2012 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

ICU scoring systems

a. 2 within 24 hours
b. 2 used sequentially

A

Within first 24hrs of admission
APACE II (Acute Physiologic and Chronic Health Evaluation)
- Based on the worst variables during the initial 24 hours in the ICU
- Predicts hospital mortality

SAPS II (Simplified Acute Physiologic Score)

  • Calculates a severity score using the worst values measured during the initial 24 hours in the ICU for 17 variables.
  • Predicts hospital mortality

Sequential
MPM (Mortality Prediction Model)
- Calculated from 15 variables assessed at the time of ICU admission
- Predicts mortality

SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment)

  • Is calculated 24h after admission to the ICU and every 48 hours thereafter
  • Predicts mortality

MODS (Multiple Organ Dysfunction Score)

  • Physiologic measures of six organ systems, can be measured at any time
  • Predicts ICU and hospital mortality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ENT surgeons wants leeches applied to a post-flap patient

a. What is bug transmitted with this technique? (most common)
b. What prophylactic ABX to give? (name one only)

A

Aeromonas
Ciprofloxacin

Aeromonas:
- Gram negative rod, distributed widely in freshwater, estuarine and marine environments
Associated diseases:
- A range of diarrheal presentations
- Wound infections: usually after aquatic injury
- Can cause cellulitis, myonecrosis with and without gas production, rhabdomyolysis
- Medicinal leeches: Aeromonas reside in the gut of the leech Hirudo medicinalis, where they assist in the enzymatic digestion of blood ingested by the leech.
- Additional reports of: respiratory infections (after near drowning), ocular infections, endocarditis, joint infections,
peritonitis, cholecystitis.
Treatment:
- Most Aeromonas produce an inducible chromosomal beta-lactamse
- Most strains are resistant to: penicillin, ampicillin
- Most are susceptible to: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, fluoroquinolones, second and third generation cephalosporins,
aminoglycosides, carbapenems, tetracyclines
- Prophylactic ciproflxacin can be given if medicinal leeches are used (however, beware of some ciprofloxacin resistant
strains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient with variceal bleed is transferred to you.

b. Label parts of Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
c. 6 steps of insertion (pt is already intubated and equipment checked)

A

1) Low threshold for securing the patient’s airway via endotracheal intubation
2) Check balloons
3) Insert Blakemore nasally or orally
4) Inflate gastric balloon to 30 mL of air to verify correct radiographic placement in stomach to avoid gastric balloon insufflation in stomach leading to esophageal perforation
5) Once verification of gastric balloon in stomach inflate balloon to manufacturer’s prescribed volume
6) If bleeding persists inflate esophageal balloon to 35 mmHg so as to have the esophageal balloon exceed the variceal pressure
7) Apply traction
8) Arrange definitive management as esophageal balloon in place for 24 hours only.
9) Insertion of nasogastric tube so as to suction any oropharyngeal blood that could be aspirated

Equipment that is required includes: ●A tamponade tube kit (with the tube and clamps) ●A manometer (not needed for Linton tubes) ●Large-volume syringes ●A traction/pulley system to maintain constant tension on the tube ●Adequate suction Before tube placement, all equipment should be readily at hand. The balloon(s) should be inflated with air and held underwater to assess for leakage and then deflated. With the patient in the supine or left-lateral position, the tube is lubricated and carefully inserted through the mouth (preferred) or nostril until at least 50 cm of the tube has been introduced. Once the tube is placed, the ports are suctioned to remove all air. The gastric balloon is then inflated with 100 mL of air. A radiograph should then be obtained to confirm placement of the gastric balloon below the diaphragm (accidental inflation of the balloon in the esophagus or a hiatal hernia could lead to rupture). Once confirmed, the balloon is filled with an additional 350 to 400 mL of air are (for a total of 450 to 500 mL of air). Once inflated, the air inlet for the gastric balloon should be clamped. After the gastric balloon is inflated, the tube is pulled until resistance is felt, at which point the balloon is tamponading the gastroesophageal junction. The tube is then securely fastened to either a pulley device or taped to a football helmet to maintain tension on the tube (and thus continued tamponade at the gastroesophageal junction). A one to two pound weight (eg, a 500 mL intravenous fluid bag) can be used to maintain tension on the tube. This is often sufficient to stop the variceal hemorrhage. If bleeding continues despite inflation of the gastric balloon, the esophageal balloon (if present) should be inflated to 30 to 45 mmHg. While the esophageal balloon is inflated, the pressure should be checked periodically (at least once per hour). It is important not to overinflate the esophageal balloon as it puts the patient at risk for esophageal necrosis or rupture. Once the bleeding is controlled, the pressure in the esophageal balloon should be reduced by 5 mmHg to a goal pressure of 25 mmHg. If bleeding resumes, the pressure is increased by 5 mmHg. The tube can be left in place for 24 to 48 hours. The gastric balloon (along with the esophageal balloon if used) should be deflated every 12 hours to check for rebleeding. If the bleeding has ceased, the tube can be left in place with the balloons deflated. The balloons can then be reinflated if bleeding resumes. If the bleeding resumes upon deflation of the balloon(s), the balloon(s) should immediately be reinflated. As mentioned above, balloon tamponade is a temporizing measure and definitive treatment should be arranged for ongoing or recurrent bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chest tube

a. Label parts of a 3 bottle system
b. What’s the problem of using this system on a post pneumonectomy patient
c. Advantage of dry suction over water suction?

A

https://sinaiem.org/how-a-chest-tube-drainage-system-works/

  • Drainage bottle: collects fluid
  • Water seal is the second bottle
  • Third bottle controls suction: If the tube is submerged 10 cmH20 and suction is turned on, the negative pressure will equal
    10 cmH20.
  • As the suction machine exerts pressure, the water in the glass tube is pulled out and air is pulled in. When the air reaches the bottom of the glass tube the air bubbles through the water and ends the negative pressure. Water
    refills the glass tube and the suction cycle begins again. The glass tube must always be open to air.
  • In a two bottle system, the first bottle collects drainage and acts as a water seal.
    Post pneumonectomy: pleural leaks seal more quickly if suction is eliminated (i.e. just an underwater seal). Suction tends to prolong the duration of the leak
    Wet suction control: regulation of the amount of suction by the height of a column of water in the suction control chamber
  • Water can evaporate from the suction control chamber which reduces the amount of suction applied to the patient as the level of water decreases.
    Dry suction control: controlled by a self-compressing regulator. The setting of the suction control dial determines the
    approximate amount of suction imposed regardless of the amount of source suction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ICP wave forms

a. What do P1, P2, P3 represent?
b. With ICP of 35, how do the waves change relative to each other

A

ICP monitoring waveform has a flow of 3 upstrokes in one wave.
P1 = (Percussion wave) represents arterial pulsation
P2 = (Tidal wave) represents intracranial compliance
P3 = (Dicrotic wave) represents aortic valve closure
In normal ICP waveform P1 should have highest upstroke, P2 in between and P3 should show lowest upstroke.

In elevated ICP, the waves have a higher amplitude and P2>P1, and the waves are more rounded out.

The vascular pulse correlates with arterial blood pressure waveform
The respiratory pulse correlates with the respiratory cycle
Lundberg A waves “or plateau waves” are steep increases in ICP (up to 50-100mmHg) lasting for 5 to 10 minutes, then they drop sharply. They are always pathological and represent intracranial hypertension indicative of early brain herniation.

Lundberg B waves are oscillations of ICP at a frequency of 0.5 to 2 waves/min and are associated with an unstable ICP.
Lundberg B waves are possibly the result of cerebral vasospasm, because during the occurrence of these waves, increased velocity in the middle cerebral artery can be demonstrated on transcranial Doppler.
Lundberg C waves are oscillations with a frequency of 4-8 waves/min. They have been documented in healthy subjects and are probably caused by interaction between the cardiac and respiratory cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

VV ECMO

a. 2 Physiologic reasons that CO2 is better cleared than O2?
b. How do you adjust CO2 clearance?
c. O2 levels?

A

VV ECMO:
- Cannulation usually of R common femoral vein for drainage and R IJ for infusion.
- The tip of the femoral catheter should be maintained near the junction of the inferior vena cava and the right atrium, while the tip of the internal jugular cannula should be maintained hear the junction of the superior vena cava and right atrium
- Double lumen cannulas also exist (Avalon by Maquet): inserted into the R IJ removes blood from both the SVC and IVC and returns into the right atrium
VA ECMO: blood is extracted from the right atrium and returned to the arterial system bypassing the heart and lungs.
Oxygenation in VV ECMO:
- Direct function of blood flow.
o The blood flow required during VV ECMO to achieve an acceptable arterial oxygenation is usually between
3-6L/min (partially depending on CO and Hb)
o The oxygenation membrane is in series with the natural lung
CO2 removal in VV ECMO:
- Primarily a function of the flow of fresh gas. CO2 elimination can be increased by increasing the gas flow rate

  • CO2 is better cleared than O2 in the blood because:
    o Linear nature of the CO2-Hb dissociation curve relative to the O2-Hb dissociation curve
    o CO2 dissolves better in the aqueous component of the membrane (CO2 is more soluble than O2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CXR of big heart with a ICD and PM. Then a “Postop” CXR (Pt got Impella and LVAD in new XR)

a. What’s this patients chronic condition?
b. Label items on post op CXR (Swan-Ganz and LVAD)
c. Describe the pathway of an Impella device

A

This patient probably has heart failure from a type of cardiomyopathy
Impella: usual percutaneous insertion via the femoral artery, up the aorta, through the aortic valve into the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dabigatran

a. Mechanism of action?
b. Antidote?
c. 2 ways to deal with a patient bleeding from this

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors:

