2022.Vol38.Iss2.EquineNeurology Flashcards

1
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

C. tetani spores are characteristcally described as

A

“drumstick-shaped”

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2
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

C. tetani induces disease through which 2 primary toxins

A

tetanolysin
tetanospasmin

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3
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Describe the pathogenesis of tetanospasmin

A

–binds to ganglia & neuromuscular junctions (somatic ns)
-internalized by endocytosis
–carried along axon retrograde
–acts on vesicle-assoc membrane protein in Renshaw cells (inhibitory neurons) to irreversibly impede the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters: glycine and GABA
SPASTIC MM CONTRACTIONS, mm rigidity

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4
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What are some classic C/S of tetanus

A

-stilted gait
-facial mm contraction– resulting in sardonic grin
-prolapase of the 3rd eyelid

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5
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

death with tetanus usually occurs because

A

of respiratory paralysis

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6
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

tetanus antemortem diagnosis

A

-presumptive: hx, PE findings/C/S
-R/O: rabies, strychnine intoxication, exertional rhabdomyolysis, myositis

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7
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

what is the first line of treatment with tetanus?

A

penicillin
-metronidazole can be considered an alternative
**consider broad spectrum antibiotics with aspiration pneumonia
-Tetanus antitoxin & tetanus toxoid

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8
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Why is it important to treat tetanus cases with tetanus antitoxin?

A

-allows binding & inactivation of any tetanus toxin that is circulating n the vascular system

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9
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Tetanus treatment is aimed at circulating toxin, what does toxin not get?

A

once tetanus toxin is absorbed into a neural body, it cannot be inactivated by TAT
**anticipate clinical disease assoc with tetanus to worsen for 1-2 days before signs begin to improve

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10
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What disease has tetanus antitoxin been linked with?

A

theiler disease (fatal hepatitis)
– develops 45-90 days after admin

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11
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What are consequences of tetanus sustained muscle contraction & spasm?

A

pain, stress, respiratory paralysis
**recommend treatment with acepromazine and methocarbamol

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12
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

horses that recover from the tetanus, what sequelae are reported

A

ataxia
unspecified lameness

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13
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

C. botulinum produces what 3 neurotoxins

A

Type:
A: west of rocky mountains
B: mid-atlantic US & kentucky
C: europe

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14
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What are the 3 different routes that an equid can acquire botulism?

A
  1. animals ingests feed, soil or carrion with clostridial preformed toxin
  2. wound botulism
  3. toxicoinfectious botulism– inhabit GI tract; shaker foal syndrome
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15
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Describe the pathogenesis of botulism

A

-enter presynaptic nerve (only affect peripheral nerves– cannot cross BBB)
-internalized via endosome
-targets neuronal soluble SNAP receptor SNARE proteins (that function in neurotransmitter exocytosis
-protein cleavage prevents release of acetylcholine & results in neuroparalysis

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16
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Clinical signs associated with botulism is dependent on which factors?

A

dose dependent– will presist until new synapses are formed
**type of toxin may play a role in the duration of neuroparalysis

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17
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

what C/S are seen with botulism?

A

weakness, dysphagia, poor mm tone
acute death
INC time laying down, inability to rise
colic
mm fasciculations
low head carriage
shuffling gait
Weak, but no CP deficits

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18
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

Which mm groups are affected first in botulism cases because of high requirements for acetylcholine?

A

tongue, eyelids, tail & sphincter

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19
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

how do foals commonly present with botulism?

A

-muscle fasciculations (shaker foal syndrome)
-cycle through standing & recumbency
-dehyration
-decreased respiratory rate

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20
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

what differentials should be considered in horses presenting like botulism?

A

white muscle disease
HYPP
Hypocalcemia
white snakeroot tox
ionophore tox
lead toxicity
organophosphate tox

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21
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)
What is the most important & time sensitive treatment for horses with botulism?

A

Neuralization of circulating toxin with BoNT antitoxin
foal: 30,000 IU
Adult: 70,000 IU
**provides protection for 60 days

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22
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What medications can potentiate neuromuscular weakness and should be avoided in cases of botulism?

A

aminoglycosides
procaine penicillin
tetracyclines

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23
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

How long does it take for horses to recover from botulism?

A

-7-14 days, dependent on construction of new endplates
- full muscle recovery in 1 month

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24
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What is the described survival rate of horses with botulism?

A

67% survival rate
95% in horses that remained standing

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25
Q

Clostridial Diseases (botulism & tetanus)

What is key to remember about the botulism toxin vaccine?

