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Pediatrics Board Exam > 2021 PREP > Flashcards

2021 PREP Flashcards

1
Q

What diagnosis is supported by high fecal fat but normal pancreatic elastase?

A

Celiac disease (fat malabsorption but normal pancreatic function)

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2
Q

What complement levels are expected in PSGN?

A

Low C3 and normal C4

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3
Q

Which respiratory virus commonly causes acute hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus

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4
Q

Which OTC medication for abdominal pain is commonly associated with melenotic-appearing stools?

A

Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol)

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5
Q

What is the treatment for bloody otorrhea from superficial trauma (i.e. curette use)?

A

Supportive care

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6
Q

What is the evaluation for medullary thyroid carcinoma in patients with MEN 2B?

A

Thyroid US and serum calcitonin levels

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7
Q

What are the phenotypes of MEN 1, MEN 2A, and MEN 2B?

A
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8
Q

What are the most common symptoms of maternal parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Lacy rash and arthralgias

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9
Q

Which congenital cardiac anomalies are associated with Turner syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation of the aorta

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10
Q

Which lab abnormality is characteristic of urea cycle disorders?

A

Hyperammonemia

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11
Q

Which congenital abnormality is associated with clenched hands with overlapping fingers?

A

Trisomy 18

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12
Q

What are the hallmarks of physical exam in trisomy 13?

A

Cutis aplasia and midline defects

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13
Q

What is the definition of pubertal delay in boys?

A

Testicular volume < 4 mL by age 14

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14
Q

At what age can children be vaccinated against hepatitis A?

A

≥ 1 year of age

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15
Q

What is the required timeframe for administering immune globulin after a hepatitis A exposure?

A

Within 2 weeks

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16
Q

What is the preferred post-exposure prophylaxis against hepatitis A in children ≥ 1 year of age?

A

Hepatitis A vaccine

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17
Q

When is imaging indicated in children with genu valgus?

A

> 7 years of age with intermalleolar distances greater than 8 cm

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17
Q

Which bacteria most commonly cause infective endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans and Staph aureus

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18
Q

What is the difference in red reflex for cataracts and glaucoma?

A

Cataracts: usually unilateral
Glaucoma: bilateral clouding

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19
Q

What is the chance of passing on an X-linked recessive disorder to a male child?

A

50%

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20
Q

What is the difference between intention-to-treat and per-protocol analysis?

A

Intention-to-treat: includes all enrolled participants regardless of study completion (improves power because it increases N)
Per-protocol: includes only participants who completed the study

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21
Q

How can urinary anion gap help to differentiate between RTA and diarrhea?

A

Urinary ion gap = [Na + K] compared to Cl

Positive in RTA: [Na + K] > Cl
Negative in diarrhea: [Na + K] < Cl

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22
Q

How does obesity impact thyroid testing?

A

Artificially increases TSH

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23
Q

When should a statin be considered?

A

LDL ≥ 160 despite dietary and lifestyle changes

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24
Q

What is the treatment of persistent bacterial bronchitis?

A

Augmentin for 2-4 weeks

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25
Q

What is the difference in physical exam between acute flaccid myelitis and idiopathic transverse myelitis?

A

Acute flaccid paralysis: can be unilateral and affect 1+ limbs
Idiopathic transverse myelitis: bilateral

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26
Q

What is the primary treatment of Prader-Willi syndrome in the first year after life?

A

Growth hormone supplementation

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27
Q

What are the typical physical characteristics of patients with Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Almond-shaped eyes, thin upper lip, small hands and feet

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28
Q

What is a potential significant adverse effect of hallucinogens?

A

Serotonin syndrome

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29
Q

Which nutritional deficiency is associated with goat milk ingestion in infants?

A

Folate deficiency

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30
Q

Which risk factor is associated with higher weight loss (~10%) in a neonate in the first 24-48 hours after birth?

A

Birth via CS

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31
Q

What is the difference in results of high-dose dexamethasone suppression test for pituitary vs. adrenal sources of excess cortisol?

A

Pituitary source: suppressed cortisol level
Adrenal source: no response

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32
Q

What is the appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis for varicella exposure by age and immune status?

A

< 12 months of age: no intervention
> 12 months of age and healthy: vaccine
Immunocompromised: immune globulin

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33
Q

What is the pathologic finding of sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomas

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34
Q

What is the treatment of syphilis by stage?

A

Primary, secondary, and early latent: IM penicillin x1
Late latent and tertiary: IM penicillin once weekly x3 weeks

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35
Q

Which mutation causes fragile X syndrome?

A

CGG repeats in FMR1

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36
Q

What is the management of maternal ITP in neonates?

A

IVIG

37
Q

What is the expected bladder capacity in children > 2 years of age?

A

(age + 2) x 30

38
Q

What is the initial management of an ocular hyphema?

A

Placement of an eye patch

39
Q

What are the most common adverse effects of a ketogenic diet?

A

GI upset, hyperlipidemia, and kidney stones

40
Q

Which medication should be given to patients with weakness in the setting of organophosphate ingestion?

A

Pralidoxime

Atropine is the first-line treatment but only works at muscarinic receptors, and weakness is related to nicotinic receptors

41
Q

What is the initial management of tympanic membrane effusions?

A

Monitor for 3 months prior to further evaluation

42
Q

Which age group is associated with Kingella septic arthritis and osteomyelitis?

A

< 5 years of age

43
Q

What are the consequences of rapid correction of hypernatremia and hyponatremia?

