2023 CQ-GS Exam Key Flashcards

1
Q

What causes the automatic deployment of oxygen masks?

A

Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000’

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2
Q

Name some of the protections a pilot will have in normal law?

A

All of the above (high speed, bank angle, Load factor, pitch, AOA)

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3
Q

how are the flight control surfaces controlled and activated?

A

Electrically controlled hydraulically activated

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4
Q

If the hot air valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?`

A

Both A&C (trim air valves close and pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature, pack 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by FWD and AFT cabin temperature selector knobs)

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5
Q

What causes the PTU to operate in auto?

A

A pressure differential of 500 psi between the Green and Yellow system.

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6
Q

When would a pilot select the extract push button to override?

A

Both A&C (when directed to by the ECAM, during heavy rain on the ground).

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7
Q

If the flaps handle setting does not match the setting required by the mcdu, will you get a T/O warning?

A

No. As long as the flap handle is 1,2,3

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8
Q

operating at speed above 260 knots, a safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing system? T/F

A

True

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9
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?

A

Green

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10
Q

Hazardous materials training as a spirit employee or contract vendor is required every?

A

1 year per Spirit company policy.

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11
Q

What is the function of Alpha lock?

A

inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at high AOA and low airspeed.

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12
Q

When are predictive windshear (windshear ahead) alerts inhibited?

A

Both A&C
A: On takeoff above 100kts and within 50’
B: During landing below 50’

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13
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

A

Yellow

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14
Q

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

A

Both A&B
A: When in direct law
B: on the ground (ground mode)

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15
Q

What is spirit airlines policy for shipping COMAT that contains hazardous materials?

A

Ship on aa different mode and/or carrier that is approved to carry HAZMAT.

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16
Q

If there was an IR1 fault, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

ATT/HDG to Capt 3

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17
Q

What does selecting the ditching pushbutton ON accomplish

A

Closes all openings below the waterline

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18
Q

in what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A

Wing……..Closed
ENG………Open

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19
Q

What does a galley fault light indicate?

A

A generator is over 100%

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20
Q

If AC buss 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered

A

AC bus 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS bus

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21
Q

If the blue system lost pressure, the RAT would automatically deploy and restore pressure. T/F

A

False

22
Q

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A

Both A&B
A: the sys has its own generator when N2 is above 10%
B: if the alt fails then the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power.

23
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A

Both A&C
A:ENG fire PB
C:Eng master switch

24
Q

when would thrust lock occur

A

Both A&C
A: THR levers in CL detent and A/THR PB on the FCU is pushed
B: THR lvr not in CL detent, ad A/THR instinctive push button is pushed

25
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR sys?

A

Both A&C
A: Just above idle to MCT detent (Single engine)
C: Just above idle to CL detent (both engines)

26
Q

How is the alternate law indicated on the PFD?

A

amber x’s and no message on FMA

27
Q

A new Airworthiness release is required?

A

After a scheduled Check/Inspection

28
Q

A primary focus of CRM/Threat error management (TEM) is?

A

Both B&C
B: reduce the likelihood of errors occurring
C: Manage errors and threats when they occur

29
Q

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A

Both A&C
A: RED “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
C: Amber X’s

30
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for landing on runways less than 6000’?

A

5kts

31
Q

What is the significance of a flashing fault light on the IR?

A

Nav is lost, ATT and HDG may be recovered in ATT mode

32
Q

When would a pilot perform a full alignment?

A

d. all of the above
First flight of the day
new crew
2N and 2S
no GPS and lack of waypoints along the route
no GPS and flight is >3hrs

33
Q

Can the WING anti-ice be used on the approach and landing?

A

yes, but should only be considered in severe icing because second-segment climb performance could be affected.

34
Q

Where are the engine fire loops located?

A

D. all of the above
Pylon nacelle
Core
Fan

35
Q

In which of the following scenarios should engine anti ice be used?

A

Descending through FL240 in visible moisture, TAT -22, SAT -45

36
Q

Are there any times where the captain may determine that deicing is not required to remove frost or snow from the aircraft?

A

Both B&C
B: Alayer of HOAR frost which is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath, such as paint lines, markings or lettering is acceptable on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all critical surfaces are free of adhering contaminants.
C: a light coating of frost up to 3mm thick on wing lower surfaces between the front and aft spars is permissible. The frost must be free of all ice build-up.

37
Q

if ground deicing/anti-icing is performed, the flaps, slats, and flight controls may be moved?

A

approximately 3 mins before takeoff

38
Q

who is responsible for reviewing the aircraft logbook prior to flight, including deferred maintenance items, to determine the aircraft’s airworthiness?

A

The Captain and First officer

39
Q

If weather conditions at the airport of departure are below landing mins for that airport, the aircraft may not be dispatched unless the release contains a departure alternate airport with the following.

A

D. Within one hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative, dispatch may use 345nm

40
Q

With respect to turbulence, on what value does the OFP categorize shear?

A

Values of 0-3 indicate weak, 4-5 indicate moderate, 6-7 indicate large shear, and 8 or higher indicate extreme shear

41
Q

with respect to FAR 117, a flight crew member is limited to how many hours in a 365 day period?

A

1000 hrs

42
Q

what is the emergency command given by the captain in the event an evacuation is required.

A

“EVACUATE-EVACUATE-EVACUATE”

43
Q

What are the different classes of fires?

A

Flammable solid, flammable liquid, and electrical fires

44
Q

in the event of cockpit crew member becomes incapacitated, what is the first step.

A

Contact FA via CALLS PB or PA

45
Q

what are the levels of disruptive behavior with respect to categorizing threat?

A

Threat level 1, 2, 3, and 4

46
Q

Hazmat is divided into three types. which type can spirit airlines transport?

A

Exemptions

47
Q

when operating in RVSM airspace, the flight crew shall not allow the aircraft to overshoot or undershoot the assigned FL by more that

A

150’

48
Q

what must you do should volcanic ash be encountered in flight inadvertently?

A

D. all of the above
180 turn
report to dispatch and ATC
write up in the Maint logbook

49
Q

you encounter a runway with 3” of dry snow. what is the runway condition code?

A

3 - Medium

50
Q

A flight crew detects thunderstorms by using their weather radar - flight operations policies recommend to (select all that apply)

A

C. Avoid all yellow, red, or magenta areas by at least 20nm