2011 Flashcards
*1. A security guard sustains a left thoraco-abdominal stab wound. He is alert, talking and hemodynamically stable. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender. The most appropriate management would be?1) observation2) diagnostic peritoneal tap3) CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis4) laparotomy
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- Which of the following statements about the use of pulmonary artery catheters in high-risk surgical patients is TRUE?1) the incidence of renal failure is lower2) perioperative mortality is lower3) the length of stay is not affected4) the amount of fluid administration is lower
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- A 52 year old diabetic man presents with a chronic ulcer on the dorsal aspect of the left foot. Examination of the wound shows that it probes to bone. The test with the greatest accuracy for the diagnosis of osteomyelitis is?1) plain x-ray2) technician bone scan3) CT scan4) MR scan
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- A 65 year old non-diabetic man is admitted to the ICU following debridement of an extensive necrotizing soft tissue infection of the right leg. He is noted to have a blood glucose of 14 mmol/l and is started on an insulin infusion. All of the following contribute to his hyperglycemia, EXCEPT? 1) peripheral insulin resistance 2) increased hepatic gluconeogenesis 3) elevated levels of the counter-regulatory hormones (cortisol, glucagon, catecholamines) 4) decreased release of branch chain amino acids from skeletal muscles
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- Initial treatment of a post-operative headache 24 hours after spinal anesthesia for out-patient knee surgery includes all of the following, EXCEPT?1) oral fluids2) bed rest3) oral analgesics4) epidural blood patch by anaesthesia
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- Angiogenesis is important to all of the following conditions, EXCEPT?1) development of cartilage2) maintaining a chronic inflammatory state3) ulcer healing4) tumor growth
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*7. Which of the following statements regarding the focused assessment by sonography of trauma (FAST) examination is TRUE?1) it can reliably evaluate the retroperitoneum2) it can quickly detect the presence of pericardial fluid3) it is unable to assess the presence or absence of a pleural effusion4) it is useful in detecting a cardiac contusion
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- A 29 year old man suffers a midshaft fracture of his right femur in a motor cycle crash. The following day he is taken to the operating room for open reduction and internal fixation of his fracture with an intramedullary nail. His pre-operative haemoglobin is 80 and blood transfusion is initiated after the induction of anaesthesia. Thirty minutes later, the patient becomes hypotensive. No urine is noted in his Foley catheter. His surgical wound is noted to be abnormally oozy. The most likely cause of the situation is?1) fat embolism syndrome2) ABO incompatible blood transfusion3) blood loss from unrecognized intra-abdominal injury4) malignant hyperthermia
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- You wish to carry out a prospective randomized trial of laparoscopic appendectomy vs. open appendectomy. What would be the best clinical outcome measure to compare the two procedures?1) post-operative mortality (30 days)2) post-operative morbidity rate3) total cost of treatment4) post-operative health-related quality of life measures
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*10. A 27 year old refinery worker is brought to the Emergency Room after a large natural gas explosion at the plant. The best screening tool for diagnosing a primary blast injury in the patient is?1) chest x-ray2) otoscopic examination3) fundoscopic examination4) FAST ultrasound
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- Which of the following statements about activated Factor VII is TRUE?1) first line therapy for coagulopathy of trauma2) thrombotic complications do not occur3) effective in acidotic patients4) effective for reversal of warfarin anticoagulation
4found in cryoprecipitate
- A 44 year old woman with a history of seizure disorder pours a pan of hot grease over herself during a seizure. She has burns to her chin, chest and abdomen. On initial evaluation, her wounds are red with pale areas centrally, slow to blanch and dry in the central portion of the wound. This patient has most likely sustained a?1) superficial burn2) superficial partial-thickness burn3) deep partial-thickness burn4) full-thickness burn
3First degree: confined to the epidermis, painful, eythematous, blanch to touch, epidermal layer is intact.• Second degree, superficial: superficial dermis, painful, blanch and often blister; re-epitheliaze fromretained epidermal structures in rete ridges, hair follicles, and sweat glands; some discoloration.• Second degree, deep: into the reticular dermis, remain painful to pinprick, re-epitheliaze from sweatgland and hair follicle keratinocytes, severe scarring.Third degree, aka full thickness: hard leathery eschar that is painless, heal by re-epitheliazation fromedges.• Fourth degree: involves deeper organs/muscle
- Hypernatremia is sometimes seen in surgical patients. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the development of hypernatremia.?1) excessive sweating2) hyperlipidemia3) Lithium treatment4) glycosuria
2Hypernatremia is most common cause of hypertonicity.• Etiology: DI, burns, exfoliative dermatitis, vomiting (gastric Na 30 – 100), diarrhea (colon Na 60),fistulas, endoluminal tubes, diabetic KA (diuresis), hyperglycemic induced diuresis, sweating, fever,respiratory losses, inadequate AVP secondary to ethanol intoxication.• Thirst is such a powerful drive to correct this that it is often self-corrected. Problems occur in elderly,infants and unconscious patients that can’t drink when thirsty.• When these patients get hypotensive the kidneys can no longer produce hypertonic urine and thus theycan’t achieve a net water balance.
- A 65 year old man with a long-standing history of hypertension and a 25 year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an elective transuretheral prostate resection. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90. His electrocardiogram shows nonspecific ST segment changes. Appropriate cardiac intervention pre-operatively would include which of the following?1) obtain old medical records and any previous ECGs2) request a cardiology consultation3) obtain transthoracic echocardiogram4) start the patient on metoprolol and proceeded with surgery
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- Septic surgical patients undergo multiple changes in their metabolic functions. Which of the following changes is NOT seen in septic surgical patients?1) decreased need for linoleic and arachadonic acids2) increased proteolysis3) elevated resting energy expenditure4) positive nitrogen balance
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Schwarz
Severe trauma, burns, and sepsis are associated with increased protein catabolism. The rise in urinary nitrogen and negative nitrogen balance can be detected early after injury and peak by 7 days. This state of protein
catabolism may persist for as long as 3 to 7 weeks
- Which of the following products of surgical energy sources has been proven capable of transmitting viral infections to surgeons?1) electrocautery smoke2) laser plume3) ultrasonic scalpel vapor4) none of the above
2Laser plume has been shown, for the first time to our knowledge, to actually transmit disease. Strict care must be maintained by the laser practitioner to minimize potential health risks, especially when treating viral-induced lesions or patients with viral disease
- A 63 year old woman with known metastatic breast cancer to bones and liver, returns to see her surgical oncologist complaining of fatigueability, muscle weakness, anorexia, and nausea. The most likely cause of these symptoms is?1) depression related to her metastatic cancer2) hypercalemia secondary to bony metastases3) hypokalemia secondary to her chemotherapy4) metabolic alkalosis secondary to her chemotherapy
2”stones, bones, abdominal groans, thrones and psychiatric overtones”CNS• ↓ LOCNEUROMUSCULAR• Proximal muscle weakness• HyporeflexiaGI• A/N/V• Constipation• Paralytic ileus• PUD• PancreatitisRENAL• Polyuria (nephrogenic DI)• Nephrocalcinosis• NephrolithiasisCVS• HTN• Short QT• Exacerbates dig toxicityMSK• Bone pain
- Genomic instability increases the chance of specific gene mutations that are ultimately responsible for the various phenotypes of cancer cells. Which of the following statements about genomic instability is TRUE?1) the tumor suppressor gene p53 plays a critical role in maintaining genomic stability2) presence of the ras-oncogene causes genetic instability3) local over expression of TGF-ß may lead to genomic instability in areas of chronic inflammation4) DNA mismatch repair genes (MMR) can compensate for most causes of genetic instability
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- A 19 year old man is severely injured in a motorcycle accident. His major injuries are: subdural hematoma treated with craniotomy, a grade III liver laceration (no treatment) and a fracture of his left tibia and fibula managed with external fixation. On post-injury day seven, he develops tachycardia and hypoxemia. CT scan of the head, chest, abdomen and pelvis show a large pulmonary embolus in the right lung and right ventricular dilatation. This should be treated with?1) IV unfractionated heparin (high-dose)2) IV thrombolysis3) percutaneous mechanical thrombectomy4) placement of an IVC filter
4INDICATIONS FOR IVC FILTER• Absolute (5):1. Recurrent embolism despite anticoagulation2. DVT or embolism in patient with contraindication to anticoagulation3. Complication of anticoagulation that forces therapy to be stopped4. Recurrent PE with associated pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale5. Immediately after pulmonary embolectomy for massive PE• Relative (3):1. PE of more than ½ of pulmonary vascular bed in patient who cannot tolerate additional emboli2. Propagating ileofemoral thrombus despite anticoagulation3. High-risk patient with large free-floating iliofemoral thrombus on venogram
- All of the following may be acute complications of crush injury and rhabdomyolysis, EXCEPT?1) hypercalcemia2) hyperkalemia3) acidosis4) hypophosphatemia
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- A 32 year old woman presents six weeks after an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy for biliary colic. She has left sided abdominal pain. Nine years previously she had a cadaveric renal transplant for end stage renal failure. Abdominal CT scan demonstrates retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy. The most likely cause of this adenopathy is?1) secondary to recent surgery2) B-cell lymphoma3) T-cell lymphoma4) plasmacytoma
2POST TRANSPLANT COMPLICATIONSNEOPLASIA• NHL:HL lymphoma is higher in Tx patients than in non Tx patients.• B cell lymphomas are more common than T cell lymphomas.
- A 12 year old child undergoes spinal fixation for severe scoliosis. Post-operatively the hemoglobin is found to be 6gm/dL. The parents and child are Jehovah Witnesses and refuse all blood products. The next step should be?1) withhold all blood products2) transfuse packed red blood cells3) administer erythropoietin4) obtain psychiatric assessment of the patient’s competence to make this decision
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- A 60 year old type II diabetic on oral hypoglycemic drugs is scheduled for elective left total hip replacement. How should his diabetes be managed pre-operatively?1) take oral hypoglycemic drugs on the morning of the surgery and check blood glucose pre-operatively2) hold oral hypoglycemic drugs on the morning of the surgery and check glucose pre-operatively3) hold oral hypoglycemic drugs on the morning of the surgery and start IV D5W 50 cc/hr and insulin infusion on a sliding scale4) ask the medical consult service to convert the patient to insulin-therapy one week pre-operatively
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- A 54 year old patient undergoes a right hemicolectomy for cecal cancer. On post-operative day one his temperature is 38.0 C. He is asymptomatic. The patients work up should include which of the following?1) no work-up needed2) history and physical examination3) history, physical examination, urinalysis, chest x-ray and blood culture4) history, physical examination, urinalysis, chest x-ray, blood culture and CT abdomen and pelvis
1Atelectasis is often blamed as a cause but is likely not causal.Immediate—The potential causes of fever in the immediate operative and postoperative period are mainly limited to: medications or blood products to which the patient was exposed during preoperative care either in the operating room or in the recovery area; trauma suffered prior to surgery or as part of surgery; infections that were present prior to surgery; and rarely malignant hyperthermia.Adverse medication reactions that produce immediate fever include immune-mediated reactions, such as reactions to antimicrobials and to transfused blood products. (See “Drug fever”.) The vasodilation that often accompanies these reactions makes hypotension a common presenting sign; rash may accompany fever in some patients with medication reactions.The initial clinical signs (ie, hypercarbia) of malignant hyperthermia typically present within 30 minutes following the administration of a triggering agent (eg, inhaled anesthetics, succinylcholine), but have been reported later in the operative course and also following cessation of anesthesia. If the malignant hyperthermia response is not recognized and aborted with dantrolene, high fever may develop as result of hypermetabolism. (See “Malignant hyperthermia: Clinical diagnosis and management of acute crisis”.)Fever due to the trauma of surgery usually resolves within two to three days. The severity and duration of these self-limited postoperative fevers depends on the type of surgery [18,19], but tends to be greater in patients with longer and more extensive surgical procedures [12]. Fever caused by severe head trauma can be persistent and may resolve gradually over days or even weeks [20].uptodate
- Lactic acidosis is not uncommon in surgical patients. Which of the following statements concerning lactic acidosis is NOT true?1) lactic acidosis is usually a consequence of tissue hypoxia caused by hypoperfusion2) lactic acidosis is worsened in patients with hepatic insufficiency3) the treatment of lactic acidosis require the administration of sodium bicarbonate4) serial lactate levels are a useful indication of the adequacy of treatment of hypovolemic shock
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- A 60 year old alcoholic male is admitted to hospital because of GI bleeding. Investigations reveal a carcinoma of the cecum without metastatic disease. The patient refuses surgery and demands to be discharged from hospital. The surgeon should?1) seek advice from a medical ethisticist re: discharge2) ask for help from the hospital chaplain3) ask for a psychiatric assessment of competence4) discharge the patient
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- Following left knee arthroscopy, a 37 year old man develops a clinically obvious left femoral vein thrombosis confirmed by Doppler ultrasound. He is admitted to hospital and treated with IV infractionated heparin. On his third hospital day, he complains of right calf pain and is found to have a right femoral vein thrombosis as well. The likely explanation for this course of events is?1) inadequate heparin dosage2) patient has antithrombin III deficiency3) patient should not have been immobilized in hospital4) patient has protein C deficiency
2Hypercoagulable state (7):1. Trauma2. Pregnancy3. OCP (↑ VII, VIII, IX, X and ↓ antithrombin III, ↑ plt aggregation)4. Malignancy5. Inherited coagulation deficiencies (Factor V Leiden – aka resitance to APC - is most common, proteinC/S deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, lupus anticoagulant)6. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia7. Age > 40ANTITHROMBIN III DEFICIENCY• The most important plasma protease inhibitor.• Uncommon but significant risk for recurrent, life threatening thrombosis.• Most cases apparent before 50 yrs.• Can present with arterial thrombosis.• Antithrombin III is a serine protease inhibitor of thrombin (II), VIIa, IXa, Xa, XIa, and kallikreinin.• Suspect when patient cannot be adequately anticoagulated with heparin (heparin acts by potentiatingantithrombin III activity).• Dx: measure levels (heparin will ↓ antithrombin levels by 30% for up to 10 days) and activity.• Causes (7):1. Nephrotic syndrome (loss of factor)2. Liver disease (site of production)3. Malignancy4. Malnutrition5. Decreased protein production6. DIC7. Genetic (qualitative defects and quantitative defects)• Treatment of patient who needs anticoagulation: 1) antithrombin III concentrates (if available) or FFPwhile on heparin followed by 2) oral anticoagulants as per usual.
- A 36 year old, 22 week pregnant woman is involved in a motor vehicle crash and suffers a left femur fracture. This is repaired surgically. On post-operative day four she becomes acutely short of breath. Chest x-ray is normal and a pulmonary embolus is expected. The decision to start anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin should be based on which of the following investigations?1) pulmonary angiography2) ventilation perfusion scan of the lung3) CT thorax with PE protocol4) MR angiogram of the thorax
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*29. A 12 year old boy was intubated in the field for respiratory distress after a high speed bicycle collision. On arrival to the emergency room, he has ecchymosis over the sternum, good breath sounds bilaterally, and an O2 saturation of 99% (FI O2 1.0). He remains hypotensive (systolic blood pressure 90) despite ongoing resuscitation. FAST ultrasound of the abdomen is negative but considerable fluid is seen in the pericardial sac. The next step in management should be?1) CT thorax2) pericardial window3) median sternotomy4) laparotomy
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- Pre-operative invasive cardiac testing is MOST appropriate for?1) A 62 year old man scheduled for laparoscopic incisional hernia repair who has been asymptomatic since coronary bypass surgery one year ago.2) A 57 year old woman who has been scheduled for lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy who takes warfarin for rate-controlled atrial fibrillation.3) A 62 year old man who has a 6 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm admitted with back pain and 2 mm inferior wall ST-depression on ECG4) A 48 year old man scheduled for sigmoid colon resection for a diverticular stricture who has aortic stenosis and dyspnea on walking 100 feet
4All patients scheduled to undergo noncardiac surgery should have an assessment of the risk of a cardiovascular perioperative cardiac event (algorithm 1). (See ‘Our approach’ above.)●Identification of risk factors is derived from the history, physical examination, and type of proposed surgery. (See ‘Initial preoperative evaluation’ above.)●We use either the Revised (Lee) Cardiac Risk Index or the ACS-National Surgical Quality Improvement Program risk prediction rule to establish the patient’s risk. (See ‘Estimating perioperative risk’ above.)●We obtain an electrocardiogram in patients with cardiac disease in large part to have a baseline available should a postoperative test be abnormal. (See ‘Initial preoperative evaluation’ above.)●For patients with known or suspected heart disease (ie, cardiovascular disease, significant valvular heart disease, symptomatic arrhythmias), we only perform further cardiac evaluation (echocardiography, stress testing, or 24-hour ambulatory monitoring) if it is indicated in the absence of proposed surgery. (See ‘Further cardiac testing’ above.)uptodate
- A 92 year old woman with chronic renal insufficiency has a sudden onset of abdominal pain. While in the emergency room, she suffers a cardiac arrest but is resuscitated and intubated at the request of her family. Abdominal ultrasound shows a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. The family insists that this be repaired, but she has an advanced directive (living will) declining heroic measures. Which of the follow is the best option at this time?1) attempt repair of the aneurysm2) honor the patients advanced directive3) call for an ethics committee consultation4) ask the hospital lawyer to obtain an urgent judicial review of the situation
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- Chronic adrenal insufficiency, if unrecognized, can result in which of the following conditions in surgical patients?1) hypothermia2) hypertension3) hyperkalemia4) hyperglycemia
3ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY (‘ADDISONIAN CRISIS’)ETIOLOGY• Primary (6): autoimmune (most common in N/A), infection (most common in 3 rd world), vascular(hemorrhage, thrombosis, trauma), metastatic dz, deposition dzs (hemochromatosis, sarcoid, amyloid),drugs (ketoconazole, rifampin, anticonvulsants)• Secondary (3): pituitary failure, glucocorticoids (1-3 wks is enough to suppress for 8-12 months!),megestrol• Tertiary: hypothalamus failureSIGNS & SYMPTOMS• Fatigue• Weakness• Anorexia• Nausea & vomiting• Weight loss• Cutaneous and mucosal pigmentation• Hypotension → shock• Hypoglycemia• Decreased cold tolerance• Dizziness, syncope• ECG: ↓ voltage, prolonged PR and QT intervals• Early symptoms: weakness, fatigue, orthostatic hypotensionLABS• Na ↓• Cl ↓• Bicarb ↓• Hypoglycaemia• K ↑• +/- HypercalcemiaCOSYNTROPIN STIMULATION TEST• Used to distinguish primary from secondary/tertiary dz• Give synthetic ACTH (cosyntropin), then measure cortisol at 0, 30, 60 min• Baseline cortisol > 15 ug/dl = normal adrenal f’n (i.e. secondary/tertiary d/o)• Cortisol rise > 20 ug/dl = normal adrenal f’n (i.e. secondary/tertiary d/o)• Abnormal test = primary disorder (i.e. adrenal) or chronic secondary d/o (adrenal is so atrophied d/t lackof ACTH stimulation, it fails to respond)TREAMENT• IV volume & sugar replacement (D5NS)• Acutely: Dexamethesone 4 mg + hydrocortisone 100 mg q6h until condition stabilizes (no need formineralocorticoid replacement acutely – Sabiston)• Chronic/once acute phase has past: fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) + hydrocortisone
- A 55 year old man is admitted to hospital with acute uncomplicated sigmoid diverticulitis. He is treated with broad spectrum antibiotics. On day six of his hospital stay, he develops increasing abdominal pain, diarrhea, and an elevated white blood cell count. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?1) pseudo membranous colitis2) progression of the diverticulitis3) cytomegalovirus colitis4) antibiotic induced small bowel malabsorbtion
1(C. diff)
- Which of the following statements concerning interleukin-two (IL-2) is FALSE?1) the proliferation of T lymphocytes is inhibited by IL-22) IL-2 is produced by activated T lymphocytes3) NK cell cytotoxicity is augmented by IL-24) cytokine release by macrophages is stimulated by IL-2
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- Dose fractionation is frequently used when treating malignant tumors with radiotherapy. The reasons for dose fractionation include all of the following, EXCEPT?1) tumor cells are able to repopulate between treatments2) normal cells are able to repair damage between treatments3) tumor cells are redistributed through the cell cycle4) tumor cells become less hypoxic
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- Cigarette smoking is known to have a detrimental effect on wound healing. Which of the following statements is NOT true?1) smoking inhibits oxygen delivery to the wound by causing sympathomimetic vasoconstriction2) the use of nicoderm patches also causes sympathomimetic vasoconstriction3) smoking elevates carboxy hemoglobin levels in the blood resulting in less available oxygen in the wound4) smoking shifts the oxygen delivery curve to the right because of the poor affinity of carboxy hemoglobin for oxygen
4CO has 200 times more afinity for Hb
- The body’s response to hypothermia includes all of the following, EXCEPT?1) decreased platelet function2) tachycardia3) cardiac arrhythmias4) increased risk of wound infection
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