Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK Exams > 2016 module exam > Flashcards

2016 module exam Flashcards

anatomy (1-18) clinical skills (19-24) Biochemistry (25-28) Pathology (29-37) Physiology (38-44) Micro (45-56) Pharma (57-58) Radiology/Nuclear medicine (59-60) clinical (61)

1
Q 
compression injury to ventral rami of C6 will to lead to sensory deficit of which area:
A) axillary region
B) medial side of the arm
C) lateral side of the arm
D) medial side of forearm
E) Lateral side of forearm
A

E) Lateral side of forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a man had an car accident and he had a fracture / injury in the arch of foot near cuboid bone. Which of the following is likely to be affected?

a) flexor hallucis longus
b) fibularis brevis
c) fibularis longus
d) tibialis anterior
e) tibialis posterior

A

b) fibularis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Fracture to which part of the humerus damages the radial nerve?
A. Head of humerus
B. Anatomical neck
C. Surgical neck
D. Medial epicondyle
E. Lateral epicondyle
F. Capitulum
G. Shaft
A

G. Shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Fracture to which part of the humerus damages the ulnar nerve?
A. Head of humerus
B. Anatomical neck
C. Surgical neck
D. Medial epicondyle
E. Lateral epicondyle
F. Capitulum
G. Shaft
A

D. Medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
A 50-year-old male had an intervertebral prolapse and loss sensation of lateral leg, dorsal aspect of foot and big toe
A) L3
B) L4
C) L5
D) S1
E) S2
A

C) L 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which anatomical structure is commonly used to identify the correct knee aspiration entry point?
A- Medial menisci.
B- Quadriceps tendon.
C- Patellar tendon.
D- Popliteal tendon.
E- Lateral menisci.
A

C- Patellar tendon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Which part of the femur develops from primary ossification center?
A. Head 
B. Shaft
C. Medial condyle 
D. Lateral condyle
A

B. Shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
36-year-old male present with a laceration in 1st web space, which structure is affected?
a- radial artery
b- deep radial nerve
c- median nerve
d- ulnar nerve
A

a- radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
What muscle contracts in the weight-bearing limb to medially rotate the hip during walking?
A. adductor magnus 
B. tensor facia lata
C. obturator internus 
D. piriformis
E. gluteus minimus
A

E. gluteus minimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Erb’s palsy occurs as a result of damage to which structure?

a. Superior trunk of brachial plexus
b. Inferior trunk of brachial plexus

A

a. Superior trunk of brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Radiograph showed injury of facet joint between L3-L4, which part of L4 spinal nerve will be compressed?
A-Posterior cord
B-Anterior cord
C-Ventral rami
D-Trunk
E-Recurrent
A

D-Trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Failure of fusion of vertebral arches leads to

a. Spina bifida
b. Scoliosis
c. Erb’s palsy

A

a. Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Failure of one half of the vertebra to develop leads to

a. Spina bifida
b. Scoliosis
c. Erb’s palsy

A

b. Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient with lumbar and thoracic compression fractures and kyphosis, what would have a high radiodensity in the x-ray?
A- cortical rim
B- spinous process
C- transverse process

A

A- cortical rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Surgical incision to relieve pressure on the spinal cord 
A- Transverse process
B- Lamina
C- IVD
D- Articular process
E- Pars interarticularis
A

B- Lamina

they remove it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
What's horizontal on the cervical vertebra?
A- Transverse process
B- Lamina
C- IVD
D- Articular process
E- Pars interarticularis
A

A- Transverse process

or D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Damage to the longitudinal thoracic nerve effects which muscle?

a. latissimus dorsi
b. rhomboid minor
c. rhomboid major
d. serratus anterior

A

d. serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
What muscle is used to manually screw into a tree? 
A- Biceps brachi
B- Triceps
C- Hamstrings
D- Quadriceps
A

A- Biceps brachi

question basically means what is used for supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Which degree of arc motion is painful during impingement syndrome?
A-30-60
B-60-120
C-80-130
D-90-140
E- >90
A

B-60-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why we should urgently treat a compound fracture?

