Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

UWorld > 2015.04.01 > Flashcards

2015.04.01 Flashcards

1
Q

Phenycylidine (PCP) abuse

A

Most likely to induce violent behavior

Fatalities associated with trauma

Loss of coordination, nystagmus, acute brain syndrome (disorientation, poor judgment and memory loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cocaine intoxication

A

Myocardial infarction due to sympathomimetic effects that lead to increased myocardial oxygen demand

Ischemic stroke and intracranial hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the process of administrating antitoxin called?

A

Passive immunization - transfer of pre-existing, neutralizing antibodies

Used for treating Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Major flexors of the hip

A

Iliacus and psoas muscles (12th thoracic - 5th lumbar transverse process to the hip joint capusle to insert into the lesser trochanter of the femur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Psoas sign

A

Inflammation of the psoas muscle causes pain when the hip is extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differentiate schizoaffective disorder from major depressive or bipolar disorder with psychotic features

A

Schizoaffective disorder - hallucinations exist even WITHOUT mood symptoms; but mood symptoms are present for most of illness

Bipolar Disorder with psychotic features - psychotic symptoms ONLY present WITH mood symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does C1 esterase inhibitor inhibit?

A

Kallikrien (which activates conversion of kininogen to bradykinin → angioedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of Angioedema

A

Acquired - ACE Inhibitors when low C1 esterase inhibitor levels

Hereditary - autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is common cause of Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

A

(common dysrhythmia that frequently occurs in patients with no other heart disease)

Due to re-entrant circuit in AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are treatments for Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Adenosine

Vagal maneuvers - carotid sinus massage and Valsalva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do you see basement membrane splitting?

A

Alport syndrome - nephritis; deafness and ocular manifestations

Membranoproliferative glmoerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1 - granular deposits in IF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a3 chain of type IV collagen antibodies

A

Goodpasture syndrome Anti-GBM antibodies

Cause pulmonary hemorrhages and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IgM and C3 deposits on sclerotic areas of glomeruli in IF

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (GSGS) IF changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome

A

Marked proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Linear deposits of IgG and C3 vs. Granular deposits of IgG and C3 along glomerular basement membrane

A

Goodpasture syndrome vs. Membranous glomerulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Uniform, diffuse capillary wall thickening with granular deposits of IgG and C3 along glomerular basement membrane

A

Membranous Glomerulopathy changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Recurrent epistaxis, echhymoses, and marked thrombocytopenia with no other symptoms or abnormal lab values

A

Isolated acquired thrombocytopenia - such as immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does gluconeogenesis become principle source of blood glucose?

A

12 to 18 hours of fasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pyruvate to oxaloacetate

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate

A

Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Initial committed step of gluconeogenesis

A

Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, and oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is Broca’s area?

A

Inferior frontal gyrus of dominant hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Primary motor cortex location

A

precentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Primary somatosensory cortex location

A

postcentral gyrus

lesion here would cause sensation loss on contralateral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Secondary lactase deficiency
Due to gastroenteritis - damaged cells (which normally contain concetrated lactase) is sloughed off and replaced by immature cells (low lactase)
26
Giardia lamblia forms/stages
1) trophozoite (pathogenic stage) - pear-shaped, multiple flagella, and 2 nuclei (owl's eye appearance) 2) cyst (infective stage) - oval, 4 nuclei
27
Major immune mechanisms against Giardia
Secretory IgA production (deficiency impairs adherence and predisposes the patient) CD4+ T helper cells
28
Tetrodotoxin
Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels in nerve cell membranes
29
Verapamil
Blocks L-type calcium channels, thus inhibits passive transport of calcium ions in cardiomyocytes
30
Lidocaine
Local anesthetic and class 1B antiarrhytmic agent BLocks voltage-gated sodium channels in sensory neurons, Purkinje fibers, and ventricular cells
31
Dofetilide
Class III antiarrhytmic drug that blocks passive transport of potassium, specifically the delayed outward rectifier potassium current. Leads to prolongation of refractory period and QT interval
32
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
autosomal recessive with absence of biliary transport protein, MRP2, used in hepatoceulluar excretion of bilirubin glucuroindes into bile canaliculi. Liver is darkly pigmented, but typically asymptommatic
33
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
autosomal recessive disorder of bilirubin metabolism, caused by genetic lack of UGD enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation
34
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Crigler-Najjar syndrome; can develop kernicterus (neural symptoms due to high unconjugated bile)
35
Amitriptyline
Tricyclic antidepressants block muscarinic receptors (mimic atropine toxicity)
36
Carbamazepine
Anticonvulsant for seizure disorders, trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder. Toxic effects: stupor, coma, increased seizure risk
37
Prazosin
a1-adrenergic blocker used to treat hypertension and urinary retention due to benign prostatic hypertrophy
38
Adverse effects of nonselective B-adrenergic blockers
bronchial constriction, bradyarrhythmias, CNS depression, worsening of Raynaud phenomeon and masked symptoms of hypoglycemia in diabetics
39
How does Huntington disease alter gene expression?
CAG trinucleotide repeats in the gene that codes for huntingtin protein causes increased histone deacetylation and silences genes necessary for neuronal survival (histone acetylation is needed to weaken DNA-histone bond to allow access for TF and RNA polymerases)
40
Flumazenil
Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used in benzodiazepine reversal and intoxication
41
Micturition reflex regulation centers
1) Sacral micturition center - S2-S4 level parasympathetic fibers from ventral white matter within pelvic nerves stimulate cholinergic receptors in bladder wall 2) Pontine micturition center - pontine reticular formation; relaxes external urethral sphincter 3) Cerebral cortex - inhibits sacral micturition center
42
Treatment of acute symptoms of thryotoxicosis
Beta-adrenergic antagonists relieve symptoms related to sympathetic nervous system (tachycardia, hypertension, tremor); can't resolve exophtalamos (increased soft tissue mass within bony orbit)
43
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
oxidase +, non-lactose fermenting, gram -
44
Escherichia coli
lactose-fermenting, gram- rod
45
Increased Citrate concentration
helps prevent calculi formation by binding to free (ionized) calcium
46
Viruses with segmented genomes are capable of genetic shifts through reassortment
Orthomyxoviruses and rotaviruses
47
Insuline-like growth factor (IGF-1)
made from the liver; stimulated by growth hormone from anterior pituitary to promote bone, cartilage, and soft tissue growth
48
Gigantism
condition characterized by rapid linear growth due to hypersecretion of GH BEFORE fusion of epiphyseal growth plates
49
Methylxanthines (ie. Theophylline) intoxication
Abdominal pain, vomiting, seizures (major cause of mortality); tacharrhythmias (do not cause QT prolongation though)
50
Pilocytic astrocytomas vs. Medulloblastomas vs. Ependymomas
All are common childhood brain tumors. Pilocytic has cystic and solid components. Pilocytic astrocytes and Rosenthal fibers are seen. Good prognosis. Medulloblastomas are always solid. Most common malignant. Ependymomas obstruct flow of CSF - hydrocephalus; see "rosettes" (tumor cells from gland-like structures)
51
Restless leg syndrome treatment
Dopamine agonists (ropinirole, prampipexole)
52
Hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP, PPP) nonoxidative/reversible reactions
Carried out by transketolase and transaldolase
53
Benzodiazepine indications
hypnotics, anxiolytics, anticonvulsants, general anesthetics main side effect = daytime drowsiness
54
Short acting Benzodiazepines (\<10 hours)
Alprazolam Triazolam Oxazepam (Rapid elimination, less side effects; but severe withdrawal)
55
Medium acting Benzodiazepines
Estazolam Lorazepam Temazepam
56
Long acting Benzodiazepines
Chlordiazepoxide Clorazepate Diazepam Flurazepam (Long action, severe daytime drowsiness; less withdrawl since slower clearance)
57
Inhibitory cytokines
TGF-B (suppresses all inflammatory cells) IL-10 (inhibits Th1 - cell-mediated; enhances Th2 - humoral-mediated immunity)
58
Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)
age-related decrease in compliance (increased stiffness) of the aorta and its proximal branches
59
Difficulty swalling (dysphagia) and disfigured fingernails (spoon nails or koilonychia)
Iron deficiency anemia (microcytic, hypochromic)
60
Panic attacks
hyperventilation and decreased pCO2; hypocapnia causes cerebral vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow
61
Cherry hemangiomas
small, bright-red, papular lesions - most common benign vascular tumor in adults do not regress proliferation of capillaries and post-capillary venules in the papillary dermis
62
Cavernous hemangiomas
dilated vascular spaces with thin-walled endothelial cells; soft blue in skin, mucosa, deep tissues and visera associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease
63
Phenytoin Carbamazepine Valproic acid
inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing ability of sodium channels to recover from inactivation
64
Ethosuximide
block T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, causing hyperpolarization treatment of absence seizures
65
Valproic Acid
Blocks NMDA receptors and affect potassium current; also sodium channels and GABA receptors
66
Celiac disease small intestion biopsy
severe atrophy and blunting of the villi; chronic inflammatory infiltrate of the lamina propria
67
Small bowel obstruction
Bilious vomiting, abdominal distention, air fluid levels, and small bowel distention
68
Meconium ileus
distal small bowel obstruction in a neonate due to abnormally dehydrated meconium; associated with cystic fibrosis Pneumonias, bronchiectasis, bronchitic obstructive pulmonary disease, associated cor pulmonale lead to eventual death in CF patients
69
First pharyngeal (branchial) arch
CN V Neural crest cells: Maxilla, zygoma, mandible, vomer, palatine, incus, and malleuls Mesodermal derivatives: muscles of mastication, anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini
70
Second pharyngeal (branchial) arch
CN VII Neural crest derivatives: styloid process, lesser horn of the hyoid, stapes Mesodermal derivatives: muscles of facial expression, stylohyoid, stapedius, posterior belly of digastric
71
Catilaginous structures of the larynx embryological origin
Fourth and sixth branchial arch

UWorld (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions