Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SWA-737 > 2016 PC Guide - Pushback > Flashcards

2016 PC Guide - Pushback Flashcards

1
Q

Inoperative APU

You’re at the gate with an inoperative APU and require a ground air start. Which engine will you start first and why?

A

Engine 1

To minimize hazard to ground crew who do most of their work on the #2 side of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inoperative APU

What is the minimum duct pressure required for the ground air start?

A

CL
- 30 psi allowing for 0.5 psi reduction for every 1000 feet Pressure Altitude

NG
- Not applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inoperative APU

After engine start and prior to push from the gate, what must be accomplished before placing the #1 generator online?

A

Verify with Ground Crew that the tower and nose wheel are aligned prior to placing generator on the buses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inoperative APU

After pushback is complete and the ground crew has departed, you determine a two-engine taxi is appropriate and need to perform a Crossbleed start. What must the crew first do? How much Duct Pressure is required to start?

A

Ensure the area behind the aircraft is safe to perform the crossbreed start.

Advance the thrust lever to obtain a minimum duct pressure of 30 psi (subtract 0.5 psi per 1000 feet above sea lever).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Towbar

After pushback has commenced, do not make ________ or ________ power changes with the towbar connected.

A

Electrical or Hydraulic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Engine Start

You are starting the #2 engine. Before the start lever is raised to IDLE you notice no N1 rotation. What should you do?

A

Accomplish the aborted engine start checklist in the QRC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Start Valve Open

During the Engine Start, the START VALVE OPEN alert comes on and starts flashing. What is the proper procedure to deal with this problem?

A

Perform the QRH “Start Valve Open” check list.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After Start Flow

After starting the first engine (through the rollback) what is the only after start flow item the is allowed prior to Pushback Crew departure?

A

Configure the Air Conditioning panel as appropriate for conditioned air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Single Engine Taxi

You have completed a normal pushback and start of the #2 engine. You elect to single engine taxi. How will you configure the Bleed Air control panel

A 
R Pack - Auto/High
Isolation Valve - Closed
L Pack - Auto/High
L Engine Bleed - OFF
APU Bleed - ON
R Engine Bleed - ON
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Runway Change

After pushback, If the taxi clearance is to a runway different from the runway planned in the FMC, what must be accomplished?

A

Program the correct runway in the FMC, confirm takeoff performance on OPC, and re-accomplish the Pilot Flying Briefing. Conduct the Departure Plan Checklist. This must be done either prior to taxi or coordinate to stop the aircraft prior to takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Engine Shutdown During Taxi

After a two engine start, you decide to single engine taxi. Do the engine idle limitations for Engine Shutdown apply to a shutdown following ramp departure.

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Taxi Thrust

During single and duel engine taxi use caution when exceeding the following recommended thrust values:

_____ % N1 on congested ramps
_____ % N1 on non-congested ramps
_____ % N1 on taxiways

A

35% N1 on congested ramps

40% N1 on non-congested ramps

45% N1 on taxiways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hot Weather Operations

You are planning a two engine taxi in hot weather. What is the recommended configuration for maximum cooling air to the Passengers?

A 
R & L Pack switches - Auto/High
Isolation Valve - Closed
L Engine Bleed - OFF
APU Bleed - ON
R Engine Bleed - ON
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LNAV Armed on the Ground

In an NG, with LNAV armed on the ground, LNAV guidance becomes active at _____ ft AGL.

A

50 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Takeoff Visibility

Southwest Airlines in not authorized for takeoff visibility below _____ RVR unless the Jeppesen -9A page lists HGS _____ RVR.

A

500

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Autothrottles

During takeoff (NG), you slowly advance the thrust levers. By the time you push the TOGA button the aircraft is past 95 its. You expect the thrust levers to advance to the FMC N1 setting, but they do not. What caused the thrust levers to remain where you last set them and how can you manage the situation?

A

Because the aircraft was greater than 84 KIAS when the TOGA button was pressed, the auto throttle engaged in the THR HLD mode. The thrust lever auto throttle servos are inhibited; the pilot must then set the thrust levers manually. The autothrottles will remain in THR HLD mode until 800 ft RA.