A

its a type B toxoid vaccine yearly booster
-initial series: 3-doses, each 1 month apart in unvaccinated adults
-broodmares- booster 4-6 weeks prior to parturition
-foals unvx mares: 3 dose series, start 1-3 m old
***cross protection against other types is not guarenteed

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26
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

what is the definitive diagnosis of eNAD/EDM require?

A

histo evaluation of the spinal cord & brainstem at necropsy

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27
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

What is the typical presentation of eNAD/EDM?

A

young < 2 year old horse with symmetric proprioceptive ataxia, but some horses, particularly Warmbloods are affected later in life & show behavior changes in addition to progressive ataxia

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28
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

What neurologic deficits are seen with eNAD/EDM?

A

abnormal limb positioning
pelvic limb ataxia
thoracic limb hypermetria
decreased strength & spasticity of limbs- UMN and general CP lesions

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29
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

describe the phosphorylated nuerofilament heavy, biomarker test for eNAD/EDM

A

high specificity
low sensitivity
for dx of ENA/EDM in young non-wramblood breeds

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30
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

eNAD is clinically indistinguishable from EDM, however is distinguished on histopathology by which features?

A

eNAD: lesions confined to brainstem, LACN, medial cuneate & gracillis nuclei

EDM: axonal necrosis & demyelination extended to the dorsal & ventral spincereballar tracts & ventromedial fuiculi of the cervicothoracic spinal cord

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31
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

When do C/S of eNAD/EDM appear?

A

6-12 months of age
**can develop from a few weeks to a up to 3 years of age

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32
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

in comparison between quarterhorses & warmbloods that develop eNAD/EDM, what is a dufference?

A

pigment retinopathy– in young warmbloods
**recommend a the full fundic examination in warm bloods

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33
Q

Equine Neuroaxonal dystrophy & degenerative myeloencephalopathy

what does muscle biopsy look like with eNAD/EDM?

A

No abnormalities

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34
Q

Specific Diagnostic Techniques in Equine Neurology (Raidography, Ultrasonography, CT & MRI)

Describe how the intravertebal sagittal ratio is calculated

A

Normal intravertebral ratios:
C3-C6: 0.52
C6-C7: 0.56

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35
Q

Specific Diagnostic Techniques in Equine Neurology (Radiography, Ultrasonography, CT & MRI)

For myelography, what are the two most commonly used criteria to recognize extradural spinal cord compression?

A

-50% reduction in height of contrast column
-20% reduction in total dural diameter of the contrast column compared

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36
Q

Specific Diagnostic Techniques in Equine Neurology (Raidography, Ultrasonography, CT & MRI)

Diagnosis of intra-cranial abnormalities is best accomplished with what modality?

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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37
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

Most people and horses infected by togaviral encephalitidies develop what C/S

A

mild and nonspecific

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38
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What percentage of people develop systemic signs of neurologic disease, infected with togaviral encephalitidies?

A

less than 10%

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39
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) is seen is transmitted by what vector?

A

mosquitoes

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40
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

Of the togaviruses, which is the deadliest to humans and horses?

A

EEE, mortality rates:
humans: 50%
horses: 90%

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41
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

In North America, EEE persists in an enzootic (sylvatic) cycle between what?

A

passerine birds and ornithophilic mosquitoes

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42
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What is the main vector of WEE virus?

A

culex tarsalis

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43
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

which immune cells are important for clearing alpha viruses?

A

B and T cells

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44
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What C/S are seen with alphaviral infections?

A

nonspecific: fever, anorexia, lethargy

Cerebral: obtundation (sleeping sickness), incoordination, hyperexcitability, head pressing, staggering, aimless awndering, convulsions, death

Brain stem: dysphagis, impaired vision, circling

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45
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

As far as alphavirus development in humans, who are teh most susceptible to developing disease?

A

older humans
young children
infants

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46
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What are differentials to consider for WEE/EEE?

A

WNV encephalitis
rabies
EPM
EHV-1
toxicities: leukoencephalomalacia
metabolic: hepatic encephalopathy
aberrant parasite migration
others: tumors, abscess

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47
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

Why are CVSM and EDM/eNAD an unlikely differential for WEE/EEE?

A

-b/c clinical findings & disease progression

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48
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What is a consistent CSF finding with EEE?

A

neutrophilic pleocytosis

WEE: usu mononuclear pleocytosis, inc protein

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49
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for antemortem diagnosis of EEE/WEE?

A

IgM capture ELISA
> 1:400
Smith: p1018

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50
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

Rarely, WNV affects horses of less than 1 year of age, what age is more likely to die?

A

> 3 year old

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51
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

who are dead end hosts of WNV?

A

horses & humans

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52
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What are vectors of WNV?

A

mosquitoes–many spp

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53
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

How does WNV enter the CNS?

A

through dsiruption of BBB, transported by mononuclear cells that migrate into the CNS and retrograde axonal trasnport
**hematogenous spread also important

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54
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

What C/S are seen in horses with WNV?

A

Cerebral: somnolence, usu good mentation, but can be hyperexcitabil

brain stem: blindness, facial paralysis, dysphagia

Msk/spinal cord signs– precede neuro signs; ataxia (symm/assymm) lameness, tremors, muscle fasciculations of head & neck, tremors

recumbency & inability to rise

55
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

In comparison to other viral diseases, what clinical signs are consistent findings in horses with WNV?

A

muscle fasciculations
tremors
behavioral changes
**spinal cord signs are more evidence

56
Q

Arboviral equine encephalitides

WNV is seasonal in temperate climates and is seen typically when?

A

following vector emergence in the spring

57
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

What are the causative organisms of EPM?

A

S. neurona
N hughesi (less frequently)

58
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

How do horses become infected with S. neurona?

A

AFter ingesting food or water contaminated with feces from an ifnected opposum

59
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

What is the mode of transmission for N. hughesi?

A

Uncertain
**foals can be infected by transplacental passage of the parasite

60
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

what is the definitive host of S. neurona in N. America?

A

opossum: diselphis virginiana

61
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

what combination of C/S help distinguish EPM from other diseases?

A

asymmetry of gait & focal muscle atrophy

62
Q

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis

What treatments are approved for EPM?

A

sulfadiazine & pyrimethamine: blocks protozoal folate synthesis

diclazuril & ponazuril: coccidiostats

63
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What are the two types of CVSM in horses?

A

T.1: young horses, multifactorial: gender, inheritance, diet, trauma & rate of growth

T.II: older horses, affects all breeds, OA of articular processes, DJD of articular processes

64
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What neurologic exam findings help distinguish CVSM from other neurologic diseases?

A

-spinal ataxia- assymm/symm- pelvic limbs» forelimbs
-loss of CP deficits
**usu more visible at the walk

65
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What are differentials for spinal ataxia/CVSM?

A

young horse: EPM, trauma, EDM, EHV-1
less common: rabies, viral encephalitidies, congenital malformations

less common: rabies, viral encephalitidies, brain abscesses, neoplasia, hepatoencephalopathy

66
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What is the gold standard diagnostic for CVSM?

A

postmortem examination

67
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What are the 5 characteristic bony malformations of the cervical vertebrae in horses with CVSM?

A
  1. flare of the caudal vertebral epiphysis of the vertebral body
  2. abnormal ossification of the articular processes
  3. malalignment between adjacent vertebrae
  4. extension of the dorsal laminae
  5. degenerative joint disease of the articular processes
68
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

Where are the most common sites for static stenosis?

A

C5-C6 and C6-C7

69
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

What are the most common sites for dynamic compression?

A

C3-C4 and C4-C5

70
Q

Cervical Vertebral Stenotic Myelopathy

what are the 3 most important nutritional factors that seem to be associated with incidence of developmental orthopedic disease?

A
  1. excessive digestible energy
  2. excessive phosphorus
  3. Copper deficiency
71
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What are typical features of EHM in outbreaks?

A

-suddent onset of neuro deficits: ataxia, paresis & urinary incontinence
-involvement of multiple horses on the premises
-recent history of fever, abortion or viral respiratory disease in affected horse or herd mates

72
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

How id antemortem diagnosis of EHM supported?

A

-r/o other neurologic conditions
-demonstrate xanthochromia & INC TP in CSF
-ID or siolate EHV-1 from resp tract, buff-coat or CSF

73
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

The treatment of EHM is challenging and directed towards:

A

-supportive nursing and nutritional care
-DEC CNS inflammation
-minimizing thromboembolic events
-controlling the lymphocyte-assoc. viremia

74
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

Which EHV-1 genotype is more commonly associated with EHM?

75
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What is the most common EHV-1 genotype within the equine population?

76
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What are the risk factors associated with EHV-1 and respiratory disease?

77
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What risk factors are associated with EHV-1 and abortion?

78
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What risk factors are for EHM?

79
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

EHV-1 infects which immune cells, that are important to establishing EHV-1 latency?

A

lymphocytes

80
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What are secondary disease manifestations for EHV-1?

A

EHM
EHV-1 abortions
neonatal foal death
chorioretinopathies

81
Q

Equine herpesvirus-1 myeloencephalopathy

What medication has been shown to help decrease viremia and prevent the development of neurologic sequelae?

A

valacyclovir

82
Q

Vestibular Disease

What C/S indicate vestibular disease?

A

head tilt
pathologic nystagmus
ventrolateral strabismus
body leaning
moving in tight circles
ataxia

83
Q

Vestibular Disease

Why is there increased ipsilateral extensor tone & decreased contralateral extensor tone seen with vestibular disease?

A

interneurons are facilitatory to the ipsilateral alpha-motor & gamma motor neurons of the extensors of the limb & inhibtory to the ispilateral flexors of the limbs

84
Q

Vestibular Disease

What two important reflexes are responsible for maintaining balance of the eyes, head, neck, trunk and limbs during rest and movement?

A
  1. vestibulo-ocular (physiologic nystagmus) reflex
  2. vestibulospinal (extensor tone) reflex
85
Q

Vestibular Disease

Eye movements are coordinated by the extraocular muscles of the eye, through what cranial nerves?

A

oculomotor (main)
trochlear
abducens motor

86
Q

Vestibular Disease

Describe how lesions of vestibular system cause strabismus.

A

-oculomotor nuclei provides input to the most of the extraocular mm
-lesions to oculomotor nuclei or nerve or vestibular system, result in
IPSILATERAL VENTROLATERAL STRABISMUS

87
Q

Vestibular Disease

How does nystagmus help distinguish vestibular lesions?

A

slow phase– indicates the side of lesion
fast phase– the side away from the lesion

88
Q

Vestibular Disease

What is positional nystagmus?

A

if nystagmus only occurs when the head is placed in an unusual position (eg, lateral, facing up)

89
Q

Vestibular Disease

list causes of vestibular disease

A

peripheral disease: trauma, otitis media/interna, temporohyoid osteoarthropathy (THO) & idiopathic vestibular dz

brain stem disease: trauma, bacterial meningoenceaphlitis, neoplasia, EPM

Less commonly: caudal cereballer dz: mass occupying lesions, vascular accidents

90
Q

Vestibular Disease

How to differentiate from central vs peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Peripheral: nystagmus is horizontal or rotary, does not change direction & is non-positional

Central: nystagmus is horizontal, rotary, vertical, spontaneous change of direction & is positional

91
Q

Vestibular Disease

How do you determine the side of the lesion based on clinical signs?

A

-decreased ipsilateral input to extensor tone & lack of inhibitor of flexors–> tilt, lean, flex and move toward the side of the lesion

92
Q

Vestibular Disease

The cerebellum contributes to fine motor movement, how can it contribute to vestibular lesions

A

cerebellum affected, the ipsilateral inhibitor input to the extensors will be absent or decreased resulting in tilting and leaning contralateral to the side of the lesion

**also in paradoxic vestibular disease

93
Q

Vestibular Disease

What will worsen vestibular signs?

A

darkness/ covering eyes

94
Q

Vestibular Disease

What C/S are seen with bilateral vestibular disease?

A

-wide-based stance
-no head tilt
-no leaning or drifting
-no circling
-lacks both physiologic & pathologic nystagmus

95
Q

Vestibular Disease

In THO, what cranial nerves are affected?

A

facial
vestibular
cochlear

96
Q

Vestibular Disease

List causes of peripheral vestibular disease.

97
Q

Vestibular Disease

List causes of central vestibular disease

98
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

what are the 3 forms that rabies can present as?

A
  1. paralytic (spinal cord)
  2. dumb (brain stem)
  3. furious (cerebral cortex)
99
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

what is a common sign of rabies in donkeys?

A

self mutilation

100
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

which form is the most common presentation of rabies in horses?

A

paralytic & dumb form

101
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

what is the antemortem diagnostic for equine rabies?

102
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

what is pathognomonic on histology for lyssavirus infections?

A

negri bodies
**their absence does not rule out rabies

103
Q

Nonarboviral Equine Encephalitides

what is the official and gold standard diagnostic method for rabies?

A

direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test using monoclonal antibodies on tissue impressions or histologic sections

104
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

describe the movement of patients with shivers

A

abnormal hindlimb hypertonicity during walking forward

105
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

describe the movement of patients with stringhalt

A

consistent hyperflexion during walking forward & trotting
variable difficulty when walking backward

106
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

which breeds is cerebellar abiotrophy reported?

A

Arabian
Gotland pony
Oldenburg

107
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

what C/S are seen in foals with cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

intentional head tremor
hypermetric forelimb gait
symmetric ataxia
wide-based stance & gait
dysmetria
spasticity
limb may be hyperflexed when walking (slamming foot on ground)
+/- menace reflex absent or diminished

108
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

When do foals develop a menace response?

A

by 2 weeks of age

109
Q

Movement Disorders and Cerebellar abiotrophy

what is the inheritance of cerebellar abiotrophy in arabians?

A

autosomal recessive
chromosome 2– 4th exon TOE1 & MUTYH antisense strand

110
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

head muscle mass is controlled by what cranial nerve (s)?

111
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What cranial nerve controls tongue tone?

112
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What cranial nerves control eye movement?

A

CN III, IV, VI, VIII

113
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which cranial nerve/ parts of the brain controls menace response?

A

-vision
-CN II
-visual cortex
-CN VII
-cerebelum

114
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which cranial nerves control pupillary light reflex?

A

CN II
parasympathetic III

115
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which cranial nerves control palpebral response?

A

CN V
CN VII

116
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which cranial nerves control local cervical reflex and cervicofacial reflex?

A

cervical dorsal and ventral spinal roots
CN VII

117
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which cranial nerves/nerves control cutaneous trunci reflex?

A

dorsal roots
cranial thoracic spinal cord
C8 spinal cord lateral thoracic nerve

118
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which nerves control anal sensation & reflex, tail tone?

A

caudal equina

119
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What does assessing gait in straight line, circling, zigzagging, walking down slope with head elevated test?

A

upper & lower motor neurons
general proprioception
cerebellum
vestibular system

120
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

When assessing vision, how are lesions localized

A
  1. optic nerve lesions, both vision & PLR abnormal
  2. cortical lesions, vision affected but PLRS are normal
  3. efferent arm lesions, PLR is abnormal & vision is unaffected

**one caveat is, PLRS are maintained even with retinal or optic nerve lesions that results in loss of vision

121
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What are signs of horners syndrome?

A

lesion to the sympathetic input to the eye
1. ptosis
sometimes the only C/S seen
2. miosis
3. enophthalmos assoc. with protrusion of the nictitating membrane

122
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Describe the neuroanatomic location of a lesion from:
C1-C6
C7-T2
T3-L3
L4-S3
sacral segments/cauda equina

123
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

When assessing a neurologic patient, while patient is standig still and square, and pulling on the tail, what is this testing?

A

-extensor (patellar, quadriceps) reflex
-poor response or patient will demonstrate weakness while standing still (hypotonia): LMN lesion at L3-5
-UMN lesion– will not show paresis when the tail is pulled when standing

124
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What do tail pulls assess?

A

UMN axonal damage d/t cervical spinal lesion will easily be pulled
**muscle weakness

125
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

What lesions should you consider in recumbent horses?

A

-assess CN/cerebral function
-assess cutaneous trunci mm, cervico facial reflex
-if horse can adopt dog sitting position– injury caudal to T2 likely
-abnormal respiratory & unable to raise head– proximal cervical spinal cord lesion or diffuse neuromuscular disease (ie botulism– test tongue tone)
-acute unilateral vestibular disease– will be down on affected side, nystagmus

126
Q

Equine Neurologic Examination

Which reflexes can be tested in the recumbent horse that usually cannot be assessed in the standing horse or reflexes that should be tested?

A

-flexing carpal/tarsal joints– decreased tone– neuromuscular disease, increased tone– SC lesion & lack of UMN disease
-patellar reflex: tests femoral nerve & L4-5 SC segments– wooden handle of hammer
-Withdrawal reflex: pinching coronary band with hemostat
-pelvic limb flexion: sciatic nerve, caudal & sacral segments
-thoracic limb flexion: brachial plexus n, cervical intumescence
-forelimb withdrawal: brachail plexus, C6-T2 SC segments
-Tail & anal tone
-muscle tone of eyelids/tongue= decreased suggest neuromuscular dz

127
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

What is the most common neurologic abnormality seen in equine neonates?

A

neonatal encephalopathy

128
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

What severe disease is a complication of neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

kernicterus

129
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

AT whta level does kernicterus develop?

A

bilirubin concentration >19 mg/dL

130
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

Is icteric CSF normal/abnormal in faols?

A

Normal in foal sup to 10 days of age
**needs to be considered when foals have NI

131
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

hypoglycemia can be corrected at what rate? (5-10% solution)

A

4 to 8 mg/kg/minute

132
Q

Neurologic Disorders of the Foal

Most foals with uncomplicated maladjustment have what kind of prognosis?

A

85% of foals survive

133
Q

Pathologic Conditions of the Nervous System in Horses

Which organism transmitts the spirochete bacterium, Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Ixodes spp