2014 Flashcards

1
Q

why does obesity increase risk of clots

A

promotes a state of chronic inflammation that activates prothrombotic signaling pathways in platelets and other vascular cells

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2
Q

what is virchow’s triad

A
Virchow's triad = factors that contribute to thrombosiss.
hypercoaguability
haemodynamic changes (stasis, turbulence)
endothelial damage
injury/dysfunction
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3
Q

why is pregnancy a risk of VTE

A

Pregnancy is a state hypercoagulability - alterations of coagulation proteins + increased resistance to the antithrombotic factors (protein C and S)
also venous stasis

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4
Q

4 methods of thromboprophylaxis

A

mechanical - anti-embolism stockings or intermittent pneumatic compression

pharmacological - LMWH, NOAC

early mobilisation if possible?

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5
Q

what is included in the TWO LEVEL wells score

two level is the one talked about on NICE

A

active Ca
paralsysis, paresis or recent immooboilsitaion
recently bed ridde
majory surgery within 12 weeks
localised tenderness along deep veous system
entire leg swollen
calf sweeling >3cm than other side
pitting oedema only in symptomatic leg
collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)
previous DVT

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6
Q

what to do with Wells score

A

> =2 -> proximal leg USS within 4 h. if -ve -> d dimer

OR

d dimer and intermim 24 hr dose of parenteral anticoag if proximal USS not carried out within 4 hr. then do USS within 24 h

if <2 -> d dimer. if positive go to above

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7
Q

when to follow up the proximal leg vein USS if positive D dimer but -ve proximal elg vein USS

A

6-8 days

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8
Q

score for PE vs DVT

A

PE 2 level PE wells score

DVT 2 level Wells score

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9
Q

what is in the 2 levfel PE Welss score

A
clinical features of DVT
alternative diagnosis less likely than PE
hr >100
immobilisation for >3 days
surgery in previous 4 wk
hx VTE
haemoptysis
malignancy
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10
Q

what to do with PE score

A

> 4 = immediate CTPA or immediate interim parenteral anticoag followed by CTPA if it cannot be carried out immediately

if =<4 -> d dimer. if positive go to above

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11
Q

4 things to measure before prescribing LMWH

A

U+E + eGFR
weight
fbc - for platelets??
idk what last thing? clotting?

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12
Q

MOA of DOACs

A

reversible direct inhibitor of factor Xa

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13
Q

2 genetic mutations in Down’s

A

Robertsonian translocation (2-4%) - long arm of chromosome 21 is attached to another chromosome, often chromosome 14.

trisomy 21

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14
Q

GI malformations in Down’s

A
  • duodenal atresia
  • imperforate anus
  • tracheoesophageal fistula (think if bubbling up milk feeds, frequent choking)
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15
Q

what does ABCDE stand for

A
asymmetry
border irregularity
colour
diameter >6
evolving shape, colour, size
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16
Q

risk factors malignant melanoma

A
sun/UV exposure
dysplastic naevi (atypical moles)
lentigo maligna
fhx
hx
immunosuppressed
skin type 1
17
Q

what skin cancer does phototherpay for psoriasis put you at risk of

A

BCC

18
Q

risk factors for vid d deficiency

A

insufficient sunlight
malabsorption e.g. coeliac, IBD
CKD

19
Q

describe vitamin d metabolism

A

light  skin  vitamin d3  liver  25 hydroxyvitamin d  kidneys  1, 25 DIhydroxyvitamin D  kidneys

 = –>
obviously 1,25 DI - remember chemistry. if there are to OH attached it becomes di

20
Q

effect of vitamin D on bone

A

INDIRECT
-increase Ca intestinal absorption, slight increase in kidney resorption –> more Ca deposited in bone because increase Ca in blood

also moves Ca out of bone by increasing number of osteoclasts (but this is less obvious)

21
Q

why does vit d deficiency cause undermineralisation

A

normal mineralisation depends on availability of ca an phos
vitamin d is essential for normal absorption of ca from the gut

insufficiency of either ca or vit D can lead to prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism

22
Q

risk factors for gout

A
male
thiazides
CKD
obesity
psoriasis
diabetes
HF
high alcohol consumption
chemo
CHD
HTN
23
Q

gout triggers

A

stress

illness

24
Q

why does gout affecft distal joints

A

lower temperature
lower pH
subject to more trauma

uric acid crystalises more easily due to the above

25
Q

MOA allopurinol

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

26
Q

how does allopurinol reduce number of gout attacks

A

inhibits oxidase of xanthine to uric acid in purine metabolism

27
Q

colchicine mode of action

A

anit-mitotic drugs that modules pro and anti inflammatory pathways

28
Q

bladder Ca risk factors

A
AGE IS THE MAIN ONE
male
smoking
azo dyes
pelvic radiation
29
Q

vitamin a deficiency

A

night blindness

increase susceptibility to infection

30
Q

increase risk of what malignancy in coeliac disease?

A

hodgkin’s and non hodgkin’s

small bowel

31
Q

diagnostic test of malaria

A

gold standard: thick and thin blood smears stained with Giemsa stain

Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) detect parasite antigens. dipstick. cheaper, less training needed

32
Q

drug to treat malaria

A

depends not only on the severity of the disease but also the strain of Plasmodium involved and the degree of resistance that it exhibits

33
Q

3 things to test before lithium

A

TFT
U+E
parathyroid
pregnancy

34
Q

lithium neuro

A
coarse tremor
confusion
fasciculations
chorea
hypotonia
ataxia

FAHCCC!!!

35
Q

what type of tumour is pancoast tumour

A

apical non-small cell lung Ca

36
Q

3 things in horner’s

A
  • meiosis - pupil constriction
  • anhidrosis
  • ptosis

ptosis is milder compared to oculomotor (CN III) palsy which supplies a different muscle

37
Q

symptoms of bulbar palsy

A
dysphagia 
dysarthria
dysphonia
difficulty chewing
nasal regurgitation.
difficulty in handling secretions.
aspiration of liquids.