2019 End of Year Exam Flashcards
Cornerstone Questions
A few important preparatory actions you can do to ensure you are ready for a potential arduous farm and ranch emergency are:
Sunscreen, hydration, healthy meals and snack, proper boots and attire for the elements.
Fostering a positive relationship with local EMS through teaching and community events.
TRUE/FALSE: Farm and ranch emergencies are often cut and dry, requiring little more than a simple load and go transport.
False
TRUE/FALSE: It’s a good practice to transport the snake with the patient to the hospital for identification purposes.
False
What is the acronym for the signs and symptoms of Organophosphate exposure?
SLUDGE
What resources are available to research Hazmat?
Chemtrec, CDC, AAPCC, MSDS
Early trauma management includes
Preventing circulatory shock by controlling bleeding, administering warmed IV fluids and blood if needed, and thermoregulation
A horse with his ears back, muscles tense, and lips pursed is likely:
angry or threatened
TRUE/FALSE: It is NOT a good idea to establish a work zone / cordon when operating heavy machinery.
False
What procedure is utilized to prevent restarting equipment that is currently being operated around?
Tag out and lock out
You are requested to administer PRBCs to an 8kg pediatric patient. How many mls do you anticipate infusing?
80
It is preferred that PRBCs be administered through a 20g or larger IV catheter to prevent ________.
hemolysis
Y-tubing should be spiked and primed with ________.
Normal saline
Which of the following is not a primary function of blood?
Filtration
Transfusion reactions typically occur within _______ minutes or the first 50 mLs.
15 minutes
Blood product administration should be completed within ______ hours from the time the product was removed from the cooler.
4 hours
TXA can be mixed in all of the following except: NS LR D5W PRBCs
Packed red blood cells
What is the initial dose of TXA?
1g over 10min
Administering TXA to a patient who sustained injuries more than _____ hours prior increases the chance of mortality.
3 hours
The proper method for warming blood prior to administration is:
using a commercial in-line device
How much blood can potentially be lost in with a pelvic fracture?
2-3 Liters
What landmarks are used to position the pelvic immobilization device?
Greater trochanters
Typically, pelvic fractures are caused by ________ energy injuries
High
Which of the following is not reason for pelvic immobilization?
- tamponads bleeding sources
- decreases pain for transport
- reduces the need for foley catheterization
- reduces instability of the injured pelvis
Reduces the need for foley catheterization.
What is the mortality rate of open-pelvic fractures?
50 percent
A clavicle fracture with associated neurovascular injury requires:
an emergent orthopedic consultation
The most common type of clavicle fracture is:
a fracture located in the middle third of the bone (Allman 1)
The major concern in all chest wall trauma is for:
underlying intrathoracic injury
An outdated treatment recommendation for a flail chest is
chest wall splinting
What location of rib fractures have increased risk of solid organ injury?
ribs 9-12
The most common site for a rib fracture is
posteriolateral
The most common location for rib fractures is
ribs 4-9
What baseline assessment should crews perform on any patient with a suspected sternal fracture?
EKG
What type of injury causes concern for compression of trachea and great vessels?
posterior sternoclavicular dislocation
Paradoxical motion of flail segment may not be seen in intubated patients due to:
positive pressure ventilation
What is the most serious potential complication of performing CPR on an LVAD patient?
LVAD cannula dislodgement
TRUE/FALSE: An LVAD can NOT be a permanent solution for a patient in heart failure?
False
When defibrillating someone with an LVAD you should set your Joules:
at the recommended joule setting for your device
The most common dysrhythmia in LVAD patients is?
Vfib/Vtach
A normal ETCO2 in the intubated patient with an LVAD is?
35-45
TRUE/FALSE: A patient with an LVAD can be treated with an anti-dysrhythmic?
True
Stop every ______ min of CPR to reevaluate the efforts of resuscitation. NRP/STABLE
1
The starting dose of epi via IV of 1mg/10ml concentration is ____ ml/kg: NRP/STABLE
0.1
The D10 dose for hypogylcemia in the neonate is _____ ml/kg and given 1 ml/min IV.
2
The “P” in MR SOAPA stands for:
NRP/STABLE
Pressure
TRUE/FALSE: The epinephrine dose via ETT of 1mg/10ml concentration is 0.5-1ml/kg.
NRP/STABLE
True
When providing PPV to neonate the rate should be one breath every _____ seconds.
2
The BVM to CPR ratio in NRP is:
30:90
The expected ETT size for a 32 week gestation neonate is
3.0
Normal respiratory rate for neonate is _____ breaths per minute
30-60
Lowest acceptable glucose in a neonate is _____ mg/dl:
40
Which of the following is not a recommended site for IO placement?
Sternum
What is the narrowest portion of a child under 10s airway?
Cricoid cartilage
When providing endotracheal intubation for a pediatric patient, the patient’s airway should be placed in which of the following positions?
Neutral
TRUE/FALSE: Head injuries are the leading cause of death in pediatric trauma?
true
TRUE/FALSE: The formula for sizing a cuffed tube in a pediatric patient is 4+ (age/4)=tube size.
False
When oxygenating a pediatric patient, the SPO2 goal should be greater than or equal to:
94%
Which of the following is not an indicator of adequate circulation in a pediatric patient?
Urine output of at least 0.25-0.50 ml/kg/hr
A pediatric patient weighing 20kg can be secured ONLY by aircraft cot straps?
FALSE
Which of the following is the recommended dose for PRBC in the peds patient?
10 mg/kg
TRUE/FALSE: Children usually regress developmentally under stress?
True
A 4-year old child is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. What is the compression to ventilation ratio you use prior to advanced airway placement?
15:2
What pediatric dose do you use for initial defib?
2 J/kg
What is the initial dose of amiodarone be for a 22kg patient?
110mg
A 2-week-old is being evaluated and treated for poor feeding and irritability. His blood pressure is 55/40 and cap refill is 5 seconds. Which statement best describes this patient’s blood pressure?
hypotensive
What is the recommended compression rate for pediatric CPR?
100-120 compressions per min
What is the loading dose and maintenance dose of Lidocaine for VF/pVT?
1mg/kg loading
20-50 mcg/kg/min maintenance
You are caring for a 4 year old child with hypovolemic shock from vomiting x 3 days. The child weight is 18kg. What is the correct initial fluid bolus for this patient?
360ml
What is the correct dose of epi for a peds patient in cardiac arrest?
0.01mg/kg IV/IO (1:10,000 or 1mg/10ml)
You are evaluating a 10 year old child for dizziness. Which is a normal finding for this 10 year old child?
- Temp 103.2
- HR 88/min
- BP 60/50
- RR 6/min
HR 88/min
In ROSC, what is the target ideal oxygen saturation range?
94-99%
