Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics Board Exam > 2023 PREP > Flashcards

2023 PREP Flashcards

1
Q

Which ventilator parameters affect oxygenation?

A

PIP, PEEP, and Ti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in children with HIV infection and mild immunosuppression?

A

Combined MMRV

Can receive MMR and varicella separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered severe immunosuppression in HIV infection?

A

T-lymphocyte percentage < 15% and/or CD4 < 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which vaccines are contraindicated in HIV-positive patients with severe immunosuppression?

A

MMR and varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management of initial acquisition of Pseudomonas in a tracheal aspirate in a patient with CF?

A

28 days of inhaled tobramycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the main symptoms of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

Skin hyperextensibility, joint hypermobility, and atrophic scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the first step in treatment of PTA?

A

Drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the main treatment options for infantile spasms?

A

ACTH (preferred) and vigabatrin

Vigabatrin preferred for patients with tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the presentation of torsion of the appendix testis?

A

Blue dot sign (blue discoloration of upper pole of testis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the presentation of Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome?

A

Tenderness of inferior patella and pain with resisted quadriceps contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the pain with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome vs. Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome: inferior patella
Osgood-Schlatter disease: tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the management of non-severe AOM in children < 2 years of age?

A

Observation for 24-48 hours with antibiotics subsequently if no resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What defines severe AOM?

A

Otalgia for > 48 hours and/or temperature of > 39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the duration of AOM treatment by age?

A

< 2 years: 10 days
2-5 years: 7 days
6 years or older: 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma present with respect to suture lines?

A

Caput succedaneum: may cross suture lines
Cephalohematoma: does not cross suture lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of anemia is Diamond-Blackfan anemia?

A

Macrocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of anemia is associated with an elevated adenosine deaminase level?

A

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is considered a high ANA titer?

A

> 1:320

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is suggested by a positive Ebstein-Barr virus nuclear antigen (EBNA)?

A

Past infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the indication for fomepizole?

A

Antidote to ethylene glycol and methanol intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which anomaly is commonly associated with renal agenesis at birth?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

Secondary to oligohydramnios (amniotic fluid needed for pulmonary development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which mutation is associated with familial HLH?

A

Perforin mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between run charts and control charts?

A

Run charts: no upper and lower limit
Control charts: contains upper and lower limits

Both plot data over time

24
Q

What pain pattern with ankle sprains warrants an x-ray?

A

Pain over posterior portion of malleolus

25
Q

When should children be able to sit without support?

A

6 months

26
Q

Which diagnosis is associated with positive urine reducing substances?

A

Galactosemia

27
Q

Which type of referral is indicated for patients with galactosemia?

A

Ophthalmology due to risk of cataracts

28
Q

What are the classic lab findings in organic acidemias?

A

Metabolic acidosis and elevated ammonia levels

29
Q

What are the classic lab findings in urea cycle defects?

A

Respiratory alkalosis and elevated ammonia levels

30
Q

Which diagnosis is suggested by a newborn screen with low T4 and a reflex TSH that is normal?

A

Congenital thyroxine-binding globulin deficiency

31
Q

Which neonates should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin shortly after birth?

A
  • Positive HBsAg or unknown hepatitis B status
  • Unknown hepatitis B status and birth weight < 2000 grams
32
Q

Which ureteral stones qualify for alpha-blocker therapy for expulsion?

A

Distal stones < 5 mm

33
Q

What is the management of nephrolithiasis secondary to hyperoxaluria?

A

Moderate oxalate restriction and avoidance of excess vitamin C intake

34
Q

What are the symptoms of trisomy X?

A

Tall stature, developmental delay, and psychiatric comorbidities

35
Q

Which cardiac anomalies are associated with Turner syndrome?

A

Coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve

36
Q

What is the treatment of mild mycoplasma-induced pneumonia in the outpatient setting?

A

Supportive care

Can give macrolide for more severe cases in inpatient setting

37
Q

What is the next step after detecting a white pupillary reflex (leukocoria)?

A

Confirmation by ophthalmologist

38
Q

Which other cancer type is associated with retinoblastoma?

A

Osteosarcoma

39
Q

Which syndrome is associated with a high risk of developing retinoblastoma?

A

13q deletion syndrome

40
Q

What is the earliest lab finding in hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Prolonged PT

41
Q

What is the first step in a patient with type I diabetes who has consistent hyperglycemia in the morning?

A

Check glucose at 2-3 AM

Differentiates between too little nighttime insulin vs. too much nighttime insulin (rebound hyperglycemia after hypoglycemia)

42
Q

What lab abnormalities are seen in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Hyponatremia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated transaminases

43
Q

What are the symptoms of a black widow spider bite?

A

Abdominal pain, muscle pain, paresthesias

44
Q

What are the symptoms of a brown recluse spider bite?

A

Local cellulitis and necrosis

45
Q

What is the treatment of lamp oil intoxication?

A

Supplemental oxygen and inhaled beta-agonist if wheezing

46
Q

What is the main presentation of oil (hydrocarbon) intoxication?

A

Aspiration pneumonitis

47
Q

What are the prerequisites for bariatric surgery evaluation in children?

A

BMI > 40 or BMI > 35 with comorbidities

48
Q

What further evaluation is required for children with esophageal atresia/TEF?

A

Echo, renal US, and spinal US

Spinal US evaluates for tethered cord

49
Q

What is the presentation of hyperventilation syndrome?

A

Anxiety, tachypnea, and paresthesias

Paresthesias are caused by decreased iCa in setting of alkalosis

50
Q

What is the management of thyroid nodules 1 cm or greater if TSH is normal and if TSH is suppressed?

A

Normal TSH: fine-needle aspiration and biopsy
Suppressed TSH: nuclear thyroid scintigraphy to assess for hyperfunctioning nodule

51
Q

What is the presentation of Klippel-Feil syndrome?

A

Short stature, reduced neck mobility, and low posterior hairline secondary to fused cervical vertebrae

52
Q

What is the presentation of Pierre-Robin sequence?

A

Micrognathia and macroglossia

53
Q

What is the treatment of Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Metronidazole or tinidazole followed by intraluminal amoebicide (i.e. iodoquinol)

54
Q

What is the main predictor of severity of BPD?

A

Oxygen requirement at 36 weeks PMA or at discharge (whichever comes first)

55
Q

Which mutation is associated with X-linked Alport syndrome?

A

Mutation in type IV collagen

56
Q

What may be heard on auscultation in pulmonary HTN?

A

Loud S2

57
Q

How can LVH and RVH be differentiated in leads V1 and V2?

A

LVH: V1/V2 with downward R wave
RVH: V1/V2 with upward R wave

Pediatrics Board Exam (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions