2020 In-service Flashcards

1
Q

Most frequent cause of asymmetric PVH or pulmonary edema

A

Gravitational (2299 Webb)

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2
Q

Small heart disease is associated with __________ .

A

Mitral stenosis

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3
Q

Right retro cardiac double density, splaying of the carina and posterior displacement of the left upper lobe bronchus. With the following radiographic signs, what chamber is enlarged?

A

Left atrium

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4
Q

Salient radiographic features of mitral stenosis

A

Pulmonary edema may be observed intermittently
Enlargement of the LA is characteristic
PVH is usually present
Mild cardiomegaly is seen in isolated mitral stenosis
Ascending aorta and arch are usually inconspicuous

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5
Q

Most extreme cardiomegaly is seen with severe ________ regurgitation of long duration; it can cause the “wall to wall” heart.

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

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6
Q

In coarctation of the aorta, the usually notched ribs are?

A

4th to 8th ribs

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7
Q

Two signposts can be used to help distinguish among the various types of the left to right shunts

A

Left atrium and aortic arch

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8
Q

Acquired heart disease with big heart

A

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Tricuspid regurgitation
High output states
Congestive cardiomyopathy
Ischemic cardiomyopathy
Pericardial effusion
Pericardial mass

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9
Q

True of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

50% have normal chest x-ray
The PVH is usually relatively mild
Left ventricular enlargement may occur in end-stage disease

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10
Q

The most frequent inciting factor of constrictive pericarditis

A

Post operative bleeding associated with cardiac surgery

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11
Q

Increased pulmonary vascularity in a cyanotic patient indicates:

A

Increased- admixture lesion (cyanosis means right to left shunting, inc pulmo vasc means left to right shunting)
Normal- indicates right to left shunt

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12
Q

True of left to right shunts:

A

> Volume overload lesions
Non-cyanotic

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13
Q

There is cyanosis and the plain radiograph demonstrate diminished or normal pulmonary vascularity and the absence of substantial cardiomegaly.

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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14
Q

The cardiac chamber that is frequently enlarged in Group III congenital heart lesion is:

A

Right atrium

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15
Q

Most common diagnosis in Group IV congenital heart lesion in this category, which is also the most frequent heart lesion at birth:

A

Transposition of great arteries

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16
Q

Pulmonary venous congestion with substantial cardiomegaly presenting in the 1st day or so of life is a feature of:

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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17
Q

Least frequent of atrial septal defect

A

Coronary sinus

(most frequent) secundum

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18
Q

Significant left to right shunting in a premature infant during the early neonatal period is nearly always due to:

A

PDA (Persistent Ductus Arteriosus)

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19
Q

Abnormalities of arterioventricular connection:

A

> Transposition of Great Arteries
Double outlet right ventricle
Double outlet left ventricle
Truncus arteriosus

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20
Q

Triad of coarctation syndrome:

A

> Coarctation
VSD
PDA

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21
Q

The goal of imaging in valvular heart disease:

A

> Identification of stenosis/ insufficiency of one or more valves
Estimation of pressure gradient (valve orifice area) and severity of regurgitation
Quantification of ventricular volumes, mass and function
Sequential monitoring of ventricular volumes, mass and function. Det of response to therapy
Exclusion of CAD, prior to surgery

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22
Q

Current role of angiography in the imaging of heart diseases:

A

Exclusion of significant CAD before surgery or as a contirbuting factor for heart failure in these patients

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23
Q

Acquired type of supravalvular aortic stenosis

A

Sequela of aortitis

(Valvular) Rheumatic and Degenerative
(Subvalvular) none

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24
Q

Most frequent cause of calcific aortic stenosis in the adult:

A

Degenerative

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25
The most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy
Ischemic (Ischemia sec to CAD)
26
Imaging features of dilated cardiomyopathy
>Normal LV wall thickness >Increased LV end diastolic volume >Increased LV end systolic volume
27
Imaging features of cardiac amyloidosis
(Restrictive Cardiomyopathy) >Normal/ mild increase LV vol >Mild dec in LVEF >Markedly enlarged RA and LA >Normal pericardial thickness >Normal of inc LV wall thickness >delayed gadolinium hyperenhancement of myocardium in some (amyloid and sarcoidosis)
28
Characteristic pattern of delayed gadolinium enhancement of the myocardium on DE-MR in more than 80% of pxs w/ amyloidosis
Delayed gadolinium hyperenhancement- usually LV circumferential subendocardial
29
A rare x-linked genetic disorder due to deficiency in lysosome causing heart failure, skeletal myopathy and mental retardation
Dannon's Disease
30
Imaging features of Ventricular Non compaction:
> inc LV end diastolic/systolic vol > dec LV stroke vol/ LVEF > prominent trabeculations > noncompacted: compacted thickness > 2.2
31
Most frequent cause of constrictive pericarditis in advanced industrialized nations
Post-cardiac surgery Tuberculosis (third world countries)
32
Pericardial thickness in constrictive pericarditis
Equal or greater than 4mm
33
Most common primary pericardial tumor
Mesothelioma
34
Most common location of myxoma
Left atrium (most common benign cardiact tumor)
35
The second most common benign cardiac tumor in adults
Lipoma Children MC- Rhabdomyosarcoma 2nd most- Fibroma
36
Most common location of papillary fibroelastoma
Aortic valve (29%) Tricuspid (17) Pulmonary (13) Mitral (2)
37
Most frequent primary malignant cardiac tumor
Angiosarcoma
38
Type of acquired pulmonary stenosis associated with Takayasu's arteritis
Supravalvular pulmonary stenosis
39
MR feature of mitral stenosis
Thickened and limited excursion of leaflet on cine MRI
40
Acquired type of subvalvular pulmonary stenosis
Infundibular hypertrophy
41
Potential contrainidcations to radiofrequency ablation procedures in left atrial mapping:
1. Left atrial mass 2. Left atrial appendage thrombus
42
Accessory pulmonary veins
1. Occurs most commonly on the right 2. One/Two separate veins draining the right middle lobe 3. Accessory right upper lobe pulmonary vein
43
Amyloidosis, hypokalemia and pheochromocytoma can cause which type of arrythmia?
Ventricular arrythmia
44
Post-infarction cardiomyopathy scar:
Can be approached with endocardial ablation via the retrograde aortic route Non ischemic more likely to have mid-myocardial/epicardial scar that necessitates subxyphoid epicardial access
45
Relation of implanted device (pacemaker) to artifact production in MRI:
Decreased distance between implanted device and the heart is associated with increased artifact affecting interpretation
46
This refers to the merging of ECG data acquisition to the CT image acquisiiton
Electrocardiographic gaming
47
Complication/s of pulmonary vein ablation is/are:
Pulmonary venous stenosis sx: exertional dyspnea, hemoptysis and pulmonary hypertension
48
A coronary angiography is always performed prior to epicardial ablation because of the risk of:
Risk of injury to the overlying coronary arteries and veins
49
Risk/s of MRI in patients with implanted pacing devices is/are
1. Lead heating 2. Change in device setting 3. Pacing device malfunction
50
The following are at an increased risk of post-ablation complication
Decreased ejection fraction Congestive heart failure
51
Cardiac resynchronization therapy
depend on biventricular pacing -useful for patients with advance heart failure -performed through placement of pacing leads in the right ventricle and a coronary sinus tributary that courses over the left ventricle
52
The primary target for left atrial radiofrequency ablation in the setting of atrial fibrillation
Pulmonary veins
53
Prospective cardiac gating
1. Linking the initiation of the image acquisition to a predetermined phase of the cardiac cycle 2. Reduced radiation exposure
54
The most common source of ectopic electrical activity causing atrial fibrillation
Pulmonary veins
55
Unique benefits of cardiac MRI of the left atrial mapping is/are:
Ability to identify atrial fibrosis through delayed enhancement post-gadolinium sequence
56
Increased risk of recurrent atrial fibrillation following catheter ablation
1. higher scar volume 2. large left atrial size 3. more spherical shape to the left atrium
57
One particular devastating complication ff pulmonary vein ablation
Pulmonary vein stenosis
58
The most common left atrial appendage morphology
Bilobed 2nd* multilobed 3rd* single lobe
59
Ventricular arrythmias may be caused by:
Heart failure Myocardial infarction Dilated cardiomyopathy
60
The most important limitation to catheter-based electroanatomic scar-mapping technique:
Inability to detect subpericardial and mid-wall scan
61
VEC cine MRI is used to measure
*Valvular regurgitant volume Differential flow in central pulmonary artery Systemic pulmonary shunt flow Flow through conduits
62
Features of complete TOGA
1. Situs solitus (RA on the right side of chest) 2. D-ventricular loop (RV to the right of LV) 3. d-TGA (aorta anterior and to the right of the PA)
63
Truncus arteriosus classification where right and left pulmomary arteries arise further laterally
Ans: Type III I- septum divides the origin of the aorta and pulmonary trunk II- R and L PA are close to each other but arise separately IV- PA atresia with VSD
64
Major clinical indication for MRI in congenital heart disease
>Thoracic aortic anomalies >Pulmonary arterial anomalies and pulmonary atresia >Complex cyanotic disease >Ab of pulmonary venous connections >Post op eval of complex proced >Coronary arterial anomalies >Adolescent and adult CHD >Monitoring regurg and ventricular function pre and post op
65
Procedure/s of choice for identifying the presence and connections of partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection
MRI and MRA
66
Arch anomaly that produce complete vascular rings that may narrow the trachea and esophagus
>Complete double arch >Double arch w/ atretic posterior component of the left arch >Right arc w/ aberrent *left* subclavian
67
Features of DORV:
1. Aorta orifice >50% overlies the RV 2. Pulmo orifice >50% overlies RV 3. Subaortic, subpulmo, doubly committed or non-committed VSD
68
Most common congenital heart anomaly
VSD
69
Most common type of ASD
Ostium secundum
70
Type of ASD which is a part of an atrioventricular defect which was formerly known as endocardial cushion defect
Ostium primum
71
In MRI of TOF, this is used to assess the size of the main and central pulmonary arteries and to display focal stenosis
Ans. Sagittal and transaxial images (SE and cine MR) Transaxial and oblique coronal demonstrates the VSD and position of aorta overriding Cine MRI in RVOT plane used for defining the narrowed infundibulum and stenotic annulus/valve
72
Features of TOF
>obstruction to the RV outlet region >malalignment outlet VSD >enlarged aorta overriding the VSD >hypertrabuculated, hypertrophied RV
73
Features of Ebstein's Malformation
Ebstein (tricuspid valve anomaly) >septal and anterior leaflets adhere to the RV wall >arterialized portion of the RV basal to the attached leaflet
74
Used to evaluate coarctation of the aorta
SE or cine MR in axial and oblique sagittal planes
75
MRI is not typically used to evaluate this congenital anomaly. MRI is only to evaluate the severity of post stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta
Congenital aortic stenosis (evaluated using echocardiography)
76
Morphologic features of the right ventricle
>infundibulum >No fibrous continuity bet atrioventricular and semilunar valves >corrugated surface of ventricular septum near apex
77
Features of coronary sinus fistula
>Pulmo arterial over circulation/edema >Enlargement of RV >enlarged left sided cardiac chambers >enlarged RA >enlarged main pulmo and central pulmo artery segments
78
Featurs of Single ventricle
>predominant ventricle receiving both atrioventricular valves (double inlet ventricle) >normally related arteries and no pulmonic stenosis, appearing like a VSD or d-TGA, depending on preferrntial streaming in the ventricle
79
Salient radiographic features of truncus arteriosus
>Cardiomegaly >Right aortic arch >Dilated ascending aorta
80
TAPV connection wherein pulmonary venous confluence drains into the RA.
Ans. Type II (cardiac) Others: Type I (supracardiac) connects to the left innominate, R SVC or azygos
81
Left ventricular dysfunction during stress is present when there is
Segmental decrease in LV wall thickening, wall motion or both
82
Stress function MR study is?
inducement of regional myocardial dysfunction by Dobutamine stress MR has been found to identify patients at risk for myocardial infarction and death
83
Use of coronary MRA:
identify coronary arterial anomalies and detect coronary arterial aneurysm
84
Stress perfusion study:
used to elicit a perfusion deficit in the myocardium supplied by a significantly stenosed coronary artery
85
Type of myocardial injury wherein there is regional myocardial dysfunction which recovers to normal in hours or days with no irreversible injury
Stunned myocardium
86
Type of myocardial injury wherein there is chronic ischemia causing persistent myocardial dysfunction but is not severe for infarctions to occur
Hibernating myocardium
87
In evaluating myocardial viability using MR, one approach use is delayed contrast enhancement. This employs inversion recovery GE sequence with an IR time set to attenuate the signal of normal myocardium at 10 to 15 min after contrast. At this time the following outcome is expected:
Non-viable myocardium shows delayed contrast enhancement
88
The transmurality of delayed enhancement provides insight into the likelihood of recovery of regional contractile function after myocardial revascularization. Subendocardial delayed enhancement indicates:
The likelihood of sufficient viability to result in recovery of contractile function
89
Myocardial edema occurs in the ___ week after myocardial infarction.
1st
90
One difference of prospective and retrospective gating:
In prospective gating, images are only acquired during mid-to-end diastole while in retrospective, data is acquired throughout the entire cardiac cycle
91
The difference between the region rendered as ischemic or ischemic jeopardy zone and infarcted area is called?
Myocardial salvage index
92
Phase of cardiac cycle best for imaging the coronary arteries
End diastole
93
Heart rate control is essential for acquisition of good quality coronary images. What is the protocol being followed?
Oral beta blocker (e.g. metoprolol 50mg) 1 hr prior followed by IV fast acting beta blocker immediately before contrast administration if the heart rate is still above 60 bpm.
94
Complete cardiac CT angiogram includes the following:
> non contrast chest ct w/ continuous axial images 2.5-3mm encompassing the entire heart using prospective gating and small FOV (25 sq cm) >contrast enhanced chest ct, w/ prospective gating, min thickness 0.625mm and small FOV >contrast enhanced chest CT images with retrospective gating, min 0.625 mm slice, small FOV
95
Following the Agatston score protocol used in calcium scoring, any pixel within the coronary arterial tree w/ density higher the ___ HU is considered as containing calcium
130
96
Among the coronary artery anomalous courses, most clinical significant "malignant" is _____ course
Interarterial
97
Most common course abnormality of the coronary arteries
Myocardial bridge
98
The presence of an area of low CT attenuation w/ rim-like area of higher attenuation within the soft atherosclerotic plaque is called __
Napkin ring sign
99
Definition of coronary aneurysm is focal dilatation w/ diameter of at least __ times greater than adjacent normal and involvement of ___ % of the vessel length
1.5x : <50%
100
Most common acute complication after CABG
Graft occlusion