A

Prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What's the most appropriate clinical test for lateral collateral ligament complete tear?
A- ballottement test
B- Anterior drawer test
C- Valgus test
D- McCurry test
E- Extension lag test
F- Active and passive motion test
G- Varus Test
A

G- Varus Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
What's the most appropriate clinical test for effusion and tenderness in knee?
A- ballottement test
B- Anterior drawer test
C- Valgus test
D- McCurry test
E- Extension lag test
F- Active and passive motion test
G- Varus Test
A

A- ballottement test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
What's the most appropriate clinical test for quadriceps tendon?
A- ballottement test
B- Anterior drawer test
C- Valgus test
D- McCurry test
E- Extension lag test
F- Active and passive motion test
G- Varus Test
A

E- Extension lag test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
What is the most obvious upon inspection?
A. 10-degree kyphosis 
B. Vertebral Fracture 
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Thoracolumbar scoliosis
A

D. Thoracolumbar scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is the first step in collagen fibril formation?
A) procollagen triple helix formation
B) secretion if procollagen into ECM
C) cleavage of n and c terminus of procollagen
D) hydroxylation of proline residues

A

D) hydroxylation of proline residues

26
Q

Why does copper deficiency result in defective collagen formation?
A. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase
B. Reduced activity of prolyl hydroxylase
C. Cleavage of procollagen C and N terminal
D. Reduced glycosylation of lysine

A

A. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase

27
Q

Which is a contributing factor to osteoarthritis?
A. Reduced TIMPs
B. Reduced MMPs
C. Reduced ADAMTs

A

A. Reduced TIMPs

Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases are endogenous inhibitors of these metalloproteinases

28
Q 
In a family, the father has mitochondrial myopathy and the mother is normal and healthy, what is the chance that their sons will be affected?
A. 0% 
B. 25% 
C. 100% 
D. 50%
A

A. 0%

29
Q

Which can lead to enthesitis?

a. SLE
b. OA
c. infective arthritis
d. scleroderma
e. psoriatic arthritis

A

e. Psoriatic arthritis

30
Q

Whats a characteristic of woven bone?
A- Regular collagen fibers
B- Irregular collagen fibers

A

B- Irregular collagen fibers

31
Q 
Method of choice for diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis
A. MRI
B. Fluoroscopy
C. CT
D. Nuclear imaging
E. Ultrasound
A

A. MRI

32
Q

28 y/o female w/ known autoimmune disease complains of sore throat & knee pain. BVs show fibrosis & thickening. What is the underlying condition?

a. SLE
b. OA
c. infective arthritis
d. scleroderma
e. psoriatic arthritis

A

d. scleroderma

33
Q 
A 30-year-old female presented with malar rash, myalgia, arthritis for 2 years. Which of the following mechanisms are associated with her condition?
A) infection
B) cytotoxic ab
C) anti glomerular basement membrane ab
D) immune complex formation
A

D) immune complex formation

34
Q

A 45-year-old presented with retroperitoneal mass, diagnosed with liposarcoma. what is the histopathology of the lipoblasts?

a) small round cells
b) vacuolated cytoplasm, atypical nucleus
c) vacuolated cytoplasm, scalloped nucleus
d) spindle shaped with polymorphic nucleus

A

c) vacuolated cytoplasm, scalloped nucleus

35
Q

which condition shows ‘sun burst’ on a plain x-ray?

a. fibrous dysplasia
b. multiple myeloma
c. osteochondroma
d. osteosarcoma
e. synovial sarcoma

A

d. osteosarcoma

36
Q 
which cell causes damage to the basement membrane of the kidney in a patient with SLE?
A- PMN
B- macrophage
C- T cell
D- perforin
A

A- PMN

37
Q

A female with SLE and taking steroids for 6 months presented with knee pain with no past medical history or injury. What’s most likely?

a) Idiopathic
b) Knee osteoarthritis
c) Gout osteoarthritis
d) Referred pain from hip
e) Missed traumatic injury

A

d) Referred pain from hip

38
Q

30 obese, hypertensive, alcohol consumer man, had a pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP), with swelling, what is the condition?
A- osteoarthritis
B- rheumatoid arthritis
C- gout attack

A

C- gout attack

39
Q

which mechanism ensures unidirectional propagation of action potential?

a) temporary inactivation of Na/K ATPase pump
b) simultaneous closure of activation and inactivation gates of Na channels
c) depolarization after action potential passed the axon segment
d) hyperpolarization during refractory period

A

d) hyperpolarization during refractory period

40
Q

What takes ca+ from the cytoplasm to the SR?

a. RYR
b. Serca

A

b. Serca

41
Q

What’s the next step after ATP is bound to myosin?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form

A

C-Myosin head is released from actin filament

42
Q

What’s the next step after ATP is hydrolyzed?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form

A

E- Myosin back to high energy form

43
Q

Whats the next step after myosin has completed power stroke?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form

A

B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis

(not 100% sure. 2015 exam says “ATP binds to myosin head”)

44
Q

After tubocurarine administration, what will happen?

A

Postsynaptic potentials are inhibited, even in the presence of acetylcholine

45
Q 
Most likely microorganism for septic arthritis of prosthetic joint?
A-staph epidermidis
B-clostridium perfringens
C-hemophilus
D-pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

A-staph epidermidis

46
Q 
Neutropenic patient with septate hyphae with narrow angles. Which organism caused this?
A- aspergillosis 
B- mucormycoses
C- hemophilus
D- pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

A- aspergillosis

non-septate hyphae branched at right angles: Mucor Septate hyphae branched at acute angles: Aspergillus

47
Q

Male kidney transplant recipient living in Chicago developed systemic disease with cutaneous and bone lesions, and on culture there was broad-based budding. what is the pathogen?
A- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B- Blastomycosis
C- Hemophilus influenzae

A

B- Blastomycosis

48
Q

2 yr old boy with acute pain, swelling, and tenderness on left thigh. Which organism is most likely to cause this?
A- Hemophilus influenzae
B- Hemophilus
C- Blastomycosis

A

A- Hemophilus influenzae

49
Q

Test diagnostic for SLE?

A

98% of all people with systemic lupus have a positive ANA test, making it the most sensitive diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis of the disease.

50
Q 
What inflammatory cytokine secreted by T cells that causes damage in rheumatoid arthritis? 
A. Anti-nuclear antibody 
B. TNF alpha
C. TNF gamma 
D. Il-2
E. Il-4 
F. IFN-Y
A

F. IFN-Y

51
Q 
What inflammatory cytokine secreted by macrophages that causes damage in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Anti-nuclear antibody 
B. TNF alpha
C. TNF gamma 
D. Il-2
E. Il-4 
F. IFN-Y
A

B. TNF alpha

52
Q

A 23-year-old salesman with purulent urethral discharge and septic arthritis is likely to be affected by which of these pathogens?

A

N. Gonorrhea

53
Q

A 20-year-old female with Sickle cell disease and bronchial asthma on corticosteroids with right hip pain.

A

?

sickle cells may lead to osteonecrosis, and a common site is the femoral head

54
Q

A 40 years old drug addict complains of fever and right knee swelling and knee pain while walking due to severe pain. Which is more likely?

a) septic arthritis
b) fracture
c) OA
d) RA
e) joint dislocation
f) gout attack

A

a) septic arthritis

55
Q 
an 18-year-old girl presented with fever, malaise, fatigue, arthritis and maculo-papular rash with lacy appearance. The maculo-papular rash has a "slap like" appearance on the face.
A- influenza
B- dengue virus
C- Rubella
D- fifth disease
E- hand, mouth and feet disease
F- Hepatitis B
A

D- fifth disease

56
Q 
A 20-year-old female presented with pain, lymph node swelling, macula-papular rash and arthritis, she has not completed her vaccine schedule, what is the causative organism?
A- influenza
B- dengue virus
C- Rubella
D- fifth disease
E- hand, mouth and feet disease
F- Hepatitis B
A

C- Rubella

57
Q

What is the mechanism of methotrexate?
A) Metabolized to mercaptopurine which inhibits DNA
B) Inhibits IL2
C) Inhibits JAK
D) Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

A

D) Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

58
Q 
Which of the following is affected by aspirin?
A) Allopurinol
B) Prednisone 
C) Probenecid
D) Celecoxib 
E) Paracetamol
A

C) Probenecid

59
Q

All 3 phases of bone scan are positive in bone scan in distal femur
A- Osteomyelitis
B- Cellulitis

A

A- Osteomyelitis

60
Q 
Which imaging modality is the best to see ACL and MCL?
A. MRI
B. Fluoroscopy
C. CT
D. Nuclear imaging
E. Ultrasound
A

A. MRI

61
Q 
40-year-old male has difficulty with walking for 4 months. Recently he feels tightness in the thigh radiating to his foot when walking for more than 1 km after that he is forced to rest for 5 min*(should be 10-15min). He fell on his back 9 months ago at work. No history of smoking, night pain, or rest pain and no constitutional symptoms. On examination, neurological test was good, but had reduced spinal function on extension. What is the diagnosis?
A) bone metastatic tumor
B) intermittent claudication
C) osteoarthritis
D) spinal cord stenosis
E) fracture of vertebra
A

D) spinal cord stenosis

62
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis, HLA is a significant risk factor along with what?
A. smoking
B. familial
C. female

A

A. smoking

MSK Exams (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions