2019 + 2018 Summative Flashcards

1
Q

Screening for bowel cancer, which one is used

a. Faecal occult blood test
b. Do a full blood count
c. Check iron studies
d. Ask patient if they see any blood in stool
e. Stool microscopy for blood

A

a. Faecal occult blood test

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2
Q

67 year old man who comes in with his daughter. She is concerned about his decreased functioning at work. He also had a car accident recently where he misjudged the distance between his car and an oncoming car. Daughter says that he is not as happy as he usually is and that he “sees things” that she can’t see. He used to enjoy walking, but is walking less now and his walking has become slowed. He has no changes to his memory and these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few years.

What mechanism could have caused these symptoms?

a. Amyloid-beta aggregates
b. Alpha-synuclein aggregates
c. Multiple cortical infarcts
d. Prion Disease
e. Tau protein aggregates

A

b. Alpha-synuclein aggregates

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3
Q

Man presents with an absent gag reflex and when asked to cough it’s weak. What cranial nerve is likely to be affected?

a. Facial
b. Trigeminal
c. Accessory
d. Vagus
e. Hypoglossal

A

d. Vagus

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4
Q

26 year old man with dental abscess which needs to be surgically removed under local anaesthetic.
What would impact the effectiveness of the local anaesthetic?
a. Extent of inflammation.
b. Previous effects of local anaesthetics.
c. Injury to local nerves.
d. pH elevation in local tissues.
e. Nutritional status of the patient.

A

a. Extent of inflammation.

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5
Q

What is the pathogenesis of coeliac disease?

a. IgE mast cell
b. IgG
c. T cell mediated
d. Immune complex deposition of glucose and antibody

A

c. T cell mediated

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6
Q

Bilaterally reduced knee jerk reflex. What do you think is causing this?

a. Lesion in DCML
b. Lesion in motor cortex
c. Metabolic disturbance
d. Voluntary inhibition of reflex

A

d. Voluntary inhibition of reflex

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7
Q

A 67-year-old man with severe COPD is on many medications. He presents with dysphonia and has white plaques on his tongue and parapharyngeal area. Which of his medications could have caused this presentation?

a. Intermediate corticosteroid
b. Long-acting muscarinic antagonist
c. Long-acting sympathomimetic
d. Short-acting sympathomimetic
e. Short-acting muscarinic antagonist

A

a. Intermediate corticosteroid

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8
Q

In DKA, dehydration is common. What is the main mechanism by which this occurs?

a. Increased GFR
b. Excess sweating due to metabolic changes
c. Third spacing of fluid into the extracellular space
d. Increased urine output and electrolyte loss
e. Vomiting

A

d. Increased urine output and electrolyte loss

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9
Q

What is the leading cause of death in people aged 12-24 in Australia?

a. Accidental drug overdose
b. Anorexia nervosa
c. Cancer
d. Road traffic accidents
e. Suicide

A

e. Suicide

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10
Q

Left testicular swelling over two days. Is diagnosed with epididymo-orchitis. What is the most common organism that causes this?

a. E.Coli
b. Chlamydia t.
c. T. pallium
d. C albicans
e. Group B Streptococcus

A

b. Chlamydia t.

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11
Q

30M, presents to the hospital, they perform an endoscopy and find a duodenal ulcer. Post-op, what would make you most concerned that he now has severe GIT bleed?

a. Bradycardia
b. Haematemesis
c. Epigastric pain
d. Melaena
e. Slow capillary refill

A

e. Slow capillary refill

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12
Q

Hyperventilation is used to reduce increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). What is the mechanism behind this?

a. Increased oxygenation
b. Increased RR increases perfusion of cerebral blood vessels
c. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction
d. Increased CO2 levels cause vasodilation

A

c. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction

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13
Q

Guy who has an overactive detrusor muscle. Which of the following drug classes would help?

a. Alpha-1 agonist
b. Beta-3 adrenergic agonist
c. Muscarinic M3 receptor agonist
d. Nicotinic receptor agonist

A

b. Beta-3 adrenergic agonist

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14
Q

What pathogen are neonates most susceptible to?

a. Encapsulated bacteria
b. Virus
c. Ecto Protozoa
d. protozoa
e. Non-Encapsulated bacteria

A

a. Encapsulated bacteria

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15
Q

Patient is started on and infusion of plain tap water at a rapid rate. What would this cause?

a. No significant change
b. High efflux water
c. High influx Na
d. Shrinkage and cretination
e. Swelling and haemolysis

A

e. Swelling and haemolysis

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16
Q

A patient who has oculomotor nerve palsy of one of their eyes will present with which of the following (for their affected eyes)?

a. Lateral and downwards
b. Lateral and upwards
c. Medial and downwards
d. Medial and upwards

A

a. Lateral and downwards

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17
Q

Loperamide is an opioid more potent than morphine. However, it is available as an over-the-counter medication for diarrhoea.
Why does it have a small effect on the CNS?
a. Converted to a lipid soluble metabolite
b. Efficiently transported by P-glycoprotein
c. Low affinity for CYP450 enzymes
d. Rapid uptake by enterocytes

A

b. Efficiently transported by P-glycoprotein

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18
Q

Which alteration in neurotramission is responsible for the anxiolytic action of diazepam?

a. 5-hydroxytryptamine
b. Gamma Aminobutyric acid
c. Increases glutamate
d. Inhibiting Gamma Aminobutyric acid
e. Inhibiting 5-hydroxytryptamine

A

b. Gamma Aminobutyric acid

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19
Q

Antipsychotics are associated with extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs).
Which is true?
a. Clozapine is likely to have EPSEs
b. Second generation antipsychotics are more likely to have EPSEs than first generation
c. ESPEs worse with drugs with higher D2 receptor occupancy
d. EPSEs are caused by hyperdopaminergic state
e. Mydriasis is a common EPS

A

c. ESPEs worse with drugs with higher D2 receptor occupancy

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20
Q

A woman has been alcohol abstinent for the last five months. She attends a birthday party and has a slice of cake asking her friend, “what’s the secret to great cake”?. She is told that it is the addition of rum. She leaves the party worried. A short time later she feels flushed and develops a headache and nausea. What medication is she taking?

a. Acamprosate
b. Clozipine
c. Diazepam
d. Disulfiram

A

d. Disulfiram

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21
Q

You need to test the nerve pathways of the limbs. Which of the following tests would be most useful for testing the dorsal (posterior) column?

a. Testing blunt/sharp pain
b. Testing light touch
c. Testing vibration
d. Testing temperature

A

c. Testing vibration

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22
Q

What is the major contributor to the increase in CO during the first half of pregnancy?

a. Increase in vascular resistance
b. Decrease in vascular resistance
c. Increased HR
d. Increased SV
e. Decrease in preload

A

d. Increased SV

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23
Q

Which of the following is most likely sign of diabetic retinopathy?

a. Corneal abrasion
b. Poor pupillary response
c. Cloudy vitreous
d. Blot haemorrhage
e. Increased disk ratio

A

d. Blot haemorrhage

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24
Q

A 50 yo man complains of inability to obtain an erection. Has had some issues over the last year, but now completely unable to obtain erection in the last 6 months. Diagnosed with T2DM 3 years ago but has not been treating it. . Separated from wife 3 years ago, and started dating someone new 6 months ago. He is wondering if it is because of the vasectomy he had 5 years ago. What is the most likely cause of his erectile dysfunction?

a. Early relationship issues
b. Reduced prolactin from diabetes
c. Vascular changes from intermittent claudication
d. Middle-aged men usually have low testosterone levels
e. Side effect of vasectomy

A

c. Vascular changes from intermittent claudication

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25
Q

A 42 year old woman has a microadenoma of the pituitary leading to excess production of ACTH.
What clinical presentation would you expect to see?
a. Bone formation and increased density
b. Obesity and hypertension
d. Sodium and fluid retention
e. Tachycardia and tremors

A

b. Obesity and hypertension

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26
Q

Man is stabbed with a knife in the axilla region. He is unable to adduct thumb or abduct pinky. All else is normal, which nerve is severed?

a. Axillary nerve
b. Medial nerve
c. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve

A

e. Ulnar nerve

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27
Q

You are a GP seeing a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. They are an identical twin. What is the risk of the other twin developing schizophrenia?

a. 20%
b. 30-75%
c. 95%
d. No more risk than in non-twin siblings.
e. No more risk than any the general population

A

30-75%

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28
Q

On FBC the patient has increased RBC, decreased Haemoglobin, increased MCV.

a. Hereditary Spherocytosis
b. Thalassemia
c. Folate deficiency anaemia
d. Iron deficiency anaemia

A

c. Folate deficiency anaemia

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29
Q

where do most ectopic pregnancies occur?

A

fallopian tubes

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30
Q

Indication for monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

a. Constipation
b. Depression
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. Hypertension

A

b. Depression

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31
Q

Ductus venosus allows bypassing of:

a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Lower limb
d. Pelvic organs

A

b. Liver

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32
Q

Lung cancer secreting ADH would have which effect:

a. Increased fluid in extravascular fluid
b. Low osmolality urine
c. Increased sodium reabsorption
d. Increased serum sodium.

A

c. Increased sodium reabsorption

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33
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the containment of amniotic fluid?

a. Amnion is avascular
b. Chorion is inside the amnion
c. Mucus plug is the primary thing that stops fluid leakage
d. Amnion is directly against the foetus

A

a. Amnion is avascular

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34
Q

Pt on metformin and gliclazide (a sulphonylurea). Has a hypoglycemic episode. What has caused the hypoglycaemic episode?

a. Metformin for insulin release from beta cells
b. Metformin increases insulin sensitivity
c. Sulphonylurea for insulin release from beta cells
d. Sulphonylurea increases insulin sensitivity

A

c. Sulphonylurea for insulin release from beta cells

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35
Q

What’s true about the cervix?

a. The junction between ectocervix and endocervix occurs at the internal os
b. The cervix is mostly smooth muscle
c. The endocervical canal has tall columnar cells that secrete mucus
d. The endocervical canal connects the uterine cavity to the vulva
e. The vagina has tall columnar cells

A

c. The endocervical canal has tall columnar cells that secrete mucus

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36
Q

Woman is breastfeeding and hasn’t had her period yet. What’s the mechanism behind this?

a. Prolactin suppresses GnRH
b. Prolactin stimulates GnRH
c. Prolactin suppresses progesterone
d. Prolactin suppresses oestrogen

A

a. Prolactin suppresses GnRH

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37
Q

What neurotransmitter is implicated in social affiliation?

a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Oxytocin
d. Noradrenalin
e. Prolactin

A

c. Oxytocin

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38
Q

A pregnant woman’s waters have broken. What ruptured?

a. Placenta
b. Amniotic sac
c. Yolk sac
d. Chorion

A

b. Amniotic sac

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39
Q

What’s the embryological origin of the seminal vesicles?

a. Urogenital ridge
b. Genital tubercle
c. Labio-scrotal folds
d. Mesonephric duct
e. Paramesonephric duct

A

d. Mesonephric duct

40
Q

A mother with known teratogen exposure has a child born with a cleft lip/palate.
During what time period would the exposure have occurred?
a. Day 6-7
b. Weeks 6-7
c. Weeks 16-17
d. Weeks 26-27
e. Weeks 36-37

A

b. Weeks 6-7

41
Q

Which of the following structures corresponds to the location for the receptors for sound?

a. Organ of Corti
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Basement membrane
d. Reissner’s membrane

A

a. Organ of Corti

42
Q

A young girl has Type I Diabetes, which is well managed, but her mum is worried about her performance in school. They’ve already done FBC, LFT, EUC and the results are all normal. What’s the best next option to rule out organic/auto-immune causes?

a. Thyroid function tests
b. MRI/CT
c. Coeliac disease markers
d. Genetic testing

A

a. Thyroid function tests

43
Q
What is chronic mild depression also known as?
A. Dysthymia 
B. Bipolar depression
C. Melancholia
D. Depressive personality
E. Major depression
A

A. Dysthymia

44
Q

15 year old boy is concerned because he hasn’t started puberty yet. What’s the first sign you’d look for?

a. Increased length of penis
b. Increased testicular volume
c. Pubic hair
d. Vocal changes
e. Acne

A

b. Increased testicular volume

45
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is important in achieving an erection?

a. Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
b. Substance P
c. Nitric oxide
d. Noradrenaline

A

Nitric oxide

46
Q

Vaccination for hepatitis - what blood test accounts for vaccine-induced immunity?

a. HBsAg - Hepatitis B surface antigen
b. HBcAg - Hepatitis B core antigen
c. HBeAg - Hepatitis B E antigen
d. Combination of both Hepatitis B core and Hepatitis B surface antigen

A

a. HBsAg - Hepatitis B surface antigen

47
Q

What’s true about oogenesis?

a. Oocytes arrested in prophase I
b. Oocytes arrested in prophase II
c. Oocytes arrested until 2 years after birth

A

a. Oocytes arrested in prophase I

48
Q

The ureter has a long and windy course that invariably narrows when it passes near other structures. As such it has to expand when passing calculi. Which of the following epithelial cell types lines the ureter and allows this expansion to happen?

a. Simple squamous
b. Transitional
c. Stratified squamous
d. Simple columnar
e. Stratified cuboidal

A

b. Transitional

49
Q

Interpret ABG: pH 7.2, normal PaCO2, high lactate, base excess -4, low bicarbonate.

A) Respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation
B) Metabolic acidosis with inadequate respiratory compensation
C) Respiratory acidosis with adequate compensation
D) Respiratory acidosis with inadequate renal compensation

A

B) Metabolic acidosis with inadequate respiratory compensation

50
Q

In a patient who you suspect has hypothyroid disease, which of the following supports your diagnosis?

a. Thyroid nodule
b. Puffy face
c. Tremor
d. Sweating
e. Proptosis

A

b. Puffy face

51
Q

15YO boy presents with no dysmorphic features. Had some learning difficulties, had to see a physiotherapist for his speech when he was younger. Above average height. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Turner Syndrome
c. Edwards Syndrome
d. Patau Syndrome
e. Fragile X Syndrome

A

a. Klinefelter syndrome

52
Q

What happens to a pathogen after it’s bound by IgG?

a. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
b. Exocytosis of granules by T cells
c. Activation of mast cells (basophils)

A

a. Phagocytosis by neutrophils

53
Q
  1. Change in reno-vascular values in first trimester?

a) Increase systolic BP
b) Increase diastolic BP
c) Increase haematocrit
d) Decrease GFR
e) Decrease peripheral resistance

A

e) Decrease peripheral resistance

54
Q

Image of compound fracture with bone poking out through the medial ankle. What structure is most likely to be damaged?

a. Posterior tibial artery
b. Dorsalis pedis artery
c. Sural nerve

A

a. Posterior tibial artery

55
Q

Which of the following conditions is lithium carbonate used in the management of?

a. Bipolar disorder
b. Depression
c. Schrosenburger syndrome

A

a. Bipolar disorder

56
Q

Key outcome of citric acid cycle?

a. Conversion of a 6 carbon molecule to 3 carbon molecule
b. Regeneration of citrate in last step
c. Reduction of NAD+ to NADH
d. Production of FA molecules

A

c. Reduction of NAD+ to NADH

57
Q

When do oestrogen levels peak?

a) Just before ovulation
b) Just before menstruation
c) Just after Ovulation
d) Early follicular phase

A

a) Just before ovulation

58
Q

30 something yrs woman presents at 38 weeks gestation, for 1 hour she has had regular contractions which are progressing, but for the last 5 minutes she has had more intense contractions and is wanting to push. On examination, shows 10cm dilation of cervix. What stage of labour is she in?

a) During 1st stage labour
b) Towards end of 1st Stage
c) Commencing 2nd stage
d) Beginning 3rd stage
e) During 3rd stage

A

c) Commencing 2nd stage

59
Q

Which drug is least likely to cause tardive dyskinesia?

a) Amisulpride
b) Flupentixol
c) Clozapine
d) Chlorpromazine
e) Haloperidol

A

c) Clozapine

60
Q

Baby brought in with vomiting and swollen lips after recently weaning from breast milk to cow’s milk. Following the most recent feed, the father noticed the baby had a red splotchy rash. When you look in the nappy, the baby has had a loose bowel motion with a small amount of blood. Likely cause?

a) IgE recognising cow’s milk protein
b) Inability to break down lactose
c) Autoimmune destruction of villi in small intestine
d) Change in gut osmotic gradient due to hyperosmolar formula

A

a) IgE recognising cow’s milk protein

61
Q

32y/o female refuses to have her child vaccinated. She is in a group that share the beliefs that vaccination is unnecessary, and that it is a conspiracy between doctors and the pharmaceutical companies. She claims that vaccination will alter her child’s brain development and personality. Is her belief a delusion, and why/why not?

a) No, because it is a shared cultural belief
b) No, not if her other life decisions are rational
c) Yes, because it is a paranoid belief
d) Yes, because it is bizarre in nature
e) Yes, because she believes it despite scientific evidence to the contrary

A

a) No, because it is a shared cultural belief

62
Q
  1. 32 year old man presents for a check up, says his wife sent him. Him and his wife have been trying to conceive for 12 months and have been unsuccessful. His wife is seeing her own GP to follow it up on her end. Examination of his external genitalia is normal. His BMI is 30. No other medical conditions. What is the most appropriate next step?

a) Begin on a weight loss program and review in 3 months
b) Check for diabetes and other chronic diseases
c) Semen analysis
d) Check testosterone levels
e) Do karyotype testing for chromosomal abnormalities such as Klinefelters

A

c) Semen analysis

63
Q

Describe the function of the sertoli cells during spermatogenesis?

a) Immune surveillance of the testes
b) Main cell of gametogenesis
c) Produces testosterone
d) Secrete matrix to support sperm
e) Metabolic support and nourish developing spermatozoa

A

e) Metabolic support and nourish developing spermatozoa

64
Q

Which brain structure controls circadian rhythms?

a) Locus coeruleus
b) Pineal gland
c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

c) Suprachiasmatic nucleus

65
Q

What is the embryological origins of the seminal vesicles?

a) Urogenital ridge
b) Mesonephric duct
c) Mullerian duct
d) Paramesonephric duct
e) Genital tract

A

b) Mesonephric duct

66
Q

A woman presents to the GP clinic after a positive home pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she reports that it was lighter and shorter in duration than usual. She also reports having irregular periods, often going 2-3 months in between. What is the best way to calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD) or the date of confinement?

a) Get an ultrasound dating scan
b) Measure fundal height
c) Calculate dates from last menstrual period (LMP)
d) Order a urine HCG test
e) Order a quantitative serum β-HCG

A

a) Get an ultrasound dating scan

67
Q

What’s the most common outcome from a Helicobacter pylori infection?

a) Asymptomatic gastritis
b) Duodenal ulcer
c) Gastric carcinoma
d) Gastric ulcer

A

Asymptomatic gastritis

68
Q

A 69 year old woman is currently taking warfarin due to a previous DVT. She tells you that she wants to start a green smoothie ‘detox’ diet. What are you most concerned about?

a) Increased risk of intracerebral haemorrhage
b) Increased risk of another DVT
c) Bruising easily
d) Cognitive dysfunction
e) Nausea and vomiting

A

b) Increased risk of another DVT

69
Q

What does a 2nd degree perineal tear include?

a) External sphincter skin
b) Internal anal sphincter
c) Internal and external anal sphincter
d) Perineal muscle
e) Perineal skin

A

d) Perineal muscle

70
Q

57 YO male with 25 year Hx of Type II diabetes, presents complaining of burning pain in his foot. What type of pain is it?

a) Inflammatory pain
b) Nociceptive Pain
c) Productive Pain
d) Neuropathic Pain
e) Ouchie Pain

A

d) Neuropathic Pain

71
Q

Gary,a 51 year old man, reports a raised GGT on his most recent liver function test. He readily admits to the GP that he drinks a bottle of red wine each night stating “I enjoy it and it isn’t doing me any harm”. Which stage in the stages of change model is Gary in?

a) Maintenance
b) Contemplation
c) Precontemplation
d) Action
e) Preparation

A

c) Precontemplation

72
Q

What differentiates between delirium and depression?

a) Insomnia
b) Family history of depression
c) Short term memory impairment
d) Poor concentration
e) Fluctuating level of consciousness

A

e) Fluctuating level of consciousness

73
Q

A patient has a pneumococcal infection and consolidation in the right lower lobe.
What is the primary stimulus for vasoconstriction in the right lower lobe?
a) Bronchiolar stretch
b) Hypoxia
c) Inflammatory cytokines
d) Increased pH

A

b) Hypoxia

74
Q

Which of the following contraceptive methods works by mainly suppressing follicular development?

a) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
b) Copper Intrauterine device
c) Implanon (etonogestrel)
d) Progesterone-only pill
e) Mirena IUD

A

a) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

75
Q

In the early stages of atheroslerotic plaque formation, which cell endocytoses LDL?

a) Foam cell
b) Macrophage
c) Smooth muscle cell
d) Endothelial cell
e) T cell

A

b) Macrophage

76
Q

A 17 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea, normal external genitalia, normal uterus, fallopian tubes and streak ovaries. What is the most likely cause?

a) 46XX Anorexia Nervosa
b) 46XX Elite Athlete
c) 46XX Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
d) 46XY Androgen Insensitivity
e) 46XY SRY gene mutation

A

e) 46XY SRY gene mutation

77
Q

A 25 year old male presents stabbing pain in his left knee. It came on acutely while he was sprinting. He has suprapatellar pain and is unable to extend his knee. He has an absent knee jerk reflex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Patella fracture
b) Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur
c) Adductor longus (or brevis) muscle tear
d) Posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur
e) Rupture of the quadriceps tendon

A

e) Rupture of the quadriceps tendon

78
Q

A 30 yr old female has been diagnosed with STI. While discussing about treatment, she asks about contraception. She is a current smoker with 10 pack years and a BMI of 30.
What form of contraception would you recommend to her today?
a) Mirena
b) Progesterone-only oral contraceptive
c) Combined oral contraceptive pill
d) Copper IUD
e) Implanon (etonogestrel)

A

b) Progesterone-only oral contraceptive

79
Q

What cells perform myelination in the CNS?

a) Astrocytes
b) Neuroglia
c) Oligodendrocytes
d) Schwann cells

A

c) Oligodendrocytes

80
Q

A patient presents after right sided cord hemisection at L2 3 months ago. His acute spinal shock has resolved. Which one reflects this injury?

a) Babinski reflex is positive in the right foot
b) Fasciculations of the right calf
c) Loss of pain sensation in the dermatomes of the sole of the right foot
d) Loss of temperature sensation in the left foot
e) Loss of 2 point discrimination in the left shin

A

d) Loss of temperature sensation in the left foot

81
Q

A 3 year old refugee boy’s diet consists of only rice and root vegetables. He is small for his age with bipedal oedema. Which substance is deficient in this boy?

a) Protein
b) Iron
c) Vitamin C
d) Cobalamin
e) Fatty Acids

A

a) Protein

82
Q

A farmer has organophosphate poisoning and presents with symptoms of sweating, bradycardia, and excess salivation. Using your knowledge of autonomic pharmacology, which of these will help reduce his symptoms?

a) Alpha-2 receptor agonist
b) Beta adrenergic antagonist
c) Choline acetyltransferase inhibitor
d) Muscarinic receptor antagonist

A

d) Muscarinic receptor antagonist

83
Q

What position would the eye be in if there was a CNIII palsy?

a) Laterally and downward
b) Laterally and upward
c) Medially and downward
d) Medially and upward
e) Normal

A

a) Laterally and downward

84
Q

Woman who had a postpartum bleed was given 2L of fluid and 300 mLs of whole blood. Three days later she has a follow-up FBC, what is it likely to show?

a) Decreased MCH
b) Decreased MCV
c) Increased haematocrit
d) Increased RDW

A

d) Increased RDW

85
Q

Which of the following is the most common mental health problem found in patients over the age of 65?

a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Delirium
c) Late-onset schizophrenia
d) Mood disorders
e) Vascular dementia

A

d) Mood disorders

86
Q

Where are first-order nociceptive neurons located?

a) Dorsal horn of spinal cord
b) Paravertebral ganglia
c) Spinal ganglia
d) Ventral horn of spinal cord

A

c) Spinal ganglia

87
Q

You are determining the suicide risk of a young emotionally distressed young man. Which of the following is true regarding assessment of suicide risk?

a) asking about suicide can increase the risk
b) you can ask him directly about suicidal thoughts
c) he is unlikely to tell you
d) only need to ask about suicidal thoughts is you think he may be depressed
e) those who have suicidal thought almost never act on them

A

b) you can ask him directly about suicidal thoughts

88
Q

The primary function of the Loop of Henle can be described as

a) Allows for production of concentrated urine
b) Responds to antidiuretic hormone
c) Excretes organic acids
d) Secretes urea and creatinine

A

a) Allows for production of concentrated urine

89
Q

What is seen in NREM sleep as opposed to REM sleep?

a) High voltage, fast EEG, logical, repetitive thoughts with continuous involuntary movements
b) High voltage, slow EEG, logical, repetitive thoughts with continuous involuntary movements
c) High voltage, slow EEG, logical, repetitive thoughts with occasional involuntary movements
d) Low voltage, fast EEG, bizarre, illogical thoughts with occasional involuntary movements
e) Low voltage, slow EEG, bizarre, illogical thoughts with occasional involuntary movements

A

c) High voltage, slow EEG, logical, repetitive thoughts with occasional involuntary movements

90
Q

How do most anti-helminth drugs work?

a)
b) Interferes with worm’s DNA
c) Damages the cell wall to trigger lysis and death
d) something to do with osmotic changes
e) Inhibits muscle contraction leading to worm paralysis and death

A

e) Inhibits muscle contraction leading to worm paralysis and death

91
Q

First line treatment for anxiety disorders?

a. SSRI
b. SNRI
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Atypical antipsychotic

A

SSRI

92
Q

A guy is taking a gap year to work in the day and play video games all night. He is sleepy throughout the day but can’t sleep at night. Which pharmacological agent would be first line treatment in restoring normal sleep patterns?

a. Melatonin which acts on MT1 and MT2 receptors
b. Suvorexant, Orexin receptor agonist
c. benzodiazepine
d. Promethazine
e. First generation antihistamine

A

a. Melatonin which acts on MT1 and MT2 receptors

93
Q

A newborn girl is born missing her distal phalanx on her right fourth and fifth finger and on left third toe. What kind of mutation occured?

a. Malformation
b. Deformation
c. Dysplasia
d. Disruption

A

d. Disruption

94
Q

Some people with a colorectal cancer mutation (APC) on one allele will develop colorectal cancer while others will not. How would you describe this in genetics?

a. Incomplete penetrance
b. Variable expressivity
c. Autosomal recessive

A

a. Incomplete penetrance

95
Q

Man presents with scrotal swelling which seems to gets worse when he stands up for long periods. Soft mass is noticed on examination. Transillumination negative, positive cough test, can’t feel above the swelling. Cause?

a. Varicocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Hernia
d. Early stage cancer
e. Seminoma

A

c. Hernia

96
Q

Guy has an inversion injury of the ankle. X-ray shows no fractures. Tenderness over lateral ankle ligaments. Most common ligament to be injured?

a. Anterior talofibular ligament
b. Calcaneofibular ligament
c. Posterior talofibular ligament
d. Deltoid ligament
e. Tibiofibular ligament

A

a. Anterior talofibular ligament