  • Argatroban
  • Bivalirudin
  • Dabigatran –> idarucizumab (antidote)

Direct Factor Xa inhibitors:

  • Rivaroxaban
  • Apixaban
  • Edoxaban

Assessment of coagulation status:

  • Interval since last dose: anticoagulation is fully resolved after 5 half-lives since last dose
  • Dabigatran: 1/2 life = 12-17h, resolved by 2.5-3.5d, 85% renal
  • Rivaroxaban: 7-17h, resolved by 1.5-3.5d, 35% renal, severe hepatic impairment could result in bio-accumulation
  • Apixaban: 5-9h, resolved by 1-2d, 25% renal, severe hepatic impairment could result in bio-accumulation
  • Coagulation testing:
  • Dabigatran: normal thrombin clotting time (TT) is sufficient to eliminate the possibility of continued dabigatran effect (very sensitive), but can be prolonged with trivial amounts of drug
  • Rivaroxaban, apixaban: anti-factor Xa specific assays. A normal anti-factor Xa activity indicates that no clinically
    relevant anti-factor Xa drug effect is present, but unless the test has been calibrated for the anticoagulant, the
    amount of anticoagulation effect cannot be reliably determined.
  • Strategies for anticoagulant reversal in serious life-threatening bleeding:
  • stop dabigatran
  • give idarucizumab
  • give antifibrinolytic (TXA)
  • activated charcoal if within 2hrs of ingestion
  • +/- hemodialysis

Dabigatran – For patients with major bleeding, including life-threatening bleeding (eg, intracranial, severe gastrointestinal), we suggest administration of a specific reversal agent (idarucizumab) along with the antifibrinolytic agent (eg, tranexamic acid, epsilon-aminocaproic acid) (Grade 2C). We may also use an antifibrinolytic agent in selected patients with major bleeding that is not immediately life-threatening (eg, suspected overdose, comorbidities, worsening bleeding symptoms). We also suggest administration of oral activated charcoal if the last anticoagulant dose was within the previous two hours (Grade 2C). Hemodialysis may be used in selected patients if the potential for significant drug removal is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Spinal cord injury
    a. Scenario of trauma pt cervical hyperextension with 0/5 arm strength, and 3/5 leg strength. Dx?
    b. Goes for abdo surgery and then loses pain and temp sensation below T6. Dx?
    c. What MAP should we strive for? How long do you maintain this?
A

An acute central cord syndrome, characterized by disproportionately greater motor impairment in upper compared with lower extremities, bladder dysfunction, and a variable degree of sensory loss below the level of injury, is described after relatively mild trauma in the setting of preexisting cervical spondylosis.

The most prominent thoracic radicular artery is the artery of Adamkiewicz, also known as the artery of the lumbar enlargement. The artery of Adamkiewicz contributes to the ASA between the T9 to T12 level in 75 percent of individuals, but may be found above and below this level.

target MAP 85-90 for first 7d after SCI
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/acute-traumatic-spinal-cord-injury/abstract/48-51

Complete cord injury — In a complete cord injury (ASIA grade A), there will be a rostral zone of spared sensory levels (eg, the C5 and higher dermatomes spared in a C5-6 fracture-dislocation), reduced sensation in the next caudal level, and no sensation in levels below, including none in the sacral segments, S4-S5. Similarly, there will be reduced muscle power in the level immediately below the injury, followed by complete paralysis in more caudal myotomes. In the acute stage, reflexes are absent, there is no response to plantar stimulation, and muscle tone is flaccid. A male with a complete TSCI may have priapism. The bulbocavernosus reflex is usually absent. Urinary retention and bladder distension occur.

Incomplete injury — In incomplete injuries (ASIA grades B through D), there are various degrees of motor function in muscles controlled by levels of the spinal cord caudal to the injury. Sensation is also partially preserved in dermatomes below the area of injury. Usually sensation is preserved to a greater extent than motor function because the sensory tracts are located in more peripheral, less vulnerable areas of the cord. The bulbocavernosus reflex and anal sensation are often
present.

Central cord syndrome — An acute central cord syndrome, characterized by disproportionately greater motor impairment in upper compared with lower extremities, bladder dysfunction, and a variable degree of sensory loss below the level of injury, is described after relatively mild trauma in the setting of preexisting cervical spondylosis. characterized by loss of pain and temperature sensation in the distribution of one or several adjacent dermatomes at the site of the spinal cord lesion caused by the disruption of crossing spinothalamic fibers in the ventral commissure. Dermatomes above and below the level of the lesion have normal pain and temperature sensation, creating the so-called “suspended sensory level.”
Vibration and proprioception are often spared.

Dorsal (posterior) cord syndrome — Dorsal cord syndrome results from the bilateral involvement of the dorsal columns, the corticospinal tracts, and descending central autonomic tracts to bladder control centers in the sacral cord. Dorsal column symptoms include gait ataxia and paresthesias. Corticospinal tract dysfunction produces weakness that, if acute, is accompanied by muscle flaccidity and hyporeflexia and, if chronic, by muscle hypertonia and hyperreflexia. Extensor plantar responses and urinary incontinence may be present

Anterior cord syndrome — Lesions affecting the anterior or ventral two-thirds of the spinal cord, sparing the dorsal columns, usually reflect injury to the anterior spinal artery (Artery of Adamkiewitz). When this occurs in TSCI, it is believed that this more often represents a direct injury to the anterior spinal cord by retropulsed disc or bone fragments rather than primary disruption of the anterior spinal artery. Ventral cord or anterior spinal artery syndrome usually includes tracts in the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, which include the corticospinal tracts, the spinothalamic tracts, and descending autonomic tracts to the sacral centers for bladder control. Corticospinal tract involvements produce weakness and reflex changes. A spinothalamic tract deficit produces the bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Tactile, position, and
vibratory sensation are normal. Urinary incontinence is usually present

Brown-Sequard (hemi-cord) syndrome — A lateral hemisection syndrome, also known as the Brown–Sequard syndrome, involves the dorsal column, corticospinal tract, and spinothalamic tract unilaterally. This produces weakness, loss of vibration, and proprioception ipsilateral to the lesion and loss of pain and temperature on the opposite side. The unilateral involvement of descending autonomic fibers does not produce bladder symptoms. While there are many causes of this syndrome, knife or bullet injuries and demyelination are the most common. Rarer causes include spinal cord tumors, disc herniation, infarction, and infections

Conus medullaris syndrome — Lesions at vertebral level L2 often affect the conus medullaris. There is early and
prominent sphincter dysfunction with flaccid paralysis of the bladder and rectum, impotence, and saddle (S3-S5)
anesthesia. Leg muscle weakness may be mild if the lesion is very restricted and spares both the lumbar cord and the adjacent sacral and lumbar nerve roots.

Cauda equina syndrome — Though not a spinal cord syndrome, cauda equina syndrome is considered here because its location within the spinal canal subjects it to many of the same disease processes that cause myelopathy. The syndrome is caused by the loss of functions of two or more of the 18 nerve roots constituting the cauda equina. Deficits usually affect both legs but are often asymmetric. Symptoms include:
Low back pain accompanied by pain radiating into one or both legs. Radicular pain reflects involvement of dorsal nerve roots and may have localizing value
Weakness of plantar flexion of the feet with loss of ankle jerks occurs with mid cauda equina lesions, involving S1,
S2 roots. Involvement of progressively higher levels leads to corresponding weakness in other muscles
Bladder and rectal sphincter paralysis usually reflect involvement of S3-S5 nerve roots
Sensory loss of all sensory modalities occurs in the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve roots
Transient paralysis and spinal shock — Immediately after a spinal cord injury, there may be a physiological loss of all spinal cord function caudal to the level of the injury, with flaccid paralysis, anesthesia, absent bowel and bladder control, and loss of reflex activity. In males, especially those with a cervical cord injury, priapism may develop. There may also be bradycardia and hypotension not due to causes other than the spinal cord injury. This altered physiologic state may last
several hours to several weeks and is sometimes referred to as spinal shock.

MAP goals: Albeit with little empiric supporting data, guidelines currently recommend maintaining mean arterial pressures
of at least 85 to 90 mmHg, using intravenous fluids, transfusion, and pharmacologic vasopressors as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Hepatorenal syndrome
    a. 3 vasopressors that help in HRS
    b. List HRS criteria
A

norepinephrine with albumin
midodrine
vasopressin

The following definition and diagnostic criteria have been proposed for the HRS:

●Chronic or acute hepatic disease with advanced hepatic failure and portal hypertension.

●Acute kidney injury, defined as an increase in serum creatinine of 26.5 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or an increase from baseline of 50 percent or more within seven days [30]; this definition of acute kidney injury is consistent with KDIGO criteria. However, some clinicians may prefer to use the older definition of acute or subacute kidney injury, specifically a rise in serum creatinine to above 133 micromol/L that has progressed over days to weeks. As noted above, the rise in serum creatinine with reductions in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) may be minimal due to the marked reduction in creatinine production among such patients.

●The absence of any other apparent cause for the acute kidney injury, including shock, current or recent treatment with nephrotoxic drugs, and the absence of ultrasonographic evidence of obstruction or parenchymal renal disease. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is complicated by acute kidney injury that may be reversible in 30 to 40 percent of patients. It can be associated with ATN, but it is also a major precipitant of the hepatorenal syndrome. Thus, ongoing infection with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis should not exclude the possibility of hepatorenal syndrome. This means that therapy for hepatorenal syndrome can commence while the bacterial infection is still being treated. In addition, hepatorenal syndrome can occur in patients with preexisting chronic kidney disease [31]. Thus, the presence of another renal diagnosis (eg, diabetic nephropathy) does not necessarily exclude hepatorenal syndrome.

In conjunction with excluding other apparent causes of renal disease, the following criteria also apply:

  • Urine red cell excretion of less than 50 cells per high power field (when no urinary catheter is in place) and protein excretion less than 500 mg/day.
  • Lack of improvement in renal function after volume expansion with intravenous albumin (1 g/kg of body weight per day up to 100 g/day) for at least two days and withdrawal of diuretics.

As noted above, patients diagnosed with hepatorenal syndrome are classified as type 1 hepatorenal syndrome (more severe) or type 2 hepatorenal syndrome (less severe) based upon the rapidity of the acute kidney injury and the degree of renal impairment. Type 1 hepatorenal syndrome is present if the serum creatinine increases by at least twofold to a value greater than 2.5 mg/dL (221 micromol/L) during a period of less than two weeks. Less rapidly progressive disease is classified as type 2.

In patients with hepatorenal syndrome who are admitted to the intensive care unit, we suggest initial treatment with norepinephrine in combination with albumin rather than other medical therapies (Grade 2B). Norepinephrine is given intravenously as a continuous infusion (0.5 to 3 mg/hr) with the goal of raising the mean arterial pressure by 10 mmHg, and albumin is given for at least two days as an intravenous bolus (1 g/kg per day [100 g maximum]). Intravenous vasopressin may also be effective, starting at 0.01 units/min.

Pathogenesis:
- Arterial vasodilation in the splanchnic circulation, triggered by portal hypertension, caused by increase production or activity of vasodilators, mainly in the splanchnic circulation, with nitric oxide thought be most important.
- As hepatic disease becomes more severe: rise in cardiac output and fall in vascular resistance, including that in the splanchnic circulation, causing decline in renal perfusion.
- Patients who develop HRS usually have portal hypertension, however, patients with fulminant hepatic failure from any cause can develop HRS
Clinical presentation:
- Progressive rise in serum creatinine
- Normal urine sediment
- No or minimal proteinuria (less than 500mg/day)
- A very low rate of sodium excretion (urine Na concentration <10 meq/L)
- Oliguria (not all have this, especially early in the course)
- Type 1: more serious, at least 2 fold increase in creatinine to a level > 221 μmol/L in < 2 weeks
- Type 2: renal impairment less severe than type 1. Often presents with ascites resistant to diuretics.
Diagnosis: (clinical), slightly different wording in AASLD 2007 criteria, but the same
- Chronic or acute hepatic disease with advanced hepatic failure or portal hypertension
- Serum creatinine > 133 μmol/L that progresses over days to weeks
- Absence of any other apparent cause of AKI
- Urine red cell excretion < 50 cells per HPF, protein excretion <500 mg/day
- Lack of improvement in renal function after volume expansion with intravenous albumin (1g/kg body weight,
up to 100 g/day) for at least 2 days and withdrawal of diuretics.
Treatment:
In ICU:
- Norepinephrine infusion, with albumin x 2 days at 1g/kg/day, + IV vasopressin/terlipressin
Not in ICU:
- midodrine (up to 15 mg TID) and octreotide (100-200 mcg subcut TID), and albumin x 2 days at 1g/kg/day
Not responsive to medical therapy:
- Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS)- limited data
- Liver transplant if feasible, and bridge with dialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. 2 circuit related and 2 patient related complications of VV ECMO
    a. Circuit:
    b. Patient:
A
Circuit complications:
- Clots
- Leak
- Oxygenator failure
Patient complications:
- DIC
- Stroke
- HITT
From NEJM ECMO for ARDS in Adults review. Brodie 2011
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

15.EKG of Aflutter 2:1 block (describe rhythm)

A

Involves the IVC and tricuspid isthmus in the reentry circuit

Anticlockwise reentry (90%)
- Inverted flutter waves leads II, III, aVF
- Positive flutter waves in V1
Clockwise reentry (uncommon)- opposite pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. EKG of patient post lytic
    a. What is the rhythm
    b. 2 management strategies
A

Reperfusion arrhythmias
- Most common: accelerated idioventricular rhythm (AIVR) (but not sensitive or specific marker for successful
reperfusion)
o Also called “slow ventricular tachycardia” (AV dissociation)
o Rate of 50-100/120 bpm
o Occurs in up to 50% of pts with acute MI
- Serious ventricular arrhythmia induced by reperfusion does not appear to be a major problem (not life threatening)
- May be due to pacemaker failure, or abnormal ectopic focus in the ventricle accelerated by sympathetic stimulation and circulating catecholamines

Treatment:

  • Most are transient and require no treatment.
  • There is no convincing link to sustained VT or VF
  • If AIVR is an escape rhythm do not attempt to suppress pacemaker focus- can cause bradycardia and asystole.
  • If not well tolerated, could try atropine to increase sinus rate to inhibit AIVR in restore atrial-ventricular synchrony.
  • Treat electrolyte abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Hyperkalemia
    a. 5 EKG changes (other than peaked t waves)
    b. 5 management strategies
A
First findings:
- Peaked T waves
- Shortened QT interval
More severe findings
- Lengthening of PR interval
- Lengthening of QRS duration
- Flattening of P wave/disappearance of P wave
- Sine wave pattern
- Ventricular standstill

Management:
- Use of rapidly acting therapies when patients have ECG changes, patients with a serum potassium >6.5-7 mmol/L
Calcium: directly antagonizes the membrane actions of hyperkalemia
Insulin and glucose: drives potassium into the cells by enhancing the activity of Na-K-ATPase pump in skeletal muscle
Beta-2 adrenergic agonists: also increase the activity of Na-K-ATPase pump in skeletal muscle.
Sodium bicarbonate: raising systemic pH causes hydrogen ion release from cells as part of the buffering reaction , which is accompanied by potassium movement into the cells to maintain electroneutrality
Potassium removal:
- Loop or thiazide diuretics increase potassium loss
- Cation exchange resins: binds potassium in the gut and releases sodium (can cause intestinal necrosis)
- Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. MDR Acinetobacter
    a. 2 drug classes that the bug is “intrinsically” resistant to (exact wording)
    b. How does it acquire its resistance? (list 2)
    c. Treatment
A

Multi drug resistant acinetobacter: isolate is non susceptible to at least one agent in three or more antibiotic classes

Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance:
- AmpC beta-lactamases are chromosonally encoded cephalosporinases intrinsic to all A. baumanii. Usually have low level of expression that does not cause clinically appreciable resistance, but can be affected by promotor insertion causing increased beta-lactamase production causing cephalosporin resistance.
- Acquisition of serine and metallo-beta-lactamases confer resistance to carbapenems.
- Reduced expression or mutated porin channels can hinder passage of beta-lactam antibiotics into the periplasmic space
- Overexpression of bacterial efflux pumps can decrease the concentration of beta-lactam antibiotics in the
periplasmic space. To cause clinical resistance, efflux pumps usually act in association with overexpressed AmpC beta-lactamases
- Mutations in genes gyrA and parC causes quinolone resistance
- Expression of aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes causes aminoglycoside resistance.
- Resistance from colistin is from mutation in the genes encoding PmrA and B proteins

Treatment
First line for susceptible organisms: broad spectrum cephalosporin (ceftazidine), combo of beta-lactamase/beta-lactamase
inhibitor, carbapenem
Resistant organisms:
- Polymixins: polymixin B or colistin (+/- second agent: carbapenem, tigecycline, rifampin)
- Tigecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

19.List 6 life threatening complications of trauma IN THORAX that must be caught on primary survey

A
  • Pneumothorax, tension pneumothorax
  • Aortic transection, dissection
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Airway obstruction, tracheal transection, bronchial disruption
  • Massive hemothorax
  • Flail chest with pulmonary contusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

20.Ciaglia technique of perc trach – what’s the most common complication?

A
Complications of tracheostomy
Immediate
   Bleeding (****MOST COMMON)
   Tracheal tube obstruction
   Pneumomediastinum
   Pneumothorax
   Loss of airway
   Tracheal ring fracture
   Paratracheal placement of tracheostomy tube
   Injury to thyroid
   Cardiac or respiratory decompensation
Late
   Infection
   Granulation tissue formation
   Tracheal tube displacement or malposition
   Cuff leak
   Tracheal stenosis
   TEF
   Tracheo vascular fistula

Benefits of Percutaneous dilational tracheostomy over operative trach:
Ciaglia technique: there is no sharp dissection involved beyond the skin incision.
Contraindications: (relative)
Uncorrectable bleeding diathesis, gross distortion of neck from hematoma, tumor, thyromegaly, previous surgical
scarring, infection of soft tissue to the neck, inability to extend the neck due to RA or cervical spine instability
Advantages of percutaneous tracheostomy vs operative:
- Requires less time
- Less expensive
- Performed sooner (do not need OR time)
- Overall less complications: decreased wound infection, less bleeding (blood vessels are compressed rather than
ligated or cauterized)
However, with percutaneous tracheostomy: increased risk of anterior tracheal injury- tracheal ring fracture and
posterior tracheal wall perforation.
Other complications:
- Subcutaneous emphysema: 1.4%
- Pneumothorax 0.8%
- Tracheostomies in general: tracheal obstruction from granulation tissue, stenosis of the trachea below the glottis
(but above the tracheal stoma), massive hemorrahge form tracheoarterial fistula
Benefits of tracheostomy:
- Decreased work of breathing: Decreased airway resistance, peak inspiratory pressures, auto-PEEP, enhanced
ventilator synchrony
- Increased patient comfort
- Enhanced patient communication
- Enhanced patient mobility and swallowing
- Improved suctioning of secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. CXR post op from CABG
    a. 2 probs: CVC is too low, IABP too high
    b. 2 complications associated with the 2 above probs
A

Low CVC: (should be at the level of the carina)
- Arrhythmia, myocardial perforation, cardiac tamponade from puncture of the pericardium

HIgh IAB: (should be 1-2 cm below the origin of the left subclavian artery and above the renal branches = 2-3 intercostal
space on CXR)
- Obstruction of left subclavian and carotids, causing stroke, limb ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

22.Pt with MI and shock. Difficult swan insertion. Name 2 ways you distinguish papillary muscle rupture vs
VSD using a Swan-Ganz catheters

A
  • Increases or “step up” in oxygen saturation in the RV and PA on right heart catheterization
    o Requires fluoroscopically guided measurement of oxygen saturation in the SVC and IVC, RA and RV and
    PA. With a left to right shunt across the VSD, one will generally detect an increase in oxygen saturation of
    more than 8% when going from the RA to the RV and PA
  • RV pressure tracing will have left sided pressures (peak > 100)
  • There will be v waves in the PCWP in papillary muscle rupture
    DIsorders in which pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAW) and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure may be discordant
Conditions in which PAW>LVEDP
Mitral stenosis
Left atrial myxoma
Pulmonary embolus
Mitral valve regurgitation
Pulmonary venocclusive disease

Conditions in which PAW25 mmHg) LVEDP
Aortic valve regurgitation

Conditions in which PAW does not approximate PCWP
(More than 1-4 mmHg difference)
Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
Pulmonary hypertension
Cor pulmonale
Pulmonary embolus
Eisenmenger's syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Pt with HIV and a variceal bleed.
    a. 3 ways that make a health care worker exposure be considered high risk
    b. When do you start prophylaxis? (In ideal circumstance)
    c. What do you offer prophylaxis until?
A

Risk factors for seroconversion:
In general:
- Source has high viral load
- Large volume of bodily fluid exposure to mucous membrane or nonintact skin (i.e blood, bloody fluids, viral cultures, potentially infected body fluids: CSF, synovial, pleural, peritoneal, amniotic, pericardial fluid)
- Deep exposure (highest risk is percuteneous innoculation- needlestick or cut)
o High risk percutaneous exposure: high-risk sharps: hollow bore needles, device with blood on it, needle that was in an artery or vein of the source patient
- Fluids not considered infectious unless they contain blood: feces, nasal secretions, saliva, gastric secretions, sputum, sweat, tears, urine.
Post exposure management:
- Immediate cleansing of infected site: soap, water, alcohol based antiseptic (virucidal)
- Determine HIV status of the source

  • Start PEP within 1-2 hours of exposure (benefit is diminished after 24-36 hours)
  • Bloodtesting at baseline, six weeks, three months, six months following exposure with or without PEP
  • If taking PEP, blood testing at two and four weeks to evaluate for drug toxicity (hepatitis, hyperglycemia,
    pancytopenia, nephrolithiasis)
  • PEP should be continued for 4 weeks or until HIV status of source is confirmed to be negative (by Western blot)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

25.Pt in community hospital with Necrotizing pneumonia. CXR with R lung abscess. Two days later, new CXR
that showed a popped abscess with pneumothorax.

a. What happened?
b. 2 things to do prior to transfer?

A
  • Erosion of abscess through visceral pleura causing pneumothorax

Things to do before transfer:
- Decompress with chest tube, and drain empyema from abscess communication
- If intubated, use saline in ETT cuff (expansion of gas if air transported)
- Antibiotic coverage if not already done: Common pathogens that cause lung abscesses include:
o Oral anaerobes: Peptostreptococcus, Prevotella, Bacteroidies (usually not fragilis), Fusobacterium
o Non anerobes: Streptococcus milleri, Staphlococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptococcus
pyogenes, Haemophilus influenzae, Legionella, Nocardia, Actinomyces, Mycobacteria, fungi (Aspergillus,
Cryptococcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

26.Trauma patient with a pulmonary contusions, and hemoptysis. Intubated and chest tube inserted.
Transfer via fixed wing pressurized to 8000 ft. Balloon in ETT filled with saline. Chest tube clamped.
Initially FiO2 80% and PEEP 15 with SpO2 92%. However, as PIP is 40, the PEEP is dropped to 10. Soon
afterwards, FiO2 is 100% and SpO2 still 80%. 5 differentials why.

A

Mechanisms of hypoxemia:

  • Shunt: (blood, pus, water, atelectasis)
    o Expanding pneumothorax, atelectasis and decreased tidal volume from decreased PEEP
    o Worsening inflammation from contusion causing alveolar edema
    o Worsening hemoptysis causing blood in alveoli
  • Increased deadspace:
    o Overdistension causing compression of alveolar vessels
  • Low FiO2: less likely in this case since it’s 100%, but PaO2 decreases with increasing altitude
  • Right to left shunt: from high PVR from overdistension could open a PFO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. 60 yo pt with NSTEMI. HD stable. PMH has afib with INR 2.5 from warfarin. Refuses PCI under all circumstances.
    a. Pt is allergic to ASA. What do you give him/what dose?
    b. When can you started UFH on him?
A

plavix (or ticagrelor) and arrange for ASA desensitization ASAP!

“A general guide is not to initiate anticoagulant therapy until the international normalized ratio (INR) is less than 2.0.
However, antiplatelet therapy should be initiated even in patients therapeutically anticoagulated with warfarin, especially if an invasive strategy is planned and implantation of a stent is anticipated. In situations where the INR is supratherapeutic, the bleeding risk is unacceptably high, or urgent surgical treatment is necessary, reversal of the anticoagulant effect of
warfarin may be considered with either vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma as deemed clinically appropriate on the basis of physician judgment.”

24
Q
  1. What can be done to improve lung donation success?
    a. Peri-procurement interventions:
    b. Post-procurement:
A

Donor management:

  • Lung protective ventilation: Vt 6-8 mL/kg, PEEP 8-10, Plateau pressures <30 cmH20, alveolar recruitment maneuvers as required
  • FiO2 for SaO2 >95%, PaO2 >80 mmHg
  • Euvolemic fluid strategy
  • Antibiotics for positive culture or highly suspected cases of pneumonia
  • Hormonal resuscitation (steroids in particular)

Lung preservation after procurement:
- For protection against ischemia, cold storage and reperfusion
- Hypothermic pulmonary artery flush with preservative solution and topic administration of cold solution (4-8C):
uniformly cools lung tissue, removes blood from pulmonary vascular bed to prevent thrombosis and endothelial injury
from retained neutrophils
- Injection of prostaglandins into the pulmonary artery before preservation solution flushing to offset cold induced vasoconstriction and down regulation of proinflammatory cytokines.
- Inflation of lung to 50%: maintains aerobic metabolism, preserves surfactant, improves epithelial fluid transport
- Storage at 4-8C with <8h ischemic time ideally

Post operative management:
Ventilatory support and weaning:
- Limitation of PEEP in single lung transplants for COPD or emphysema to prevent overinflation of compliant native lung
Hemodynamics:
- Some degree of pulmonary edema is almost universal, maintain fluid balance
Immunosuppression:
- Achieved with cyclosporine, azathioprine, methylprednisolone
- NB infectious complications remains the leading cause of death at all time points after lung transplantation.
Donor matching:
- Donors with CMV antibodies may be associated with increased mortality in lung transplants
- Some data suggesting improved transplant survival for race matching

25
Q

35.Recent meta-analysis showing subglottic suction decreases VAP (RR 0.55). What 2 other outcomes does it
improve?

A

Muscedere et a. Subglottic secretion drainage for the prevention of ventilator associated pneumonia: a systematic review and metaanalysis. Crit Care Med. 2011;39:198-91

13 RCTs with 2422 patients
Overall risk ratio for VAP = 0.55
Reduced ICU LOS p=0.03
Decreased duration of mechanical ventilation p=0.03
Increased time to first episode VAP p=0.001

26
Q

36.4 complications with using LMA

A
  • Gastric insufflation
  • Aspiration
  • Failure to ventilate and oxygenate due to cuff leak with suboptimal head position
  • Upper airway trauma
  • Nerve and laryngeal injury
27
Q
  1. Pt in ICU 3 months ago with trach. Comes back SOB and can’t lie flat. Bronch showing tracheal stenosis.
    a. Dx?
    b. What 2 interventions are options
A

Tracheomalacia is a well described long term complication of prolonged tracheal intubation. The pathophysiology is thought to relate to thinning and destruction of cartilaginous tissues due to elevated cuff pressures. Similar to tracheal stenosis, it occurs weeks to months after the initial intubation.

Clinical manifestations:
- Dyspnea, cough, sputum retention, wheezing stridor
- Forced expiration, cough, recumbency, valsalva can elicit signs of tracheomalacia
Diagnosis:
- Bronchoscopy: mild- 50% occlusion of trachea with expiration, moderate- 75% occlusion, severe- anterior and posterior walls touch

Tracheal stenosis

Treatment:
- Asymptomatic patients do not need treatment
- For symptomatic patients:
o Resection and reconstruction (especially if also associated with tracheal stenosis)
o Stent insertion
o Tracheostomy
o Positive pressure ventilation
Treatment of tracheal stenosis: tracheal dilation, stent, laser resection/cryotherapy/electrocautery, tracheostomy

28
Q
  1. TRICC trial
    a. Transfusion targets
    b. What was the results
    c. What’s the limitation of this trial (based on how Canada processes its blood)
A

Restrictive: 1u pRBC when Hb < 70g/L, Hb concentration was maintained in range of 70-90 g/L
Liberal: 1u <100 g/L, Hb concentration maintained in range of 100-120 g/L
- Red cells were leukodepleted, and volumes were 240-340 mL.
- Adherence to transfusion protocols was required only during the patient’s stay in the ICU
Primary outcome: death from all causes in the 30 days after randomization
Results:
- Non significant lower mortality rates in ICU, hospital stay, and 60 day mortality in restrictive group.
- All outcomes in the two groups were similar for the patients > 55yo and for those with APACHE II >20.
o 30 day mortality was significantly lower in the restrictive group among patients with an APACHE II <20, and among the patients <55 yo. (early separation of KM curves)
o No significant differences in 30 day mortality between treatment groups in the subgroup of patients with a
primary or secondary diagnosis of cardiac disease.
- Questions re: if these effects are due to leukoreduced blood that is standard in Canada.