A

Rapid correction of hypernatremia: cerebral edema
Rapid correction of hyponatremia: central pontine myelonelysis

44
Q

What is the expected testicular volume at puberty?

A

≥ 4 mL

45
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of dextromethorphan overdose?

A

Euphoria, tachycardia, mydriasis, diaphoresis

46
Q

In a child with an unbalanced translocation with trisomy 21, which parental karyotype carries the highest risk of passing on trisomy 21 to future children?

A

Maternal balanced translocation

47
Q

Which type of insect bite is commonly associated with sympathetic, parasympathetic, and neuromuscular symptoms?

A

Scorpion bite

48
Q

What is the main purpose of a cross-sectional study?

A

Assesses the burden/prevalence of disease in a population at a specific point in time

49
Q

What are the necessary athletic restrictions for adolescents with significant HTN?

A

Participation in low-intensity sports only to prevent significant spikes in BP that can cause cerebrovascular events

50
Q

Which antibody can indicate hepatitis B immunity via past infection?

A

Positive HBcAb

51
Q

What is a possible treatment option for refractory colic?

A

Probiotics

52
Q

Which long-term consequence is often associated with chemotherapy and administration of cranial radiation?

A

Metabolic syndrome

Caused by hypothalamic radation

53
Q

Which deficiency is associated with acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

Zinc deficiency

54
Q

What is the treatment for subluxation of the radial head (nursemaid’s elbow)?

A

Hyperpronation or supination and flexion

55
Q

What is the treatment for latent TB?

A

Isoniazid for 9 months

56
Q

What is the treatment for active TB?

A

RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) therapy for 2 months followed by isoniazid and rifampin for 4 months

57
Q

What is the treatment for active TB?

A

RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol) therapy for 2 months followed by isoniazid and rifampin for 4 months

58
Q

What is considered a positive PPD test in children ≥ 4 with no risk factors?

A

≥ 15 mm

59
Q

What are ketotifen eye drops?

A

Antihistamine mast cell stabilizer for allergic conjunctivitis

60
Q

What are the symptoms of VX gas exposure?

A

Immediate anticholinergic symptoms

61
Q

What is the definition of micropenis in a term neonate?

A

Stretched phallic length of < 2-2.5 cm

62
Q

When should a repeat audiology exam be completed for term neonates who fail the newborn hearing screen?

A

By 3 months of age

63
Q

What is seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in beta-thalassemia major?

A

0% HbA

64
Q

What is seen on MRI in adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

Bilateral posterior demyelination in parieto-occipital lobes

65
Q

Which systems are affected in Zellweger syndrome?

A

Brain, liver, and kidneys

66
Q

How can Rett syndrome be identified on growth charts?

A

Deceleration of head circumference

67
Q

Which organism is associated with gastroenteritis following contaminated pork ingestion?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

68
Q

What is the incubation period of salmonella gastroenteritis?

A

6-48 hours

69
Q

What is the main risk factor for brucellosis?

A

Exposure to unpasteurized dairy products

70
Q

What is the appropriate follow-up after H. pylori treatment?

A

Urease breath testing or stool antigen testing 4 weeks after completion of treatment

71
Q

What are the primary symptoms of myotonic dystrophy?

A

Muscular weakness, cardiac conduction abnormalities, and cataracts

72
Q

Which mutation is responsible for myotonic dystrophy?

A

CTG repeats in DMPK gene

73
Q

What is considered a normal IQ?

A

85-115

74
Q

Which type of lesion has an orange-peel appearance and becomes red and swollen after rubbing it?

A

Mastocytosis

75
Q

What is found on EKG in anomalous left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery (ALCAPA)?

A

Deep Q-waves from myocardial ischemia

76
Q

What leg length discrepancy is considered pathologic and requires an orthopedic surgery evaluation?

A

> 2 cm

77
Q

When is zidovudine prophylaxis indicated during labor and delivery?

A

Maternal viral load > 1000 or unknown

78
Q

What is the management of babies born to HIV-infected mothers with an undetectable viral load?

A

Zidovudine for 4 weeks

79
Q

What is the presentation of Menkes disease?

A

Loss of milestones, seizures, and hypotonia

80
Q

What is the mutation that causes osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Mutations in COL1A or COL1B

Both are genes for type I collagen

81
Q

What is the presentation of neuromyelitis optica?

A

Extensive transverse myelitis and optic neuritis

82
Q

Which antibody is associated with neuromyelitis optica?

A

Antibodies against the aquaporin-4 channel

83
Q

What is the difference in incubation period between norovirus and cryptosporidium gastroenteritis?

A

Norovirus: 12-48 hours
Cryptosporidium: 3-14 days

84
Q

What is the ideal time to order a Tylenol level after overdose?

A

4 hours

85
Q

When can activated charcoal be administered after a Tylenol overdose?

A

Within 2 hours of ingestion except in setting of mental status changes

86
Q

What is the management of pityriasis rosea?

A

Symptomatic control

87
Q

What is the treatment of tinea versicolor?

A

Topical selenium sulfide

88
Q

What is the treatment of tinea versicolor?

A

Topical selenium sulfide

89
Q

What is the confirmatory test for chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Flow cytometry for dihydrorhodamine 123

90
Q

What is the appropriate discharge caloric density of feeds for premature babies born at < 1800 grams?

A

22 kcal/oz

Can use 24 kcal/oz if not growing well in NICU

91
Q

Which 2 diagnoses are associated with an elevated upper-to-lower body ratio?

A

Skeletal dysplasia and precocious puberty

Pediatrics Board Exam (6 decks)

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