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peds dent boards > 2014 > Flashcards

2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Neurotoxicity agent of the jaw that causes jaw pain in patient?

a. Vincristine
b. Methotrexate

A

a. Vincristine - leukemia med

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2
Q

When missing primary maxillary incisors which sound is a problem?

a. S
b. B
c. K
d. M

A

a. S

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3
Q

How to treat apthous ulcers

a. Fluocinonide
b. Fluconazole
c. Acyclovir

A

a. Fluocinonide

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4
Q

Which has classic signs of primary immunodeficiency

A

a. digeorge syndrome

defect in chromosome 22, The syndrome can cause heart defects, poor immune system function, a cleft palate, and low levels of calcium in the blood.

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5
Q

which includes both facial plane and cranial base?

A

Nasion

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6
Q

What increases retention most

a. 4 handed technique
b. self etching bond
c. enameloplasty
d. air abrasion

A

c. enameloplasty

There are some studies supporting it. No literature found on other choices

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7
Q

What percent vegetable should be on My Plate?

a. 30%
b. 50%

A

a. 30%

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8
Q

True positive?

a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity

A

a. Sensitivity

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9
Q

Pregnant female best method for reducing transmission of caries?

A

Xylitol

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10
Q

Which probiotic can help prevent caries

a. actinobacillus
b. lactobacillus acidophillus
c. actinomyces

A

b. lactobacillus acidophillus

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11
Q

Most common post complication of ped dental general anesthesia

a. fever
b. nausea

A

b. nausea - for prophylaxis of nausea and vomiting, as during surgery and the postoperative period, the average dose is 25mg phenergan (promethazine) repeated at 4-6hr intervals, as necessary

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12
Q

Most common crown fracture in primary dentition?

a. Enamel only
b. Enamel and dentin without pulp exposure
c. Enamel and dentin with pulp exposure
d. Root fracture

A

b. Enamel and dentin without pulp exposure

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13
Q

Adult bite mark intercanine distance?

A

3.0cm

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14
Q

Fear of separation peaks at what age?

A

13 to 18 months

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15
Q

Active listening of dentist?

A

Mirroring emotions of child back

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16
Q

What do you do for toxic dose of fluoride

a. Milk
b. IPECAC syrup

A

a. Milk

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17
Q

what does secondary smoke affect in children

a. immune system
b. lungs
c. liver

A

b. lungs

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18
Q

What is the factor missing in hemophilia B

A

IX factor 9

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19
Q

Post op sensitivity in CEREC system?

a. Margin discontinuity
b. Decrease in adhesive bond
c. Occlusal interferences

A

a. Margin discontinuity

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20
Q

In statistical analysis, what is correlation between two groups?

a. Statistical difference
b. Direction of relationship
c. Nature of association
d. Something association

A

By Definition, Correlation is a single number that describes the degree of relationship between two variables. Not sure
what d was. But, c may be the answer

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21
Q

Pulp comes from?

A

Dental papilla

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22
Q

least cariogenic

a. breast milk
b. regular milk

A

a. breast milk

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23
Q

Mixed dentition analysis that is gender specific uses mand permanent incisors to predict space for cuspids and premolars

c. Moyers
b. Tanaka Johnson
c. Hixon oldefather

A

c. Moyers

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24
Q

Which dimension changes the least?

a. Width
b. Depth
c. Height

A

a. Width

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25
Q

Most predictive of necrosis in permanent crown fracture

a. concomitant luxation injury
b. size of pulp exposure
c. time of pulp exposure

A

a. concomitant luxation injury

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26
Q

Which is more successful in primary teeth

a. DPC
b. Pulpotomy
c. IPT

A

c. IPT 90-95% success rate

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27
Q

Sturge weber is a malformation of what

a. Venous
b. Arterial
c. Capillary
d. Lymphatic

A

a. Venous

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28
Q

Herpes simplex virus can cause

a. Erythema multiforme
b. Steven Johnson

A

a. Erythema multiforme

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29
Q

Which is a risk factor for adolescent CRA

A

Previous caries

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30
Q

Most common malignancy in first year of life

a. rhabdomyosarcoma
b. neuroblastoma

A

b. neuroblastoma - both of these are embryomal cancers, neuroblastoma develops from certain types of very primitive nerve cells in the embryo and is the most common cancer diagnosed during the first year of life

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31
Q

what does 1.23% APF do to ceramic veneers

a. changes color
b. changes surface topography

A

b. changes surface topography

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32
Q

What do you see in DD Type I?

A

Short roots

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33
Q

MTA

a. Non-resorbable
b. Low compressive strength
c. Hydrophobic

A

a. Non-resorbable

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34
Q

Nasomaxillary complex?

a. Intramembranous
b. Endochondral
c. Cartilaginous

A

a. Intramembranous

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35
Q

what is a risk factor for kids developing caries

a. stagnant biofilm
b. caries

A

a. stagnant biofilm

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36
Q

Which antibiotic along with amoxicillin to treat local aggressive periodontitis

A

Metronidazole

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37
Q

What does amorphous calcium do?

A

Stabilizes levels of calcium and phosphates

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38
Q

What does BPA cause ·

a. Estrogen activity
b. Neurotoxicity
c. Growth retardation

A

a. Estrogen activity

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39
Q

What is common sequela of extrusion?

A

PCO

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40
Q

Most common cause of cardiac arrest in a child

a. anaphylaxis
b. airway obstruction / asphyxia
c. chest trauma
d. drug overdose

A

b. airway obstruction / asphyxia (insufficient oxygen)

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41
Q 
Sucking thumb - what is the most important for causing malocclusion in
early dentition?
a. Age of cessation
b. Intensity
c. Which digit
d. Pacifier
A

a. Age of cessation

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42
Q

Which NSAID inhibits anti-platelet function of aspirin

a. ibuprofen
b. naproxen
c. tomelin
d. ketorolac

A

b. naproxen

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43
Q

Floating teeth expansile lesion of maxillary anterior

A

Neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
- rare, aggressive tumor of neural crest origin
- site: anterior maxilla
- s/s: rapidly expanding, destructive bony lesion; surface may be blue in color
- lab: increase urinary levels of vaillymadelic acid
- x-ray: Ill-defined radiolucency; displaced toothbuds; floating appearance
- tx : wide excision
- prognosis: 20% recur; rare metastasis
mimics malignant disease, central hemangioma

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44
Q

Whats the current BLS

A

Chest compression, airway, breathing (CAB)

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45
Q

Joint crepitus?

a. Disc derangement
b. Osteoarthitis

A

b. Osteoarthitis

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46
Q

Premature loss of primary of primary teeth

a. Histiocytosis
b. Down syndrome
c. Carpenter

A

a. Histiocytosis

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47
Q

Initial hemostasis

a. Activation of platelet
b. Factor Vlll activation
c. Fibrin activation
d. Thrombin activation

A

a. Activation of platelet

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48
Q

What medication causes bruxism and xerostomia?

a. Clonidine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Adderall

A

a. Clonidine (anti-hypertensive)
b. Methylphenidate (stimulant for ADHD)
c. Adderall

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49
Q

moderate risk factor for CRA

a. special needs
b. other choices don’t remember

A

a. special needs

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50
Q

Most fluoride in infant formula

a. Milk derived powder
b. Milk derived liquid
c. Soy derived powder
d. Soy derived liquid

A

d. Soy derived liquid

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51
Q

In child abuse, what percent of injuries to the head and neck can the dentist can identity?

A

50%

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52
Q

Receptive mildstone for 1-2yo

a. follows 2-word request
b. points to pics in a book when named

A

b. points to pics in a book when named
1-2yo: understand simple questions. Points to pics in a book when named. Can ask 1-2 word questions. Can put 2 words together.
2-3 yo: can follow two-word request

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53
Q

How does maxilla make room for perm 1st molar?

A

Apposition

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54
Q

Least sensitive to radiation?

a. Muscle tissue
b. , Reproductive
c. Intestinal mucosa
d. Bone marrow

A

a. Muscle tissue

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55
Q

Important consideration for closing a diastema?

A

Permanent maxillary canine

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56
Q

What was the first sign of LA overdose

A

Dizziness

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57
Q

Most common sequela of permanent central intrusion

a. Pulpal necrosis
b. Calcific metamorphosis
c. External resorption
d. Ankylosis

A

a. Pulpal necrosis

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58
Q

TPA (trans-palatal arch) do?

a. Actively maintains mesial-distal
b. Other answers don’t remember

A

a. Actively maintains mesial-distal

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59
Q

What is associated with diabetes mellitus

a. Down
b. Turner
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. Prader willis
e. Williams-couldn’t find anything on these ones
f. Ruben something?

A

Down, Turner, Prader Willi all are associated with DM.
Down syndrome usually DM type 1.

Diabetes insipidus: intense thirst, despite the drinking of fluids (polydipsia), and the
excretion of large amounts of urine (polyuria). In most cases, it’s the result of your body not
properly producing, storing or releasing a key hormone, ADH

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60
Q

What acid do you use for enamel microabrasion?

a. HCL
b. 10% Carbamide
c. 37% Phosphoric acid
d. 30% Hydrogen Peroxide

A

a. HCL - 18% HCL plus pumi

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61
Q

For anaphylactic shock what are the cells

a. basophils and mast cells
b. eosinophils and lymphocytes
c. reticulocytes and undiff neutrophils

A

a. basophils and mast cells

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62
Q

Varicella zoster is associated with

A

Chicken pox

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63
Q

Hemoglobin for a child

A

12-18g/dl is normal for healthy child. 5-9g/dl is normal for child with SCA
Function: measures oxygen carrying capacity of blood

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64
Q

Which infection technique is used in non critical situation with visible blood?

A

Intermediate level infection

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65
Q

Indication for IPT

A

Provoked pain

Intact lamina dura

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66
Q

Distal step goes into Class II what %?

a. 66
b. 100

A

b. 100

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67
Q

ANUG bacteria along with spirochetes

A

P. Intermedia

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68
Q

MTA does what to pulp

a. Mineralization
b. Sterilization
c. Hemostasis

A

a. Mineralization/bacteriostatic agents* “obturator”
i. Has alkaline pH, slow release of Ca ions, induces pulp cell proliferation, cytokine release, hard tissue formation (reparative dentin), and interface with dentin that resembles hydroxyapatite

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69
Q

When does fluorosis happen

a. calcification
b. apposition

A

a. calcification

70
Q

Spontaneously erupting mesiodens

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%

A

a. 25%

71
Q

Which has delayed loss of primary teeth and delayed eruption of permanent
teeth
a. Apert
b. Crouzon

A

a. Apert

Remember, Apert and Crouzon are very similar. But, Apert shows more clinical manifestations (more severe)

72
Q

Which determines the onset of LA?

a. pKa
b. Protein binding

A

a. pKa

73
Q

8 year old has mandibular incisor crowding - what is normative?

A

2 mm

74
Q

What does INR measure

A

PT (extrinsic pathway)

i. The prothrombin time (PT) - along with its derived measures of prothrombin ratio (PR) and international normalized ratio (INR) - are assays evaluating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. This test is also called “ProTime INR” and PT/INR”. They are used to determine the clotting tendency of blood, in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage, and vitamin K status. PT measures factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, and X.
ii. In the absence of anticoagulation therapy, ideal is 0.8-1.2
iii. Target range for patient on warfarin is 2-3 (may be in 2.5-3.5 range if on intense anticoagulatns)

75
Q 
Local aggressive periodontitis with not so much bone loss than expected
what is immunoglobulin present?
a. IgG
b. lgA
c. IgM
d. lgE
A

a. IgG

76
Q

At what stage can child do basic logic:

a. Pre-operational
b. Sensimotor
c. Concrete-operational
d. Formal-operational

A

c. Concrete-operational

77
Q

Which fusion causes clefting

A

Medial nasal and maxillary process

78
Q

Most simple febrile seizure

a. gen tonic clonic
b. myoclonic
c. atypical absence

A

a. gen tonic clonic - generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTCS) are by far the most common seizure type (80%). Tonic (13%), atonic (3%), and unilateral or focal onset tonic clonic seizures (4%) may occur in the remaining 20%. ON rare occasions, seizures consist of staring accompanied by stiffness or floppiness, rhythmic jerking movements without prior stiffening, focal stiffness or jerking only. Myoclonic jerks or absences are not part of febrile seizures. Repetitive seizures in the same febrile illness occur in 16%.

79
Q

What’s recommended for a PRR

a. unfilled resin
b. highly filled resin
c. glass ionomer cement

A

a. unfilled resin

80
Q

Which is determinant of direction of growth

a. FMA
b. SNA
c. SNB
d. ANB

A

a. FMA

81
Q

BMI for overweight

A

> 85% - overweight is defined as a BMI at or above the 85th percentile and below the 95th percentile for children and teens of the same age and sex. Obesity is defined as a BMI at or above the 95th percentile for children and teens of the same age and sex.

82
Q

Which bacteria is in chronic odontogenic abscess

a. anaerobic staph
b. anaerobic strep
c. anaerobic strep

A

b. anaerobic strep

83
Q

How many grams of xylitol?

A

4-8g

84
Q

Most common CP

A

Spastic = stiff

85
Q

Earliest milestones for a child

a. kick a ball
b. turn a knob
c. jump on one foot
d. ride tricycle

A

a. kick a ball - 18mos
b. turn a knob - 2yo
c. jump on one foot - 50% of 3yos can balance on one foot, 90% of 4yos can hop
d. ride tricycle - 3yo

86
Q

Pacifier habit in infants?

a. Decrease occurrence of otitis media
b. Decrease SIDS

A

b. Decrease SIDS

increase occurrence of otitis media

87
Q

CHX mechanism

A

a. Disrupts bacterial cell wall

88
Q

Which is true about retention of primary vs. permanent sealants

a. Significantly less
b. Similar
c. Slightly greater
d. Unpredictable

A

b. Similar - Duggal et al. did not find difference

89
Q

If pt has complete cleft lip and palate

A

missing mid palatal suture

90
Q

What is most common fracture in children?

a. Body
b. Angle
c. Symphysis
d. Condyle

A

d. Condyle

91
Q

If dirty wound when do you need to get a booster for tetanus

a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 1 year

A

a. 5 years* - Usually, booster schedule is 10 years. But with dirty wounds, recommend a Tdap booster if 5 years passed since the last
one

92
Q

Best storage medium

a. milk
b. saliva
c. saline
d. water

A

a. milk

93
Q

More likely to occur

a. Congenitally missing permanent tooth
b. Ectopic eruption of first molar
c. Permanent mesiodens
d. Impaction of canines

A

a. Congenitally missing permanent tooth

Missing 3rds fairly common

94
Q

How long does it take for permanent tooth to come into full occlusion?

a. 1 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

A

d. 5 years*

95
Q

What is active surveillance for high risk

a. more frequent exams and x-rays
b. restore incipient lesions and monitor new
c. parent doing oral hygiene
d. monitor lesion progression and ….

A

d. monitor lesion progression and ….

AAPD - Careful monitoring of caries progression and prevention
program

96
Q

What acid do you use for enamel microabrasion?

a. HCL
b. 10% Carbamide
c. 37% Phosphoric acid
d. 30% Hydrogen Peroxide

A

a. HCL - 18% HCL plus pumice

97
Q

moderate risk factor for CRA

a. special needs
b. other choices don’t remember

A

a. special needs

CRA = Caries Risk Assessment
Moderate Risk according AAPD Guideline
Another Moderate risk factor is recent immigrant

98
Q

Don’t use protective stabilization on a child that is:

A

Cooperative and conscious

99
Q

Which rescuer inhaler do you give

a. beta 2 agonist
b. beta 2 antagonist
c. inhales corticosteroid

A

a. beta 2 agonist - cause smooth muscle relaxation

100
Q 
Autotransplantation for avulsed perm maxillary central incisor root
development?
a. <1/3
b. 1/3 to greater than or equal to 1/2
c. >3/4
A

b. 1/3 to greater than or equal to 1/2

101
Q

Minimum apex open for revascularization

A

1mm

102
Q

N2O in first 3-5mins of administration

a. dissolves in serum
b. attaches to erythrocytes
c. attaches to hemoglobin
d. dissolves in CSF

A

a. dissolves in serum - is transported in blood as free gas; it does not combine with hemoglobin, and it does not undergo biotransformation, has rapid uptake, absorbed quickly from alveoli held in simple solution in serum

103
Q

What is responsible for fruity breath of Diabetics?

A

Acetone

104
Q

when can you place implant in a child

a. ectodermal dysplasia
b. cleft lip and palate
c. pt intolerable to removable prosthesis

A

c. pt intolerable to removable prosthesis

105
Q

Max fluoride prescription

A

120mg

106
Q

ADHD meds

A

methylphenidate - sold under the trade names ritalin among others, is a CNS stimulant of the phenethylamine and piperidine classes that is used in the treatment of ADHD and narcolepsy

107
Q

soft tissue x-rays to find fragment

A

1/4 radiation exposure

108
Q

Irreversible pulpitis hallmark

A

Spontaneous pain

109
Q

When do you remove mesiodens?

A

Permanent incisors 2/3 developed BUT they want specifics like less/greater than - for unerupted mesiodens, wait for extraction until adjacent permanent teeth root developed 2/3rd

110
Q

Which inhibits infused factor with antibodies

a. mild hemophilia A
b. mild hemophilia B
c. severe hemophilia A (deficiency in FVIII) 8
d. severe hemophilia B

A

c. severe hemophilia A (deficiency in FVIII) 8 - inhibitor formation, occurring in up to 36% of patients with severe HA, 1, 2 is currently one of the most significant complications affecting patients with HA

111
Q

Which mallampati class when you can see fauces, soft palate and uvula

a. class I
b. class II
c. class III

A

b. class II

112
Q

Synthesizing results by combining studies?

A

Meta Analysis

113
Q

When is BPA most exposure

A

a. Immediately after placement of resin

114
Q

What decreases the minimum alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide

a. CNS stimulants
b. Narcotics
c. Fever
d. Young age

A

b. Narcotics
MAC decreases = more potent volatile med
Minimum concentration to stay in alveoli

115
Q

a lot of use of amoxicillin in infants can cause

a. enamel hypomineralization
b. other choices don’t remember

A

a. enamel hypomineralization

116
Q

% of tobacco use in adolescent

A

20%

117
Q

Which has regular borders …

A

a. Traumatic bone cyst

118
Q

Whats given to a baby before they leave hospital

a. Hep B vaccine
b. Rotovirus

A

a. Hep B vaccine

119
Q

If strictly vegetarian what vitamin are you missing out on

a. B12
b. K
c. A
d. D

A

a. B12

120
Q

Most commonly seen in anorexia

a. Trismus
b. Glossitis
c. Hypersalivation

A

b. Glossitis

121
Q

NPO guidelines for clear liquids

A

2hrs

122
Q

After neonatal, if infant presents with this its evident of sexual contact?

a. Herpes A
b. Herpes B
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Human papillomavirus

A

d. Human papillomavirus

123
Q

What fraction of ectopically erupting molars self correct

A

2/3

124
Q

Which is related to vitamin D rickets

a. Short roots
b. Delayed eruption
c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d. Obliterated pulps

A

b. Delayed eruption

This can be confusing. Rickets causes Premature primary teeth
exfoliation. This leads to Delayed Perm teeth eruption
Short roots = Dentin Dysplasia type I
Obliterated Pulps = DI type 2 or DD type I

125
Q

Functional crossbite occurs bc of

a. Occlusal interference
b. Tongue thrust

A

a. Occlusal interference

126
Q

Which agent is bronchodilator / CNS depressant / anxiolytic

A

Hydroxyzine (anti-histamine)

127
Q

Ora Verse works by:

A

Vasodilation

128
Q

which suture causes most inflammation

a. silk
b. nylon
c. polyester
d. polyethyele

A

a. silk

129
Q

when do you place implant in mandibular anterior region

a. 7
b. 10
c. 13
d. skeletal maturity

A

d. skeletal maturity

130
Q

Premature loss of mandibular second primary molar what does perm 1st molar do?

a. Mesial lingual tipping
b. Mesial buccal tipping

A

a. Mesial lingual tipping

131
Q

NaOH does what to pulpal stumps

a. Hemostasis/coagulant-ferric sulfate, epinephrine, aluminum.chloride
b. Fixation-Formocresol
c. Sterilization
d. Mineralization

A

d. Mineralization-a(OH)2

132
Q

Complication for obese kids under GA

a. aspiration during induction
b. mainstem bronchus intubation
c. post op laryngeal edema

A

a. aspiration during induction - aspiration pneumonia, due to the back flow of the stomach’s contents into the lungs, is a common lung complication among obese people. Higher incidence of intraoperative oxygen desaturation (2% vs. 0.19%) and higher requirements for unexpected overnight hospitalization

133
Q

Postnatally, which goes from cartilaginous to endochrondral ossification?

A

Spheno-occipital synchondrosus

134
Q

Which mallampati class when you can see fauces, soft palate and uvula

a. class I
b. class II
c. class III

A

b. class II

Mallampati classification - size of airway

  • class I - visualization of soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior and posterior pillars
  • class II - visualization of soft palate, fauces and uvula
  • class III - visualization of soft palate and base of uvuala
  • class IV - soft palate not visible
135
Q

What do you put on a permanent partially erupted molar

a. RMGI
b. Glass ionomer sealant
c. Resin sealant

A

a. RMGI

136
Q

Which primary tooth has worst space loss?

a. Mandibular 1st ·
b. Mandibular 2nd
c. Maxillary 1st
d. Maxillary 2nd

A

d. Maxillary 2nd

137
Q

BPA comes from what part of composite

a. bisGMA
b. TEGDMA
c. bisDMA

A

a. bisGMA

138
Q

What happens with electrical burn to commisure of lip

a. pain
b. hemorrhage
c. edema

A

b. hemorrhage
i. spontaneous for first 3 weeks
C. edema that may last a week
i. eventually necrotic tissue ( eschar) will slough off in 3 weeks

139
Q

Which has delayed loss of primary teeth

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

140
Q

Calcification of permanent max lateral

A

10-12mos - whereas it is 3-4mos for the mandibular lateral and around 2yo for the premolars - which explains my patient who had radiation therapy at 2yo and is missing her premolars

141
Q

What doesn’t work with visibly dirty hands?

a. Alcohol
b. Cleaning gel
c. Plain soap

A

a. Alcohol

142
Q

Waterlines in dental units (CFU/mL)? (Infection Control)

a. 300
b. 400
c. 500

A

c. 500

143
Q

Primary dentition non “spaced what is prediction for crowding in permanent?

A

60%

144
Q

Which one needs AB prophylaxis

a. peritoneal dialysis
b. VP shunt
c. pulmonary stenosis
d. prosthetic cardiac valve

A

d. prosthetic cardiac valve

145
Q

Amphetamine causes?

A

Insomnia

146
Q

Moderate sedation?

A

Purposefully responds to tactile stimulation

147
Q

Titrate?

A

Inhalation, oral, nasal, subcutaneous

148
Q

non-social reinforcement?

A

token/toy

149
Q

SLOB?

A

same lingual opposite buccal

150
Q

what can a kid do first?

A

kick a ball

151
Q

fluoride rinse

A

low concentration, high frequency

152
Q

primary objective of IPT

A

leave affected dentin; change caries environment **(we also had
something similar, but want to leave affected dentin)

153
Q

height of interproximal crest should be _ below CEJ?

A

1-2mm

154
Q

completed pulpectomy: when does pathology radiographically resolve?

A

3mo? 6mo?

155
Q

most impt for Cvek pulpotomy?

A

formation of blood clot; tightly sealed margins*

156
Q

when do you start ortho after severe trauma to periodontium?

A

3 mo, 6 mo*, 12 mo

157
Q

most common oral complication of HSCT?

A

mucositis*; xerostomia; gingival bleeding; opportunistic infx (2015, too)

158
Q

which class of malocclusion needs a mouthguard?

A

class III

159
Q

whitening agent in dentin (2015, too)

A

humectant; abrasive

160
Q

drug induced gingival enlargement?

A

cyclosporine

161
Q

most allergic rxns to?

A

chromium; nickel

162
Q

fluoride replaces what?

A

hydroxyl

163
Q

Koplik’s spots in? (2015, too)

A

Rubeola

164
Q

4 yo w/ pulpotomy, what is best restorative material? (2015; too)

A

amalgam, SSC*, CR, GI

165
Q

most likely ortho materia lto distort cranial MRI?

A

stainless steel; titanium; other options

166
Q

most commonly used active ingredient in dentist dispensed bleaching?

A

carbamide peroxide

167
Q

child is whining & crying w/o tears or sobbing?

A

compensatory*; obstinate; pain; frightened

168
Q

overlapping canine more than 50%, if ext primary canines, what% will
correct? (2015, too)

A

48; 64*; 80

169
Q

mini-implant screws - problem with cortical bone stress?

A

length of screw; angle of insertion; 2 other options

170
Q

difference between Diabetes Type 1 & 2?

A

weight gain?; frequent urination; increase appetite

171
Q

most common TMJ symptoms seen in adolescents?

A

clicking*; locking; luxation; limited opening

peds dent boards (3 decks)

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