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AirMed Regional > 2019 End of Year Exam > Flashcards

2019 End of Year Exam Flashcards

Cornerstone Questions

1
Q

A few important preparatory actions you can do to ensure you are ready for a potential arduous farm and ranch emergency are:

A

Sunscreen, hydration, healthy meals and snack, proper boots and attire for the elements.
Fostering a positive relationship with local EMS through teaching and community events.

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2
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Farm and ranch emergencies are often cut and dry, requiring little more than a simple load and go transport.

A

False

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3
Q

TRUE/FALSE: It’s a good practice to transport the snake with the patient to the hospital for identification purposes.

A

False

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4
Q

What is the acronym for the signs and symptoms of Organophosphate exposure?

A

SLUDGE

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5
Q

What resources are available to research Hazmat?

A

Chemtrec, CDC, AAPCC, MSDS

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6
Q

Early trauma management includes

A

Preventing circulatory shock by controlling bleeding, administering warmed IV fluids and blood if needed, and thermoregulation

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7
Q

A horse with his ears back, muscles tense, and lips pursed is likely:

A

angry or threatened

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8
Q

TRUE/FALSE: It is NOT a good idea to establish a work zone / cordon when operating heavy machinery.

A

False

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9
Q

What procedure is utilized to prevent restarting equipment that is currently being operated around?

A

Tag out and lock out

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10
Q

You are requested to administer PRBCs to an 8kg pediatric patient. How many mls do you anticipate infusing?

A

80

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11
Q

It is preferred that PRBCs be administered through a 20g or larger IV catheter to prevent ________.

A

hemolysis

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12
Q

Y-tubing should be spiked and primed with ________.

A

Normal saline

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a primary function of blood?

A

Filtration

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14
Q

Transfusion reactions typically occur within _______ minutes or the first 50 mLs.

A

15 minutes

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15
Q

Blood product administration should be completed within ______ hours from the time the product was removed from the cooler.

A

4 hours

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16
Q 
TXA can be mixed in all of the following except:
NS
LR
D5W
PRBCs
A

Packed red blood cells

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17
Q

What is the initial dose of TXA?

A

1g over 10min

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18
Q

Administering TXA to a patient who sustained injuries more than _____ hours prior increases the chance of mortality.

A

3 hours

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19
Q

The proper method for warming blood prior to administration is:

A

using a commercial in-line device

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20
Q

How much blood can potentially be lost in with a pelvic fracture?

A

2-3 Liters

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21
Q

What landmarks are used to position the pelvic immobilization device?

A

Greater trochanters

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22
Q

Typically, pelvic fractures are caused by ________ energy injuries

A

High

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23
Q

Which of the following is not reason for pelvic immobilization?

  • tamponads bleeding sources
  • decreases pain for transport
  • reduces the need for foley catheterization
  • reduces instability of the injured pelvis
A

Reduces the need for foley catheterization.

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24
Q

What is the mortality rate of open-pelvic fractures?

A

50 percent

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25
Q

A clavicle fracture with associated neurovascular injury requires:

A

an emergent orthopedic consultation

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26
Q

The most common type of clavicle fracture is:

A

a fracture located in the middle third of the bone (Allman 1)

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27
Q

The major concern in all chest wall trauma is for:

A

underlying intrathoracic injury

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28
Q

An outdated treatment recommendation for a flail chest is

A

chest wall splinting

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29
Q

What location of rib fractures have increased risk of solid organ injury?

A

ribs 9-12

30
Q

The most common site for a rib fracture is

A

posteriolateral

31
Q

The most common location for rib fractures is

A

ribs 4-9

32
Q

What baseline assessment should crews perform on any patient with a suspected sternal fracture?

A

EKG

33
Q

What type of injury causes concern for compression of trachea and great vessels?

A

posterior sternoclavicular dislocation

34
Q

Paradoxical motion of flail segment may not be seen in intubated patients due to:

A

positive pressure ventilation

35
Q

What is the most serious potential complication of performing CPR on an LVAD patient?

A

LVAD cannula dislodgement

36
Q

TRUE/FALSE: An LVAD can NOT be a permanent solution for a patient in heart failure?

A

False

37
Q

When defibrillating someone with an LVAD you should set your Joules:

A

at the recommended joule setting for your device

38
Q

The most common dysrhythmia in LVAD patients is?

A

Vfib/Vtach

39
Q

A normal ETCO2 in the intubated patient with an LVAD is?

A

35-45

40
Q

TRUE/FALSE: A patient with an LVAD can be treated with an anti-dysrhythmic?

A

True

41
Q

Stop every ______ min of CPR to reevaluate the efforts of resuscitation. NRP/STABLE

A

1

42
Q

The starting dose of epi via IV of 1mg/10ml concentration is ____ ml/kg: NRP/STABLE

A

0.1

43
Q

The D10 dose for hypogylcemia in the neonate is _____ ml/kg and given 1 ml/min IV.

A

2

44
Q

The “P” in MR SOAPA stands for:

NRP/STABLE

A

Pressure

45
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The epinephrine dose via ETT of 1mg/10ml concentration is 0.5-1ml/kg.
NRP/STABLE

A

True

46
Q

When providing PPV to neonate the rate should be one breath every _____ seconds.

A

2

47
Q

The BVM to CPR ratio in NRP is:

A

30:90

48
Q

The expected ETT size for a 32 week gestation neonate is

A

3.0

49
Q

Normal respiratory rate for neonate is _____ breaths per minute

A

30-60

50
Q

Lowest acceptable glucose in a neonate is _____ mg/dl:

A

40

51
Q

Which of the following is not a recommended site for IO placement?

A

Sternum

52
Q

What is the narrowest portion of a child under 10s airway?

A

Cricoid cartilage

53
Q

When providing endotracheal intubation for a pediatric patient, the patient’s airway should be placed in which of the following positions?

A

Neutral

54
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Head injuries are the leading cause of death in pediatric trauma?

A

true

55
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The formula for sizing a cuffed tube in a pediatric patient is 4+ (age/4)=tube size.

A

False

56
Q

When oxygenating a pediatric patient, the SPO2 goal should be greater than or equal to:

A

94%

57
Q

Which of the following is not an indicator of adequate circulation in a pediatric patient?

A

Urine output of at least 0.25-0.50 ml/kg/hr

58
Q

A pediatric patient weighing 20kg can be secured ONLY by aircraft cot straps?

A

FALSE

59
Q

Which of the following is the recommended dose for PRBC in the peds patient?

A

10 mg/kg

60
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Children usually regress developmentally under stress?

A

True

61
Q

A 4-year old child is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. What is the compression to ventilation ratio you use prior to advanced airway placement?

A

15:2

62
Q

What pediatric dose do you use for initial defib?

A

2 J/kg

63
Q

What is the initial dose of amiodarone be for a 22kg patient?

A

110mg

64
Q

A 2-week-old is being evaluated and treated for poor feeding and irritability. His blood pressure is 55/40 and cap refill is 5 seconds. Which statement best describes this patient’s blood pressure?

A

hypotensive

65
Q

What is the recommended compression rate for pediatric CPR?

A

100-120 compressions per min

66
Q

What is the loading dose and maintenance dose of Lidocaine for VF/pVT?

A

1mg/kg loading

20-50 mcg/kg/min maintenance

67
Q

You are caring for a 4 year old child with hypovolemic shock from vomiting x 3 days. The child weight is 18kg. What is the correct initial fluid bolus for this patient?

A

360ml

68
Q

What is the correct dose of epi for a peds patient in cardiac arrest?

A

0.01mg/kg IV/IO (1:10,000 or 1mg/10ml)

69
Q

You are evaluating a 10 year old child for dizziness. Which is a normal finding for this 10 year old child?

  • Temp 103.2
  • HR 88/min
  • BP 60/50
  • RR 6/min
A

HR 88/min

70
Q

In ROSC, what is the target ideal oxygen saturation range?

A

94-99%

AirMed Regional (5 decks)

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