17
Q

Braking Action

Takeoff or landing is not authorized if the most current runway friction Mu report includes what value?

A

20 or less on any section of the runway.

18
Q

HGS Takeoff Surface Wind

You’re preparing for an HGS Takeoff at 300 RVR. What is the maximum steady crosswind allowed?

What is the maximum peak gust tailwind?

A

10 kts

10 kts

19
Q

Auto brakes

Above what speed will the auto brakes apply maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle during takeoff roll in the CL?

in the NG?

A

90 kts in both the CL and NG

20
Q

Sliding Window

With the FO as PF and at 100 kts on takeoff roll, the FOs sliding window comes open. Should the takeoff be continued?

If you continue, when should you attempt to close the window?

A

Continue the takeoff. The aircraft is safe to fly. Do not attempt to close the window until atlas 400 ft AGL.

21
Q

Windshear

While waiting to takeoff, ATC issues a Windshear Alert for the departure end of the runway. Can you takeoff?

A

No

Do not takeoff if known windshear exists at the airport.

22
Q

Rejection Considerations

Immediately after passing V1 on the takeoff roll on a long runway, a Master Caution light illuminates. You perceive a large percentage the runway remains in front of you. Is there still time to reject the takeoff?

Why or why not

A

Rejecting the takeoff after V1 is not recommended unless the CA judges the airplane incapable of flight.

If excess runway remains after V1, there is no assurance that the brakes have the capability to stop the airplane before the end of the runway.

Under runway limited conditions, if the rejection procedure is initiated after V1, the aircraft may not be stopped before reaching the end of the runway.

23
Q

VNAV

After a normal takeoff, when can VNAV be selected?

What will it command the AFDS to do?

A

In no case should the VNAV be selected before flap retraction is complete. When VNAV is selected, the AFDS will command immediate acceleration to 250 (default climb speed below 10,000 ft) kts or slower if FMC restriction exists.

24
Q

Wheel Well Fire

Shortly after takeoff the fire bell sounds, and both master FIRE WARN lights and the WHEEL WELL fire lights illuminate.

What does this indicate?

A

The indication indicates that the temperature in the main wheel well has risen to a level that the single fire detector loop senses a fire.

25
Q

Wheel Well Fire

Could hot brakes alone cause a Wheel Well Fire indication.

A

Boeing engineering analysis indicates that the brakes alone cannot generate enough heat to activate the fire detector system.

26
Q

Wheel Well Fire

What fire protection is available in the wheel well.

A

None.

27
Q

TCAS RA

During climb out on a clear day, you encounter a TCAS RA as a result of an approaching aircraft that you observe. You assess the aircraft is “not a factor” and decide to disregard the TCAS guidance. No deviation from ATC clearance is required.

Is this the correct procedure?

A

NO, this is not correct.

Flight crews must immediately respond to TCAS information.

28
Q

TCAS RA

During climb out on a clear day, you encounter a TCAS RA as a result of an approaching aircraft that you observe. You assess the aircraft is “not a factor” and decide to disregard the TCAS guidance. No deviation from ATC clearance is required.

If you only notify ATC of this occurrence, are your reporting requirements met?

A

NO.

A TCAS RA requires immediate notification of Dispatch as described in FOM Chapter 22. The Captain will contact Dispatch as soon as practical via the most expeditious means available.

29
Q

TCAS RA

What is the proper response to a TCAS RA

A
  • Disengage the autopilot.
  • Disengage the auto throttle
  • Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy RA command.
  • Follow the planned lateral path unless contact with the conflicting aircraft requires other action.
30
Q

AFDS

While climbing out, you elect to use Vertical Speed mode. What will you expect from the AFDS (Autoflight/Flight Director System)?

A

The AFDS will pitch to control the vertical speed as desired. If the selected climb rate is too low, the auto throttle will reduce engine thrust resulting in a less efficient climb. If the selected climb rate is too high, the auto throttle will advance the engine to the N1 limit. The airspeed may start to decay, also resulting in a less efficient climb or unsafe speed.

SWA-737 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions