teeth.

47
Q

What is the function of Fluoride?

A
  1. reduces caries experience, slows caries progression and remineralises early carious lesions.
  2. assists remineralisation:
    - Critical pH of HA = 5.5
    - Critical pH of FA = 4.5
    - F ions can be readily exchanged for the OH ions without distorting the apatite crystal structure. -> becomes FA which is a more stable crystal structure.
  3. F inhibits enzymatic regulation of CHO metabolism by cariogenic bacteria (makes bacteria starve and not able to produce acids).
  4. F is bactericidal against cariogenic bacteria at high concentration of >190 ppm.
    F is bacteriostatic at <190 ppm -> interferes with the glycolytic pathway -> slows bacteria activities in their ability to produce acid.
48
Q

What is the mechanism of function of fluoride varnish?

A

CaF2 becomes coated with CaPO4 on tooth surface, slows down its dissolution.
CaF2 is a slow releasing fluoride reservoir.

49
Q

Why are professional fluoride varinish necessary?

A

F varnishes can be used to desensities root surface, arrest early caries, provide temporary relief for erosion lesions and be used for young children without risk of F toxicity.

ALWAYS say “spot application”.

50
Q

Compare the 3 professional F Varnish products

A

Duraphat (22600 ppm F or 5% NaF)
- does not contain CPP-ACP
- 4 hours on package
- Contraindicated for pts with uncontrolled asthma & pregnant woman

MI Varnish (22600 ppm F or 5% NaF)
- contains CPP-ACP which helps treat poor salivary flow.
- 4 hrs on package
- Contraindicated for milk protein allergy (casein)

ClinPro (22600 ppm F or 5% NaF)
- with TCP
- 24 hrs on package

51
Q

What are some post-operative instructions for F varnishes?

A
  1. avoid eating for 4 hours (2 hours if diabetic) although it says 24 hrs on ClinPro package.
  2. avoid hot abrasive foods
  3. avoid brushing and flossing for rest of the day
  4. avoid high F products (mouthrinses) for 2-3 days.
52
Q

F Gels / Foams -> Tray application - professional care

A
  • NaF or APF
  • Concentration -> 1.23 % or 12300 ppm
  • Indications -> arrest multiple early carious lesions, generally full arch trap application.
  • contraindications -> children under 10 yrs of age (risk of F toxicity).
  • Products -> Laclede foam, 12300 ppm NaF or APF
  • Post op instruction -> no eating for 30 mins
53
Q

Home care F varnish -> tooth mousse -> Tooth mousse plus is available, but need to explain why.

A
  1. contains 10 % CPP-ACP -> supply of Ca and PO4 ions.
  2. useful if saliva quality is impacted and to arrest early carious lesions.
  3. spot application
  4. tooth mousse plus has 900 ppm F
  5. contraindications -> milk protein allergy (contains CPP-ACP).
54
Q

Home care F varnish -> toothpastes

A
  1. adult concentration -> 1000~1450 ppm F
  2. children concentration -> <500 ppm F
  3. Other products -> Neutrafluor 5000 plus (5000 ppm F)
55
Q

Toothpaste & toothbrushing recommendations based on age (low risk pt)

A

0-18 months -> brush w/o fluoride TP (gets used to feeling of brushing teeth).

18 months - 6 yrs -> use children conc. TP twice a day for 2 mins, spit not rinse, under parental supervision, TP should be stored out of reach of children.

> 6 yrs -> use adult conc. TP twice a day, spit not rinse, parental supervision as required.

56
Q

Home care F varnish -> F mouthrinses

A
  1. neutrafluor 220 (220 ppm F, 0.05% NaF)
  2. contraindicated for children < 6 yrs.
57
Q

factors to consider for fissure sealant

A
  1. professional preventive measure against pit and fissure caries.
  2. moderate to high caries risk.
  3. age of patient (caries is a progressive disease) -> FS can benefit all age groups.
  4. Moisture control (important for CR fissure sealants) -> otherwise Glass Ionomer Cement (GIC) fissure sealant indicated.
  5. Proximal caries (fissure sealants contraindicated).
58
Q

Fissure sealant critique criteria

A

Coverage -> does the FS material cover and seal all the pits and fissures of the tooth.
Amount -> is there enough FS material in the pits and fissures (shallow but large groove visible)
Margin -> are they flushing with the surface of enamel, aiming for smooth junction.
Surface -> does the surface appear rough or smooth, are there air bubble on the surface.
Tooth -> when assessing a previously placed FS, assess colour changes and shadowing of the tooth.

59
Q

Fluorosis

A

Definition: Qualitative developmental defect of enamel caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during childhood; a type of hypomineralisation.

Mechanism: Excess fluoride disrupts enamel mineralisation, increasing enamel porosity.

Cause: High fluoride concentration disrupts ameloblast function, affecting enamel formation.

Effect: increased porosity of surface and subsurface enamel.

60
Q

Types of enamel defects

A
  1. Hypomineralisation: qualitative defect; disturbance in enamel calcification. Affected enamel appears white and opaque; may discolor post-eruption. Weakened enamel prone to breakdown. Increased water/air spaces replace minerals -> altered light reflection.
  2. Hypoplasia: quantitative defect; disturbance in matrix formation. Enamel becomes pitted, grooved, or tinned.
61
Q

More information about fluorosis

A
62
Q

Pathogenesis of caries

A
  1. White Spot Lesions (WSL): These non-cavitated lesions can be treated with topical fluoride. They may or may not be visible on radiographs. Acidic metabolites from bacteria cause surface demineralization of the enamel, leading to the appearance of white spots.
  2. Progression: As demineralization continues, the enamel becomes more porous, allowing acid to permeate through the lamellar pores. A triangular pattern of demineralization develops, following the arrangement of enamel rods and extending toward the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ). At this stage, lesions are more likely to be detected radiographically. The surface enamel remains intact, with a subsurface lesion forming beneath.
  3. Caries Spread into Dentine: The decay follows the path of least resistance along the DEJ, initially causing the formation of affected dentine. The lesion spreads along the DEJ, often exhibiting a ballooning pattern and triangular shape due to the porous structure of the dentine.
  4. Formation of Infected Dentine: As the decay progresses, increased bacterial ingress occurs due to the porosity of the dentine. This results in the development of both an affected and infected zone as bacteria penetrate deeper.
  5. Advanced Progression and Cavitation: Further progression leads to the breakdown of the collagen structure in the dentine, compromising its integrity. This deterioration often results in cavitation, as the enamel above cannot support tensile loads effectively once the underlying dentine structure is compromised.
63
Q

What are the components within teh saliva?

A

Acids (H+ donors):
1. dietary acids - erosions
2. microbial fermentation - lactic acid.
3. Gastric reflux - strong pH acid.
4. 1 pH decrease = 10x H+ increase, promoting enamel demineralisation.

Buffers (maintain pH):
1. bicarbonate - main buffer, regulates saliva pH.
2. Phosphates and proteins - secondary buffers.
3. Buffer capacity - dependent on bicarbonate concentration and total buffer pKa.

Carbonic anhydrase:
1. Regulates oral pH by breaking carbonic acid into water + CO2.
2. Removes H+ ions to maintain equilibrium.
3. Critical pH: HA=5.5, FA = 4.5; between these values, HA demineralises, and FA remineralises.

64
Q

What is acquired pellicle?

A

Thin accellular film on enamel and epithelium (composed of proteins, CHOs, and lipids).

Functions: lubrication, remineralisation/demineralisation balance, influences early microbiome.

65
Q

What are the 5 functions of Saliva?

A
  1. lubrication & protection
  2. buffering & clearance
  3. maintenance of tooth integrity
  4. antibacterial activity
  5. taste & digestion
66
Q

Discuss the lubrication and protection functions of saliva.

A
  1. cots tissues, preventing mechanical, chemical, and thermal damage.
  2. barrier against irritants and carcinogens.
  3. contains mucins - absorb to enamel, protect from acid, and aggregate oral bacteria for clearance.
67
Q

Discuss the buffering & clearance function of saliva.

A
  1. neutralises acids, reducing caries risk.
  2. clearance relates to saliva flow rate (higher flow = reduced caries).
  3. flow impaired by age, medication, posture, and disease.
68
Q

Discuss the maintenance of tooth integrity function of saliva.

A

Demineralisation - acids diffuse through plaque and enamel, dissolving minerals at pH 5~5.5.
Remineralisation - saliva delivers minerals to rebuild enamel, aided by fluoride forming fluoroapatite.

69
Q

Discuss the antibacterial activity function of saliva.

A

IgA (antibodies) + non-immunologic proteins, mucins, and enzymes protect teeth and mucosa.

70
Q

Discuss the taste and digestive function of saliva.

A
  1. enhances taste perception (especially salt foods).
  2. aids in bolus formation for swallowing.
71
Q

Discuss the consequences of Xerostomia & salivary gland hypofunction.

A
  1. Mucosal dryness & soreness sensation of mucosa & tongue.
  2. Dysphonia (difficulties speaking), dysphagia (difficulties swallowing) & dysgeusia (difficulties tasting).
  3. difficulties wearing dentures -> relates to the role of saliva in providing lubrication & suction for dentures.
  4. Increase in thirst -> constant sipping on water + dry lips & angular cheilitis.
  5. Atypical caries pattern: root surfaces, smooth surfaces, cusp tips.
  6. increased frequency of oral infections (e.g., candidiasis) -> ottherwise kept under control by antiiral, fungal & bacterial rolls of saliva.
72
Q

What are the 10 factors for radiographic critique?

A
  1. exposure factors
  2. orientation of detector
  3. horizontal detector position
  4. vertical detector position
  5. horizontal beam angulation
  6. vertical beam angulation
  7. position of central/ray beam
  8. rotational position of collimator
  9. sharpness of image
  10. overall diagnositc quality of image
73
Q
A