29
Q

3 scenarios for using nitric oxide

A
  • Treatment of pulmonary hypertension
  • Adjunctive therapy to improve oxygenation in ARDS
  • Post operative acute RV failure after cardiac surgery
  • Acute vasodilator testing in pulmonary hypertension

Adverse effects:

  • Airway inflammation form production of nitrogen dioxide
  • Hypoxemia from methemoglobinemia (doses >20 ppm)
  • Abrupt discontinuation can cause rebound pulmonary hypertension
30
Q

41.Cdiff

a. Treatment strategy of severe cdiff (WBC 18) (include drugs with dosages)
b. Severe cdiff with ileus (drugs with dosages)

A

Vanco 500mg PO QID
metronidazole 500mg IV q8H
Vanco 500mg in 100mL saline PR q6H

Fulminant CDI treatment (fulminant previously called severe is characterized by hypotension, shock, ileus or megacolon):
For fulminant CDI, vancomycin administered orally is the regimen of choice (strong recommendation, moderate quality of evidence). If ileus is present, vancomycin can also be administered per rectum (weak recommendation, low quality of evidence). The vancomycin dosage is 500 mg orally 4 times per day and 500 mg in approximately 100 mL normal saline per rectum every 6 hours as a retention enema. Intravenously administered metronidazole should be administered together with oral or rectal vancomycin, particularly if ileus is present (strong recommendation, moderate quality of evidence). The metronidazole dosage is 500 mg intravenously every 8 hours.

If surgical management is necessary for severely ill patients, perform subtotal colectomy with preservation of the rectum (strong recommendation, moderate quality of evidence). Diverting loop ileostomy with colonic lavage followed by antegrade vancomycin flushes is an alternative approach that may lead to improved outcomes (weak recommendation, low quality of evidence).
31
Q
  1. Pelvic trauma requiring embolization

a. 2 complications of pelvic trauma not related to embolization

A

Fracture related injuries:

  • Urethral injury
  • Bladder rupture
  • Iliac vessel injury
  • Rectal injury
  • Vaginal injury
  • Perineal injury
  • Nerve injury
32
Q

47.Schizophrenic patient on Haldol and lithium at home. Also has psychogenic polydipsia where he drinks 22
L per day. Initially Na 107. Lithium 0.5. Initially unresponsive (stares blankly) but unimpressive neuro
exam. Admitted to psych. 2 days later, Na 127, Lithium 1.5. ICU called as he has depressed LOC/
opthisotonia/hypertonic/clonus. Top 5 differential.

A
  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (can have opthisotonia)
  • Chronic lithium toxicity (can have opthisotonia)
  • Osmotic demyelination syndrome from overcorrection of sodium (formerly central pontine myelinolysis)
  • seizure
  • meningitis

-??drug induced dystonia
???- Serotonin syndrome (less likely, they lack rigidity)

33
Q

48.38 yo F patient G3P3 giving birth at 37 weeks. Vaginal. Then has hypotension, CV collapse, and labs
consistent with DIC. Bilateral lung infiltrates. Requires NE. PaO2 50, pH 7.2, pCO2 20
a. what is your diagnosis?
b. 2 differential of pregnancy cause of bilateral lung infiltrates
c. Pathophysiology of hypotension in this patient?

A

amniotic fluid embolism

Bilateral infiltrates in pregnancy DDX:

  • Pulmonary edema: tocolytics, peripartum cardiomopathy, preeclampsia/eclampsia
  • Community acquired pneumonia
  • Aspiration
  • Amniotic fluid embolism, venous embolism
Amniotic Fluid Embolism:
Risk factors:
- Precipitous or tumultuous labour
- Advanced maternal age
- Instrumental or cesarean delivery
- Placenta previa and abruption
- Grand multiparity (>= live or still births)
- Cervical lacerations
- Fetal distress
- Eclampsia
- Medical induction of labour

Pathophysiology:
- Amniotic fluid enters maternal circulation though endocervical veins, placental insertion site, or through uterine trauma
- Cardiogenic shock:
o Hypothesised that there is initial acute pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular failure from amniotic fluid causing vasospasm of pulmonary vasculature, then LV dysfunction (unclear cause: possibly
inflammatory mediators or direct toxicity to myocardial cells)
o Also possibly vasodilatory shock: anaphylactoid in nature
- Respiratory failure:
o Severe V/Q mismatch appears to be the primary cause of hypoxemia
o Bronchospasm in 15% of patients
o Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in 70% of patients: may be due to capillary leak (high protein concentration
in edema fluid and the presence of amniotic fluid debris in the sputum and alveolar spaces
- Inflammation:
o Inflammatory reaction to amniotic fluid from fetal antigens

Clinical Presentation:
- Onset of signs and symptoms commonly occurs during L&D or immediately postpartum- within 30 mins
- Major clinical findings:
o Hypotension: due to cardiogenic shock
o Hypoxemia
o Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: present in 80% of patients.

Differential Diagnosis:

  • Obsterical: placental abruption, uterine rupture, uterine atony, eclampsia, peripartum cardiomyopathy
  • Anesthetic: high spinal anesthesia
  • Non obstetrical: pulmonary embolism, air embolism, anaphylaxis, septic shock, massive aspiration, transfusion reaction, myocardial infarction

Diagnosis:

  • Clinical diagnosis based on constellation of findings
  • Amniotic debris (squamous cells, trophoblastic cells, mucin, lanugo) can sometimes be found in blood samples drawn from the distal port of a PAC- fetal debris can be seen in women without amniotic fluid embolism syndrome.

Management:
- Supportive care: oxygenation, hemodynamic support

34
Q
  1. TTP
    a. 2/5 criteria that’s necessary for dx
    b. What’s the underlying pathophysiology
    c. What’s the primary treatment?
A

Diagnosis:
- Clinical: Requires only thrombocytomenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia without another clinically apparent etiology
o Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (nonimmune hemolysis with prominent schistocytes- an absolue number cannot be used to exclude a diagnosis of TTP-HUS)
o Thrombocytopenia, often with purpura but not usually severe bleeding
o Renal function may be normal, but AKI may be present (renal thrombotic microangiopathy, urinalyis usually
normal)
o Neurologic abnormalities including fluctuating are common, but pts can also have no neurologic
abnormalities (most common are confusion or severe headache, less common are TIA stroke)
o Fever is rare

  • Clinical syndromes:
    oAcquired autoimmune TTP: due to autoantibody inhibition of ADAMTS 13 activity:
    -Allows for the accumulation of ultra large VWF multimers which ADAMTS 13 usually degrades. Accumulation of ULWVF multimers causes platelet aggregation and platelet thrombi. There are also patients who have reduced ADAMTS13 activity due to mutations.

oBlood diarrhea from Shiga toxin, E. coli O157:H7

o Pregnancy: triggers acute episodes in pts with congenital or acquired severe ADAMTS13 deficiency

o Dose dependent toxicity: cyclosporine, gemcitabine, mitomycin C, tacrolimus

o Quinine induce disease (quinine water, tonic water, etc): immune mediated

  • Mimics:
    o Vasculitis
    o Catastrophic APLA (widespread microvascular and macrovascular changes due to intravascular thrombosis.
    Lupus anticoagulant prolongs aPTT and sometimes PT)
    o Scleroderma renal crisis: can have microangiopathic hemolysis and thrombocytopenia
    o Malignant hypertension
    o Complement mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome
    o DIC (TTP usually have normal levels of coagulation components and little or no prolongation in aPTT or PT
    because platelet consumption is due to endothelial injury or primary increase in platelet activation without
    coagulation cascade activation)

Treatment:
Plasma exchange: mainstay of treatment.
- Should be initiated even if there is some uncertainty about the diagnosis since the potential dangers of rapid
deterioration from TTP-HUS exceed the significant risks of plasma exchange.
- Removes the circulating autoantibody to ADAMTS13 (when present) and circulating very high molecular weight vWF multimers (which cause platelet aggregation and deposition of platelet-rich thrombi in tissues)
- Infusing of donor plasma supplied the missing ADAMTS13 protease (which cleaves large VWF)
- Superior to plasma infusion, but plasma can be used to temporize

35
Q

50.38 yo guy presents with bilateral infiltrate severe hypoxemic failure. 5 differential dx of pulmonary causes
of ARDS.

List 5 non-pulmonary causes of ARDS

A
Aspiration
Sepsis
Infectious pneumonia
Severe trauma
Near drowning
Severe burns
Smoke inhalation
TRALI
Pulmonary contusion/trauma

Non-pulmonary
Pancreatitis
Venous air embolism Cardiopulmonary bypass
Amniotic fluid embolism/Fat embolism Drug overdose or drug reaction (ASA, cocaine, TCA)
Neurogenic pulmonary edema
Following bone marrow transplantation

36
Q

51.3 mechanisms hyperglycemia causes its harm.

  • Hyperglycemia consistently promotes inflammation
    Hyperglycemia is associated with poor outcomes:
    Trauma: increased mortality, hospital LOS, ICU LOS, incidence of nosocomial infection
    TBI: worse neurological outcomes
    Medical/surgical: higher mortality
A
  • Impaired neutrophil function, reduced degranulation —> Increased risk of infection
  • Free fatty acids generated by hyperglycemia and insulin deficiency result in endothelial dysfunction and the generation of reactive oxygen species
  • Hyperglycemia consistently promotes inflammation

Hyperglycemia is associated with poor outcomes:

  • Trauma: increased mortality, hospital LOS, ICU LOS, incidence of nosocomial infection
  • TBI: worse neurological outcomes
  • Medical/surgical: higher mortality
37
Q

52.What are 3 risks of sedation breaks in a patient whose target RASS is -2? (ref to Kress’ paper)

A
-pt removal of ETT
others not measured in Kress' study:
     -myocardial ischaemia
     -intracranial HTN
     -bronchospasm

Kress et al. Daily interruption of sedative infusions in critically ill patients undergoing mechanical ventilation. N Engl J Med. 2000; 342:1471-7

RCT of 128 patients, mechanically ventilated on IV infusions of sedatives
Intervention: daily interruption of sedative infusions until the patients were awake vs control: infusions interrupted only at the discretion of clinicians

Outcomes: Significantly decreased median duration of mechanical ventilation, medial LOS in ICU

Potential benefits to sedation:
- Alleviate anxiety/improve comfort, decrease excessive oxygen consumption, facilitate nursing care,

38
Q

53.Intubated patient on beta blockers with stress induced hyperglycemia. Started on insulin drip. Then goes hypoglycemia. How long do you need to stop insulin infusion for?

A

Safest glucose range is 7.7-10 mmol/L, so don’t start again until 10 mmol/L?

While most clinicians agree that such glycemic control is a desirable intervention, the optimal blood glucose range is as follows:

  • For hyperglycemic critically ill children and adults, we recommend against using a stringent intensive insulin therapy regimen to achieve a target blood glucose range of 4.4 to 6.1 mmol/L ((Grade 1A) for adults;(Grade 1B) for children). Rather, we suggest a blood glucose target of 7.7 to 10 mmol/L rather than a more stringent target or a more liberal target 10 to 11.1 mmol/L (Grade 2C). This preference is based upon clinical trials in critically ill children and adults that suggest that IIT is not beneficial and is associated with an increased risk of severe hypoglycemia.
  • To achieve the target blood glucose in adult patients, we minimize use of intravenous fluids (IVF) that contain glucose and administer insulin only when necessary. A widely accepted insulin regimen has not been established but short-acting insulin is preferred. The same basic principles apply in pediatric patients with the exception that children (particularly young children) generally require dextrose in maintenance IVF to ensure adequate glucose delivery to avoid hypoglycemia and provide nutrition. Other sources of glucose (eg, IV medications) should be limited in critically ill children.
39
Q

54.3 hormone problems causes by sleep deprivation

A

Measurable effects of sleep deprivation:
- Cognitive impairment: may result in long term neural changes if chronically sleep restricted.
- Changes in mood and judgement: often resolve when normal sleep is restored
- Respiratory physiology: depresses ventilatory responses to hypercapnia and hypoxia, decrease in inspiratory muscle
endurance
- Circadian factors: dysynchrony between sleepiness and nadir of body temperature
Consequences of sleep deprivation:

  • Cardiovascular morbidity: greater risk of hypertension, coronary artery calcification, MI, stroke. Thought to be due to
    proinflammatory relationship between sleep duration and cardiovascular disease.
  • Immunosuppression: immunodeficiency
  • Obesity
  • Hormone:
    o Decreased TSH peak and overall levels
    o Reduced fluctuation in growth hormone: overall increased exposure to GH causing anti-insulin effects and hyperglycemia
    o Reduced cortisol fluctuations: overall higher cortisol and more than usual evening cortisol- hyperglycemia
40
Q

55.44 yo construction worker with necrotic skin lesions. Few weeks nasal congestion, worsening dyspnea.
Has necrotic skin lesions (punctate lesions within red erythematous base) Intubated. Negative ANCA.
BAL negative for bacterial, viral and fungal. ESR 100.
Tree in Bud CT?
a. What is the CT finding
b. Differential of such CT findings
c. How do you confirm the dx?

A

Churg Strauss: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (EGPA)

Clinical Features:
Prodromal phase: atopic disease, allergic rhinitis, recurrent sinusitis, nasal polyposis, asthma
Eosinophilic phase; peripheral blood eosinophilia and eosinophilic infiltration of organs (lung and GI tract)
Vasculitic phase: vasculitis of medium and small vessels, extravascular granulomatosis, can include non specific symptoms of fever, weight loss, malaise.
Systemic Manifestations:
Upper airway and ear disease: present in 48% of patients with EGPA. Necrotizing lesions of the nasopharynx and upper airway are more characteristic of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, aka Wegeners)
Asthma and lung: asthma is the cardinal feature, lung findings can include: pleural effusions, pulmonary opacities, nodules (rarely cavitary), alveolar hemorrhage
Skin: One of the most common features: tender subcutaneous nodules on the extensor surfaces of the arm (especially hands, elbows and legs). Lesions can also be palpable purpura, macular or erythematous rash or hemorrhagic lesions
Cardiovascular: pericarditis, heart failure, valvular insufficiency
Thromboembolic disease: increased risk of VTE
Neurologic: peripheral neuropathy- mononeuritis multiplex
Renal: necrotizing glomerulonephritis
GI: eosinophilic gastroenteritis, GI bleeding
MSK: myalgias, migratory polyarthralgias

Diagnosis: Usually based on clinical suspicion because:
- Individual manifestations can occur in isolation

  • Lung parenchymal involvement is not universal
  • Only 40-60% of patients have ANCAs (p ANCA, MPO +)
    ACR criteria: 4 or more of:
  • Asthma
  • Greater than 10% peripheral eosinophils
  • Mononeuropathy or polyneuropathy
  • Migratory or transient pulmonary opacities
  • Paranasal sinus abnormality
  • Biopsy of blood vessel showing accumulation of eosinophils in extravascular areas
    Chest CT can show: diffuse interstitial or miliary opacities, pulmonary hemorrhage, nodular disease, transient patchy opacities (75%) looking like ground glass, septal thickening, peribronchial thickening.
    Biopsy is gold standard: vasculitis, extravascular granuloma, eosinophilic pneumonia

Treatment:

  • Systemic glucocorticoids
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • NB this could also be granulomatosis with polyangitis. Renal disease more prevalent in GPA
41
Q

56.How do you preoxygenate an obese person? (2 ways)

A
Optimize FRC:
o Upright position
o Spontaeously breathing
-use lubricated nasal trumpets
-BVM (can provide 90-100% FiO2, compared to ~70% with NRB)
-use NIPPV if above fails
42
Q

58.Hypertonic saline – 3 physiologic ways it benefits/prevents secondary injury

A

Increased intravascular tonicity draws water out of neurons thereby preventing swelling

  • Blood volume expander: increases MAP and cerebral blood flow, decreased blood viscosity
  • Increases vessel diameter and dehydrates RBCs (increasing deformability), thereby improving blood flow
  • Reduces leukocyte adhesion
43
Q

59.What are the 3 problems in trials showing PAC no benefit?

A

-Lack of standardization of response to hemodynamic values
-groups not balanced in terms of severity of illness
-interpretation of PA catheter was not uniform
o FACTT was done in ARDS/ALI patients only
- Delayed insertion of PAC (PAC-Man trial)
- Unclear control group (PAC-Man control group had a large number with some form of measured cardiac output)

Connors et al. The effectiveness of right heart catheterization in the initial care of critically ill patients. SUPPORT
Investigators. JAMA. 1996;276:889-97
This is a reference to the SUPPORT trial (JAMA), a prospective observational study published in 1996, which evaluated the
effect of pulmonary artery catheterization within the first 24 hours of admission to the ICU on patient survival. A statistical
tool, called a propensity score, was used to adjust for treatment selection bias. Patients who underwent right heart
catheterization had an increased 30-day mortality (odds ratio 1.24) compared to those who did not undergo the procedure.
Subgroup analysis did not reveal any group in which right heart catheterization was associated with an improved outcome.
Several possible explanations for these findings have been suggested:
- The study might not have adequately adjusted for an important confounding variable, such as vasopressor use.
- Use of the catheter might have been a marker for a more aggressive or invasive style of care, which could be
associated with higher mortality.
- Placement of a pulmonary artery catheter might have led to worse patient outcomes because of complications or
misinterpretation of the data obtained. There is a wide interobserver variability in the interpretation of
hemodynamic data, even among intensive care unit clinicians and anesthesiologists.
- Other limitations included the observational design and the focus on the use of the pulmonary artery catheter during
the first 24 hours, rather than later in the ICU stay.
Harvey et al. Assessment of the clinical effectiveness of pulmonary artery catheters in management of patients in intensive
care (PAC-Man): a randomised controlled trial. Lancet 2005;366:472-77
RCT with 1014 patients assigned to management with or without a PAC.
Results: no difference in hospital mortality between critically ill patients managed with or without a PAC. No difference
between LOS in ICU or hospital or organ days of support.
- Misinterpretation of PAC derived data
- Formulation of ineffective treatment plans
- No additional advantage gained from more detailed knowledge of hemodynamics

44
Q
  1. What’s the ideal nondepolarizing agent to use in a pt on steroids and aminoglycoside?
    a. What type of AC receptor does it work on?
    b. What 2 classes of drugs are part of reversal?
A

All neuromusclar blockers attach to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscles
Mivacurium is the shortest acting, but can accumulate in renal and hepatic failure. This may be the best to use since this patient already has two other risk factors for developing ICU myopathy

Cisatracurium is the second shortest acting, and can be used in hepatic or renal insufficiency

Depolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agents:
- Bind to cholinergic receptors on motor endplate, causing initial DEPOLARIZATION on the endplate membrane followed by blockade of the neuromuscular transmission. Because calcium is not resequestered in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, muscles are refractory to repeat depolarization until NMBAs diffuse from the receptor into the circulation and are hydrolysed by plasma pseudocholineserases. (succinylcholine)
o Complications: hypotension, tachycardia, bradycardia, ventricular arrhythmias, hyperkalemia (do not use in
pts with existing hyperkalemia, or in a acute phase of thermal injury: increased expression of extrajunctional
acetylcholine receptors in proportion to the magnitude of the burn = exaggerated potasium release), increased ICP and intraocular pressure (less common), malignant hyperthermia (rare, in patients with mutations in ryanodine receptor)

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular Blocking Agents:
- COMPETITIVELY INHIBIT the ACh receptor on the motor endplate. Drug binding to the ACh receptor either prevents the conformational change in the receptor or physically obstructs the ion channels so that the endplate potential is not generated. (cisatracurium, rocuronium, pancuronium, vecuronium)

Reversal of NMBA:
Succinylcholine (Depolarizing NMBA) is rapidly hydrolysed in the blood stream by pseudocholinesterase

Neosigmine can be used to reverse nondepolarizing NMBA (0.06-0.8mg/kg IV) after approximately 40% of neuromuscular function has returned.
- an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, which allows for ACh to accumulate and stimulate the neuromuscular junction, thereby competing with the nondepolarizing NMBA
Neostigmine side effects (cholinergic properties): bradycardia, excessive salivation and vomiting, bronchospasm, hypotension, abdominal cramping and diarrhea
- Atropine for bradycardia
- Glycopyrrolate (anticholinergic with muscarinic [smooth muscles, heart] and not nicotinic effects) for salivation
Physostigmine side effects are the same

45
Q
  1. Pain mgt
    a. What type of opioid receptor does fentanyl act on?
    b. Name 3 non-opioid adjuncts to pain management.
A

Three types of opioid receptors:
Mu: (1): supraspinal analgesia, bradycardia, sedation, (2): respiratory depression, euphoria, physical dependence (best analgesia from Mu binding)
Kappa: spinal analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation
Delta: spinal analgesia, respiratory depression
Fentanyl acts on Mu receptors

Non opioid analgesics:

  • Acetaminophen
  • Nefopam (not available in Can/USA)
  • ketamine
  • Non steroidal antiinflammatories
  • Neuropathic pain meds (carbamazepine, gabapentin, pregabalin) for neuropathic pain
  • massage
  • cold therapy
  • relaxation techniques

-We suggest NOT routinely using a COX-1 selective NSAID as an adjunct to opioid therapy for pain management in critically ill adults

46
Q

62.Aortic dissection
List 5 risk factors.
First 2 priorities to treat it?

A

Risk Factors:
- Preexisting aortic aneurysm
- Inflammatory diseases causing vasculitis (GCA, Takayasu, RA, syphilitic aortitis)
- Collagen disorders
- Bicuspid aortic valve (loss of elastic fibers in the media)
- Aortic coarctation, intrinsic paracoarctation aorta
- Turner syndrome
- CABG: rare complication
- Previous aortic valve replacement
- High intensity weight lifting
- Crack cocaine: abrupt transient hypertension
- Traumatic
Types of aortic dissection: (Stanford)
Type A: involves ascending aorta regardless of the site of the primary intimal tear (prox to L subclavian)
Type B: all other dissections distal to L subclavian)

Clinical manifestations: ascending aortic dissection:
- Acute aortic regurgitation most commonly heard along the RIGHT sternal border vs left in aortic regurgitation from
primary aortic valve disease
- MI from coronary occlusion: RCA most commonly involved, can cause complete heart block
- Tamponade: rupture into pericardial space
- Hemothorax: dissection through adventitial and hemorrhage into pleural space
- >20 mmHg variation in SBP between arms
- Stroke: extension of dissection into carotid arteries
- Horner’s syndrome: compression of superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
- Vocal cord paralysis: compression of left recurrent laryngeal nerve.

CXR findings of aortic dissections:

  • Mediastinal widening
  • Widening of aortic contour
  • Displaced calcification
  • Aortic kinking
  • Opacification of aorticopulmonary window.

CT scan:

  • Visualization of two distinct lumens with a visible intimal flap
  • Spiral CT may be more accurate than MRI or TEE in the detecting of aortic arch vessel involvement.

Treatment:
- Target HR 60 bpm, SBP <120 mmHg.
- Always treat with beta blocker first to decrease aortic wall shearing force by decreasing ventricular ejection dynamic:
decreases delta pressure/delta time and decreases risk of spontaneous rupture.
- Operative mortality for ascending aortic dissections in experienced centers 7-35%, 50% mortality with medical therapy only.
- Stents in complicate type B dissections are positioned to cover the intimal flap and seal the entry site of the dissection, resulting in thrombosis of the false lumen
- There is limited experience in endovascular stenting for acute type A dissections

47
Q
  1. TCA overdose
    a. Mechanism of QRS prolongation?
    b. 2 drugs to treat prolonged QRS
    c. 2 treatments for refractory hypotension
A

Pharmacology:
- Blockade of cardiac fast sodium channels in the HIs-purkinje system:
o Decreases conduction velocity, increases duration of repolarization: PR and QT prolongation, bundle branch
blocks
o Can result in VT and VF
o Cardiac toxicity is present if:
1) QRS >100 msec (most prominent ECG manifestation)
2) abnormal QRS morphology (deep-slurred S waves in leads I and AVL)
3) abnormal size and ratio of R and S waves in AVR (R>3mm; R:S ratio in AVR > 0.7)

Management:
Initial resuscitation:
- Sodium bicarbonate for cardiac toxicity: 2-3 50mL of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate, during the infusion, the QRS should narrow. Start infusion after bolus therapy
o Goal pH is 7.50-7.55
o Taper bicarbonate therapy after resolution of ECG changes
o Benefit likely due to increase in serum pH (favours non-ionized form of drug which prevents binding to
sodium channels) and increase in extracellular sodium (attenuates sodium blockade)

Gastric decontamination: activated charcoal recommended if within 2 hours of ingestion

Refractory hypotension:
- Vasopressors: use norepinephrine or phenylephrine to counter the alpha adrenergic antagonist effects of TCAs [Direct-acting alpha adrenergic agonists (eg, norepinephrine or phenylephrine) are preferred because they counter the alpha adrenergic antagonist effects of TCAs. The IV infusion of the selected vasopressor is titrated to effect.]
- Hypertonic saline: can be used if refractory to sodium bicarb and aggressive fluids, vasopressor. Can improve
hypotension but no evidence that it improves arrhythmias

Refractory arrhythmias:

  • Magnesium can be used as an adjunct
  • Lidocaine can also be used, but is not first line therapy.

Severe hemodynamic instability and impending cardiac arrest:
- Lipid emulsion: not established therapy, but can be used if all other therapies do not work.

48
Q
  1. Other than hypoxemia, what are 2 reasons CO2 worsens when giving O2 to a pt with COPD?
    a. 3 things that shift O2 curve to the left
A
  • Haldane effect: decreased hemoglobin affinity to CO2 = rightward displacement of the CO2-hemoglobin dissociation
    curve in the presence of increased oxygen saturation: oxyhemoglobin binds CO2 less effectively than deoxyhemoglobin thereby increasing the amount of CO2 dissolved in blood, which in turn determines PaCO2
  • Increased dead space ventilation: Probably reflects worsening V/Q matching due to a loss of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction, which serves to limit blood flow to poorly ventilated units and redirect blood flow to units with high V/Q ratios at baseline

Left shift = INCREASED oxygen affinity

  • Increased pH
  • Decreased CO2
  • Decreased 2,3 DPG
  • Decreased temperature

Right shift = DECREASED oxygen affinity
- Decreased pH: Bohr effect = oxygen is more easily released at the tissue level due to higher CO2 and lower pH,
oxygen is more easily taken up in the pulmonary circulation where the pH is higher due to the efflux of CO2
- Increased CO2 (independent of pH): deoxyhemoglobin forms carbamino complexes (CO2 + free amino groups on heme) more readily than oxyhemoglobin.
- Increased 2,3-DPG: decreases oxygen affinity by stabilizing deoxyhemoglobin. Increased 2,3 DPG states include hypoxemia, anemia, hyperthyroidism
- Increased temperature: elevated body temperature helps to unload oxygen at the tissue t a time when oxygen
requirement is likely to be increased.

49
Q

66.4 mechanisms that epi helps in anaphylaxis (?just 3 maybe)

A

Epinephrine:
- Alpha 1 adrenergic agonist effects: vasoconstriction, increased peripheral vascular resistance, decreased mucosal edema
- Beta 1 adrenergic agonist effects: increased inotropy and chronotropy
- Beta 2 adrenergic agonist effects: increased bronchodilation, decreased release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils
Dose: 0.3-0.5 mg of 1:1000 IM, 2-10 mcg/min IV

50
Q

67.Thyroid storm – 4 drugs to give

A

Treatment:
- Beta blocker: controls symptoms and signs induced by increased adrenergic tone
o Propanolol: 0.5-1mg over 10 minutes
o Esmolol: 250-500 mcg/kg, then infusion

  • Thionamide: blocks new hormone synthesis (within 1-2 hours of administration), do not affect preformed thyroid
    hormone in the gland
    o Propylthiouracil (PTU): also blocks T4-T3 conversion, may reduce T3 concentrations more rapidly: 200mg
    q4h po. Can be made into an IV formulation
    o Methimazole: longer duration of action and less hepatotoxic: 20 mg q4-6h po. Can be made into an IV
    formulation
  • Iodine solution: blocks release of T4 and T3 from the thyroid within hours.
    o Lugol’s solution 10 drops TID, delayed 1 hour after thionamide administration to prevent the iodine from
    being used as substrate for new hormone synthesis
  • Iondinated radiocontrase agent: inhibits peripheral converson of T4-T3
    o Not available in most countries
  • Glucocorticoids: reduce T4-T3 conversion, promotes vasomotor stability, treats potential associated relative adrenal insufficiency
    o Hydrocortisone 100mg IV q8h
51
Q

70.HSCT pt 12 days after with bilateral infiltrates/hypoxemia
Name 3 noninfectious causes

A
pre-engraftment
bacterial pneumonia
fungal pneumonia
aspiration pneumonia
engraftment syndrome
hyperacute GVHD
cardiogenic pulmonary edema (cardiotoxic meds)
DAH
TACO
TRALI
post-engraftment
bacterial pneumonia
mycobacterial pneumonia
CMV pneumonitis
respiratory viruses
fungal infection
DAH
connective tissue disease
COP
malignancy (lymphoma)
pulmonary VOD
drug toxicity
radiation pneumonitis

This is probably an allo transplant
Engraftment occurs at around d30

engraftment syndrome (The engraftment syndrome is a noninfectious complication that is reported in 7 to 10 percent of autologous HCT, but only rarely following allogeneic HCT [13]. It develops around 7 to 11 days following HCT during the time of neutrophil recovery [14]. The engraftment syndrome usually causes only mild symptoms, but can result in dyspnea, fever ≥38.3˚C, an erythematous maculo-papular rash (not attributable to a drug), weight gain, hypoxemia, and diffuse pulmonary opacities consistent with noncardiogenic pulmonary edema)

52
Q

71.Cyanide – 2 labs other than cyanide level that suggests this.

outline 4 aspects of mgmt.

A

lactate (high)
ScvO2 (high)

Epidemiology:

  • Fire
  • Industrial: metal extraction, photography, jewelry production

Pathophysiology:
- Turns off oxidative phosphorylation by binding to Fe3+ in cytochrome oxidase (poisons electron transport chain) = function hypoxia
- May also bind to hemoglobin causing cyanohemoglobin which cannot transport oxygen
- Anaerobic metabolism generates lactic acid
Kinetics:
- Rapid absorption through mucous membranes

  • Detoxified in vivo by:
    o Hydroxocobalamin (precursor to vit B12): combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin which is excreted in urine
    o Rhodanese in the liver and muscle uses thosulfate as a sulfur donor to convert cyanide to thiocyanate which
    is excreted in urine.
  • Due to decreased utilization of oxygen by tissues, venous oxyhemoglobin will be high.
    Laboratory evaluation:
  • Lactic acidosis due to inhibition of cellular respiration (with anion gap)
  • Venous PO2: decreased venous-arterial O2 gradient because peripheral tissues cannot use oxygen
  • Cyanide concentration: not often available in time to be useful. blood concentrations do not correlate with survival

Management:
- Activated charcoal for potassium cyanide ingestions
- Antidotes:
- Hydroxocobalamin:
o Binds intraellular cyanide with greater than cytochrome oxidase

  • Induction of metheoglobinemia:
    o Sodium nitrite, amyl nitrite, dimethylaminophenol (4-DMAP)
    o Fe3+ on methemoglobin is an alternate binding site for cyanide which competes with the site on the
    cytochrome complex.
    o Sodium nitrite 10mg/kg IV induced 10-20% metHb and is usually well tolerated.
    o Take into account the pt’s baseline hemoglobin
    o Side effects: hypotension, tachycardia
  • Sulfur donors:
    o Sodium thosulfate
    oTransforms cyanide to thiocyanate
    o High levels: psychosis, arthralgias, vomiting, myalgias
    Empiric treatment usually includes: hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulfate
    DO NOT give sodium nitrite in cases of potential carbon monoxide toxicity (makes oxygenation worse!)
53
Q

72.Glidescope – Most common complication. When does this happen?

A
  • oral trauma because you don’t visualize the ETT until it enters the screen
  • longer time for ETT insertion

The use of video laryngoscopes varies, depending upon the configuration of the blade. The blade most often is inserted
midline and no tongue sweep is required. With the Glidescope, once fully inserted, with the blade tip at the base of the tongue, the device is tilted slightly, rather than lifted, so that the tip of the blade is oriented directly towards the epiglottis.
Only a slight lift, if any at all, is applied since the curve of the blade corresponds to the shape of the airway.
When using the Glidescope®, time to intubation longer compared with a lighted stylet, but differences in these parameters
are minimal when compared with Macintosh blade DL or flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy (FFB). Complications occur
infrequently with the Glidescope® because structures are under direct visualization and little lifting force is used. Those
reported include pharyngeal trauma from placement of the ETT (blind insertion of the ETT into the oral cavity)

54
Q

73.New devices assessing volume responsiveness (uses art line)

a. What 3 things must be true for these devices to reflect volume responsiveness? (e.g. normal sinus
rhythm, no spontaneous ventilation)

A
  • Pulse pressure variation, systolic pressure variation
  • Must be in sinus rhythm, Volume controlled mode of ventilation, at least 8ml/kg tidal volume and no spontaneous breathing efforts.
55
Q
  1. Post op open # patient with bluish wound and Hb goes from 90 to 40.
    a. Bug?
    b. Cause for anemia?
    i. Severe hemolysis.
    ii. Other organisms that cause hemolysis:
A

Extrinsic non-immune hemolytic anemia due to systemic disease

A number of systemic disorders can be associated with shortening of red blood cell (RBC) lifespan due to abnormalities in the RBC’s environment, a condition called extrinsic hemolytic anemia (EHA).

●Infection – Infection causes EHA through the following mechanisms:
•Direct parasitization of RBCs (eg, malaria, bartonellosis, babesiosis)
•RBC damage due to the release of bacterial products with hemolytic activity (eg, Clostridium perfringens and Haemophilus influenzae type b)
•Induction of hypersplenism (eg, malaria)

Infection:
Parasitization
- Malaria
- Bartonellosis
- Babesiosis
- Leishmaniasis

Bacterial products
- Clostridium perfringens: releases enzymes that acutely degrade the phospholipids of the RBC membrane.

o Common scenarios include: GI or GU abscess following recent abdominal surgery
o Complication of medical, surgical, spontaneous abortion
o Intravascular hemolysis can be extreme and examination of the peripheral blood smear may reveal spherocytes and hemolyzed “ghost” red cells.
oTreat with full doses of penicillin PLUS clindamycin
- Hemophilus influenzae type B

56
Q
  1. Woman who is confused with echolalia. All labs/blood cultures normal.
    a. What two investigations must be done?
    b. If she has ovarian cancer, what would the concern be?
A

LP
MRI/CT/US pelvis looking for ovarian teratoma

echolalia - meaningless repetition of another person’s spoken words as a symptom of psychiatric disorder

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis — Anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) encephalitis is associated with a
predictable set of symptoms that combine to make up a characteristic syndrome. Many patients present with prodromal headache, fever, or a viral-like process, followed in a few days by a multistage progression of symptoms that include:
- Prominent psychiatric manifestations (anxiety, agitation, bizarre behavior, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized
thinking); isolated psychiatric episodes may rarely occur at initial onset or at relapse

o Insomnia
o Memory deficits
o Seizures
o Decreased level of consciousness, stupor with catatonic features
o Frequent dyskinesias: orofacial, choreoathetoid movements, dystonia, rigidity, opisthotonic postures
o Autonomic instability: hyperthermia, fluctuations of blood pressure, tachycardia, bradycardia, cardiac pauses,
and sometimes hypoventilation requiring mechanical ventilation.
o Language dysfunction: diminished language output, mutism. Echolalia is often noted in the early stages or in the recovery phase of the disorder.
Patients may require intensive care support for several weeks or months, and afterwards a multidisciplinary team including physical rehabilitation and psychiatric management of protracted behavioral symptoms. The latter include symptoms of
frontal lobe dysfunction (poor attention and planning, impulsivity, behavioral disinhibition, memory deficits) that progressively improve over months. Milder forms of the disorder have been described. Accompanying opsoclonus-myoclonus has been described in at least two patients. Of note, isolated opsoclonus-myoclonus without encephalitis has been described in patients with ovarian teratoma, but these patients do not have NMDAR antibodies.
The disorder should be suspected in adults or children that develop the above symptoms usually accompanied by:
- CSF lymphocytic pleocytosis or oligoclonal bands (although CSF can be normal initially).
- EEG with infrequent epileptic activity, but frequent slow, disorganized activity that does not correlate with most abnormal movements.
- Brain MRI that is often normal or shows transient FLAIR or contrast enhancing abnormalities in cortical (brain, cerebellum) or subcortical regions (hippocampus, basal ganglia, white matter). While not routinely performed, positron emission tomography reportedly shows a characteristic change of increased fronto-to-occipital gradient of cerebral
glucose metabolism which correlates with disease severity.
The diagnosis of anti-NMDAR encephalitis is confirmed by the detection of antibodies to NR1 subunit of the NMDAR in
serum or CSF
The detection of an ovarian teratoma is age-dependant; approximately 50 percent of female patients older than 18 have uni- or bilateral ovarian teratomas while less than 9 percent of girls younger than 14 years have a teratoma
Resection of the tumor, glucocorticoids, intravenous immune globulin, and plasma exchange often result in improvement usually within four weeks

57
Q
  1. A woman with an ICD receives blunt trauma. Her HR is 90 SR and her ICD keeps on going off.
    a. What is the most likely cause? (Lead # with over sense?)
    b. What is the quickest way to treat?
A

inappropriate shocks (lead fracture, loose screws, direct ICD damage)
- Can also be due to sensing of atrial arrhythmias, physiologic triggers (diaphragm)
Quickest way to treat: put a magnet over ICD- inhibits further ICD discharge (but does not inhibit pacing, pacing reverts to
asynchronous mode)