2007 with explanations (entire exam reviewed 2007) Flashcards
1- 55 year-old man presents with induration and erythema in the submandibular region, crossing midline. Patient complains of sore throat and increasing dysphagia but is otherwise sating well and not in any respiratory distress. Examination of oral cavity reveals induration and swelling at the floor of mouth, pushing the base of tongue posteriorly. What is the most appropriate next step.
- incision and drainage of submandibular region in the OR.
- transfer patient to ICU and perform rapid sequence intubation.
- transfer patient to OR for flexible bronchoscopic intubation and possible tracheostomy.
- send patient home.
Answer #3. The patient has Ludwig’s angina. A form of submandibular space infection. It is always bilateral, both submandibular and sublingual spaces are involved, rapidly spreading cellulitis without abscess formation – “woody” or brawny cellulitis. Clinically – dysphagia, drooling, leaning forward – can lead to rapid airway obstruction. Current treatments – 1. Flexible bronchoscopy in the OR – eventual tracheostomy is the best means of definitive airway control.
Source: Up To Date
2- 62 year old man presents with a scaly, ulcerated lesion at the tip of left pinna. Biospy was done in suspicion of malignancy. Biospy results come back as a benign tumor. What is the likely diagnosis?
- Merkel’s tumor
- Keratoacanthoma
- fibrodermosarcoma
- squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: #2. Keratoacanthoma mimics squamous cell ca. but its benign. Frequently the diagnosis is made on biopsy.
The relationship between Keratoacanthoma and scc is controversial. Currently dermatologist think that they should be classified differently as they usually involute and do not go on to malignancy.
Source: Am J Dermatopath. 2008
3- Which of the following is not associated with a patient who has a Pancoast tumor?
- Horner’s syndrome
- Adrenal hyperplasia
Answer: #2. A Pancoast tumor is a lung cancer that is located at the apex of the lung. If large enough it can cause compression to adjacent structures. I.e. brachiocephalic vein, subclavian artery, phrenic nerve, recurrent laryngeal nerve, vagus nerve, or characteristically, the sympathetic ganglion producing miosis, anhidrosis and ptosis = Horner’s syndrome.
4- 75 year old man presents with a pathologic fracture of left femur. Blood work shows hypercalcemia. X-rays show multiple lytic lesions. What is the likely diagnosis?
- osteosarcoma
- multiple myeloma
- osteoporosis
Answer #2.
5- Patient presents with hoarseness post extubation. History is consistent with a traumatic intubation. What is the most likely cause?
- cricoarytenoid dislocation
- compression injury to the superior laryngeal nerve
- endotracheal tube was too large
Answer #1. Pt presents with hoarseness, coughing. Most common cause is traumatic intubation – 80%.
Source: J. Voice 2005
6- Pregnant women presents with DVT in the left iliofemoral vein. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- warfarin
- heparin
- ASA
- none of the above
Answer #2. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy and heparin is safe.
7- Patient intubated in the ICU and on mechanical ventilation. He is on FiO2 of 75% with the following blood gas: PaO2 50, PCO2 38, pH 7.25. What would be your next step?
- increase FiO2 to 90%
- administer IV bicarb
- hyperventilate
- increase respiratory rate.
Answer #1. His blood gas shows that he is hypoxemic. He is mechanically ventilated so you can increase is RR or increase in inspired oxygen, but you realize that his pCO2 is normal-low, so the best choice would be to increase his inspired oxygen level.
8- 13 year old boy presents with unilateral gynecomastia. What is the next appropriate step?
- anti-estrogen therapy
- unilateral mastectomy
- observe
Answer: #3
9- All of the following are true about heterotropic ossification except:
- occurs more commonly in head injury patients
- commonly associated with prolonged immobilization
- NSAIDS can be given as prophylaxis
- calcification on x-ray can appear prior to development of symptoms
Answer: #2: It is commonly associated after traumatic brain injuries (up to half and occurs at 12 weeks) and radiographic signs may not correlate with symptoms. NSAIDs and bisphonates have been used as prophylaxis (and external beam radiation)
Source: Dr. Paul Martineau – immbolization does not necessarily lead to increased risk of HO. YES, calcification can appear prior to symptoms
10- Which of the following is the site of calcium and iron absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
- duodenum
- distal ileum
- proximal ileum
- jejunem
Answer: #1 Most minerals are absorbed from the proximal half of the intestine. The exception is magnesium and vitamin B12, which are absorbed from the ileum.
11- 56 year-old lady with malignant hyperthermia, which one you don’t give?
a- Diltiazem
b- cooling blankets
c- oxygen
Answer: #a – Dantrolene is the only known antidote. Dantrolene will block Ca release. Other treatments are supportive. (i.e. cooling blankets and oxygen are universal and can only help).
12 - which one is not premalignant?
A - Dysplastic Nevus
Answer: #A. Patients with dysplastic nevus (atypical mole) syndrome are prone to cutaneous melanoma. The incidence of this syndrome is increased in patients with uveal melanoma and may predispose to the development of ocular melanocytic tumors. However, a patient who has ONE dysplastic nevus is not necessarily at increased risk of developing cancer (specifically melanoma)
13-Which one you don’t see in SIADH?
a- Hypernatremia
Answer: #A.
14 - a young lady with pelvic pain, mass close to the pelvis the diagnosis:
a - chondroma
b - soft tissue sarcoma
c - rectal cancer
Answer: #A
Chondromas – 5% of all primary bone tumours RARE. Every bone is suscepltible, mostly in smalls bones of hands and feet. They are labeled according to site of origin. Example, meduallary canal origin – ENCHONDROMA; cortical surface – PERIOSTEAL CHONDROMA. Usually complain of local tenderness, palpable mass. Treatment is surgical.
Source: Neurosurg Clin N America 2008.
- All are true of soft tissue necrotizing infection except:
1) anaerobic environment
2) bacterial synergy
3) thrombosis of nutrient vessel that supplies the skin and fascia
4) streptococcal exotoxins
Answer: #3.
Not directly related to the question, but useful to know:
Clindamycin may be more effective because it is not affected by inoculum size or the stage of growth, it suppresses toxin production, it facilitates phagocytosis of S. pyogenes by inhibiting M-protein synthesis, it suppresses production of regulatory elements controlling cell wall synthesis and it has a long postantibiotic effect. Recently, a retrospective analysis of cases demonstrated a greater efficacy for clindamycin compared to beta-lactam antibiotics in patients with invasive infections . Although there are no data from clinical trials establishing the benefit of combined therapy, we recommend the administration of penicillin G (4 million units intravenously every four hours in adults >60 kg in weight and with normal renal function) in combination with clindamycin (600 to 900 mg intravenously every eight hours) . This recommendation is based upon the observation that clindamycin resistance has been rarely described in GAS.
- Patient is transfused blood that has been matched for ABO and Rh factor. What is the likelihood of an acute transfusion reaction in this patient?
- 0.1%
- 2%
- 5%
- 10%
Answer: #4
Adverse reactions occur in 1 to 6 percent of all blood transfusions and are more frequent (10 percent) in patients with hematologic and oncologic diseases. Uptodate Psychrophilic organisms (ie, those capable of multiplication at cold temperatures), especially Yersinia enterocolitica and some Pseudomonas species (eg, Pseudomonas fluorescens), can survive and multiply in cold stored bank blood and have been said to account for up to 80 percent of red blood cell-associated bacterial infections. In Western countries, however, whole blood is rarely used because within a few hours or days, some coagulation factors (especially factors V and VIII) and platelets decrease in quantity or lose viability. After a 7-day hold at 4° C, factor VIII levels will have fallen to 0.32 ± 0.09 IU/mL, and there is a lesser fall in factor V levels to 0.78 ± 0.15 IU/mL. At 4° C, platelets undergo a shape change from discoid to spherical that is irreversible after 8 hours, and their in vivo survival is reduced to 2 days.
Administrative error leading to ABO incompatibility, bacterial contamination, and transfusion-related lung injury are the three leading causes of fatality after blood transfusion.
The agents most often implicated in packed RBC bacteremia were Serratia and Yersinia. For platelets, S. aureus, Escherichia coli, Enterobacter, and Serratia species were more frequently identified. Sabiston
Transfusion-related adverse events can occur with 10% of transfusions, and serious adverse events have been estimated to less than 0.5% of transfusions. Hematology/Oncology Clinics of North America - Volume 21, Issue 1 (February 2007)
- Propofol is a useful inductive agent frequently used in anesthesia. Which pharmacologic property is true of propofol:
- it causes post-operative nausea and vomiting
- it acts as an ionotropic agent
- causes bronchoconstriction
- decreases cerebral perfusion pressure
Answer: #4.
From Schwarz:
With a short duration, rapid recovery, and low incidence of nausea and vomiting, it has emerged as the agent of choice for ambulatory and minor general surgery. Additionally, propofol has bronchodilatory properties that make its use attractive in asthmatic patients and smokers. Propofol may cause hypotension and should be used cautiously in patients with suspected hypovolemia
and/or coronary artery disease (CAD), the latter of which
may not tolerate a sudden drop in blood pressure. It can be used as a continuous infusion for sedation in the intensive care unit setting.
It is often used in the ICU for that purpose specifically, because it lowers MAP. It DOES NOT CAUSE 1. Bronchoconstriction, 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Increase BP
- A study has been designed to assess the wear properties of two different metal interfaces for total hip arthroplasty. There are 11 patients in one group and 13 in the other. Which test would best determine if a difference exists between these two groups?
- t-test
- Fischer exact test
- Chi-square test
- Linear regression
Answer: #1
- A patient arrives in the trauma suite hypotensive, and identified as having a pelvic fracture. Sheeting (bedsheet fixation) is done to stabilize the pelvic fracture. For which type of pelvic fracture would this be most helpful for:
- A/P compression type injury (open-book)
- Anterior superior iliac spine avulsion
- High velocity axial load
- Vertical sheer fracture
Answer: #1. Important to realize, pelvic wrapping helps “close-down” the pelvis. This works only for injuries that have cause the pelvis to “open”. Secondly, wrapping the pelvis is thought to help control hemorrhage. Vertical shear and AP compression pelvic injuries both have high association with vascular injury; however, wrapping a vertical shear pelvic injury will likely not decrease the pelvic volume as much as it would be done in an AP compression injury.
- A patient undergoes surgery and a complication arises. Surrounding the issue of disclosure, which of the following is correct:
- the patient doesn’t need to know of any medical errors which took place if there are no immediate consequences
- the patient should be informed of all medical errors as is their right for autonomy
- disclosure of medical errors often leads to lawsuits
- every attempt should be made to prevent the patient from learning about the medical error
Answer #2.
- Regarding Carbon monoxide, which of the following is true:
- carboxyhemoglobin binds to hemoglobin with less affinity than oxygen
- the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin is 45-60 minutes in room air
- carbon monoxide binds to the Fe in the RBC
- irreversibly binds to hemoglobin
Answer: #3.
CO binds to hemoglobin with much greater affinity than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) and resulting in impaired oxygen transport and utilization. CO can also precipitate an inflammatory cascade that results in CNS lipid peroxidation and delayed neurologic sequelae. Carbon monoxide (CO) diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane and binds to the iron moiety of heme (and other porphyrins) with approximately 240 times the affinity of oxygen .
Nonsmokers may have up to 3 percent carboxyhemoglobin at baseline; smokers may have levels of 10 to 15 percent.
The half-life of CO while a patient is breathing room air is approximately 300 minutes, while breathing high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing facemask is about 90 minutes, and with 100 percent hyperbaric oxygen is approximately 30 minutes.
The diagnosis of CO poisoning is based upon a compatible history and physical exam in conjunction with an elevated carboxyhemoglobin level measured by cooximetry of a blood gas sample.
Carbon monoxide (CO) is removed almost exclusively via the pulmonary circulation through competitive binding of hemoglobin by oxygen.
We suggest treatment with HBO in the following circumstances (Grade 2B):
- CO level >25 percent - CO level >20 percent in pregnant patient - Loss of consciousness - Severe metabolic acidosis (pH
- Warm ischemic tolerance is best for which of the following:
- gut
- muscle
- bone
- skin
Answer: #4. Warm ischemic time is time between absence of adequate blood perfusion but the tissue is at physiologic temperature. Skin has 9 hr. Bowel can tolerate a substantial amount of decreased blood flow (20-25% normal) – Cecile’s internal medicine).
should be bone actually
- A 30 y old lady is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains multiple facial fractures. 5 days later, she presents to the ER with bilateral anosmia, fever, and delirium. What is the most likely diagnosis:
- bacterial meningitis
- infected subdural hematoma
- superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
- cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer: #1. Anterior floor fracture with CSF fistula. Cavernous sinus thrombosis causes CN III,IV, V palsy. The only choice that makes sense is bacterial meningitis post-trauma. Classic findings, fever, delirium.
Source: E.Galven, M.D. neurosurgeon.
- A patient is admitted for the administration of doxorubicin. During treatment, it is evident that some of the infusion went interstitial. What is the most appropriate action:
- Proceed to the OR for immediate debridement
- Topical anti-inflammatories
- Stop the I.V. infusion, elevate the arm, and apply cold compresses and observe
- Inject the arm with leucovorin antidote
Answer: #3.
Skin irritation/extravasation: I.V. use only. Doxorubicin is a potent vesicant; if extravasation occurs, severe tissue damage leading to ulceration and necrosis, and pain may occur.
Extravasation of a vesicant drug has the potential to cause tissue necrosis with a more severe and/or lasting injury. Vesicant extravasation may result in loss of the full thickness of the skin and, if severe, underlying structures.
Initial management — When extravasation of an irritant or vesicant drug is suspected, the following initial management is recommended:
- Stop the infusion immediately. Do not flush the line, and avoid applying pressure to the extravasated site.
- Elevate the affected extremity
- The catheter/needle should not be removed immediately. Instead, it should be left in place to attempt to aspirate fluid from the extravasated area, and to facilitate the administration of an antidote to the local area, if appropriate.
- If an antidote will not be injected into the extravasation site, the catheter/needle can be removed after attempted aspiration of the subcutaneous tissues.
Surgical intervention — Nonhealing ulcers resulting from an extravasation injury often require debridement and skin grafting. However, the optimal timing of surgical intervention is controversial.
Although some clinicians suggest early surgical intervention to prevent ulceration, a conservative approach is more often recommended, particularly since fewer than one-third of vesicant extravasations ultimately result in ulceration. Failure of initial conservative management with continued erythema, swelling and pain, or the presence of large areas of tissue necrosis or skin ulceration are indications for surgery.
Early debridement has been recommended for anthracycline (eg.doxurubicin), extravasations, since these agents bind to fat . This recommendation was based upon a series of three cases in which delayed surgical care resulted in a poor functional outcome.
Uptodate
- Patient involve in a high speed MVC. Fracture dislocation at C7. Despite 2L of fluid
rescussitation, the BP is still 80/55, with the HR of 110 bpm. The reason for the difficulty raising
the BP is: - undiagnosed intra-abdominal trauma
- neurogenic shock
- spinal shock
Answer: #1. Hypovolemic shock. Need to r/o bleeding sites in chest abdomen and pelvis. Once certain and a patient has bradycardia with hypotension, the diagnosis of neurogenic shock can be considered.
Source. M.Bernstein, M.D.
- year old male, high speed MVC with multiple injuries. Knee has a positive anterior and posterior drawer, with substantial varus laxity with the knee at 30 degrees. The most immediate next step would be:
- immediately to the OR to repair the ligamentous damage
- place the patient in a below knee cast
- arteriogram
Answer: #3. High speed mechanism with obvious knee instability = knee discloation. WORRY ABOUT POPLITEAL ARTERY DAMAGE. Confirm with ABI and/or arteriogram. Best to splint patient before, in above knee SPLINT. Not a CAST.
Source: Mitchell Bernstein, M.D.
28- Chronic diarrhea, which of the following would present:
- metabolic alkolosis
- metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
- metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
- increased [HCO3]
Answer: #2
- Laryngeal mask Vs. endotracheal tube, which of the following is true:
- the laryngeal mask has less incidence of reflux/aspiration
- the endotracheal tube is technically easy to insert and therefore, can be done by all personnel
- the endotracheal tube, although technically demanding to insert, offers the advantage of delivering medications through the endotracheal tube if needed
Answer: #3. Note, LMA does not protect the patient against aspiration.
Source: Up to date
- A 75 year old man presents with pain in the left flank. He is assessed as having an obstructing stone in the ureter. Which of the following would require immediate attention:
- Temperature of 38.9
- a stone measuring 10mm on CT scan
- hydronephrosis
- uncontrolled pain
Answer: #1
Urgent urologic consultation is warranted in patients with urosepsis, acute renal failure, anuria, and/or unyielding pain, nausea, or vomiting . Outpatient urology referral is indicated in patients with a stone >10 mm in diameter, and in patients who fail to pass the stone after a trial of conservative management, particularly if the stone is >5 mm in diameter and/or there is uncontrolled pain.
Patients with calcium stones can be treated with a thiazide diuretic and low sodium diet for hypercalciuria, allopurinol for hyperuricosuria, and potassium citrate for hypocitraturia.
- year old diabetic arrives to ER, febrile, confused. Left leg is Red, and blotches of dusky skin throughout. The ER physician said the he made a small incision and was easily able to insert a hemostat along the fascia of the lower leg. You are the senior resident responsible for this patient. Your next step would involve:
- I.V. antibiotics after blood culture done
- Immediately to the OR for debridement and possible amputation of the limb
Answer: #2
- What colour is fat on MRI:
- dark on T1 and T2
- light on T1 and T2
- dark on T1 and light on T2
- light on T1 and dark on T2
Answer: #4.
In general, tissues with short T1 values (e.g., fat) will be bright on a T1-weighted image. On the contrary, tissues with long T2 values (e.g., water) will be bright on a T2-weighted image. Many pathologic areas have a longer T1 and T2 than surrounding normal tissue.
Gadolinium-enhanced tissues and fluids appear extremely bright on T1-weighted images. This provides high sensitivity for detection of vascular tissues (e.g., tumors) and permits assessment of brain perfusion (e.g., in stroke).
Hounsfield units for CT: Tissue HN range Air -1,000 Lungs -900 to -300 Fat -120 to -80 Water 0 Muscle 10 to 30 Soft tissue 10 to 30 Cortical bone 50 to 100 Trabecular bone 500 to 1,000 HN, Hounsfeld number.
- The least toxic type of radiation to the skin is:
- cobalt therapy
- brachytherapy
- linear accelerator
Answer: #2
- All the following are absolute indications for thoracotomy tube except:
- open pneumothorax
- spontaneous pneumothorax
- empyema
- chylothorax
Answer: #2. Chylothorax needs CT drainage, so does empyema. (it’s and abscess). Open pneumothorax needs to be converted to a closed PTX before a tension occurs.
Source: Morell notes.
- When you administer 1L of normal saline you:
- distribute equally the volume between all compartments
- pull fluid from the extravascular space intravascularly
- increase intravascular volume
- increase intracellular volume
Answer: #3.
- Injury of the ulnar nerve at the level of the wrist will lead to the inability to:
- Abduct the thumb
- Cross the index and second fingers
- Flex the middle finger at the carpometacarpal joint
- Extend the fingers
Answer: #2. Ulnar nerve controls the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Therefore, Abduction and Adduction of the fingers will be affected. Middle finger flexion (D3) is median nerve. Extending the fingers is P.I.N. (post interosseous nerve, a branch of the radial nerve). Abducting the thumb is median nerve.
Source: M.Bernstein M.D.
- All of the following can be seen in cardiac tamponade EXCEPT:
- narrow pulse pressure
- Wide pulse pressure
- Muffled heart sounds
- Distended neck veins
Answer: #2. Elevated JVP, sinus tachycardia, pulsus paradoxus (abnormally larger decreased in systolic BP > 10 mmHg on inpiration. Muffled heart sounds occurs due to fluid in pericardial space. Because of diastolic dysfunction the DBP approaches SBP and pulse pressure is narrowed. Therefore, there is no increased pulse pressure.
Source: Up To Date
- When comparing subcapital vs. intertrochanteric hip fractures, subcapital type fractures are
more susceptible to: - Avascular necrosis
- Nonunion
- Infection
- DVT’s
Answer: #1. Subcapital = femoral neck fracture. = non-union and Avascular necrosis because the blood supply to the femoral head enters at the the femoral neck. You need blood to heal a fracture and for the bone to live. Intertrochanteric fractures are not near the femoral neck and have wonderful blood supply. Non-union after IT# is 2%. AVN is rare. (Rockwood and Green.) FN non-union occurs in 0-30%, depending on fracture displacement. AVN can occur 50% of cases depending on fracture displacement. I think the better answer is #1.
Source: M.Bernstein, M.D. Asim Al-Daheri, M.D. PGY-5 Ortho. JAAOS. 2008. Rockwood and Green.
- A 70 y old lady is set to undergo elective surgery for bilateral carpal tunnel release. She has rheumatoid arthritis and a history of mitral regurgitation, as well as intermittent atrial fibrillation. What would be your plan for coagulation management of this patient leading up to surgery:
- Stop coumadin 5 days before the surgery
- Stop the coumadin 5 days prior to surgery and administer LMWH 3 days prior to surgery
- Stop the coumadin the day of the surgery and administer vitamin K
- Stop the coumadin the day of the surgery and administer fresh frozen plasma
Answer: #2 Patients with mitral regurg and a-fib need Coumadin. It takes 4-5 days for INR to be safe. So hold Coumadin for 4-5 days pre-op. Because when stopping Coumadin you get a transient increase in INR, adding a LMWH (short half life) pre-op will decrease their risk of embolic phenomena. (because patient has A-fib with mechanical heart problem.)
Source: 2006 ACC/AHA guidelines. Circulation. Up to Date.
- Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood primarily as:
- dissolved CO2
- carbonic acid
- carboxyhemoglobin
- bicarbonate salt (HCO3)
Answer: #4. 70% of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as HCO3-.
Source: Perfusion.com
- A 22 y old male is to undergo elective surgery on the knee. In order to get the goal factor VIII of 60-80% normal, what can you do regarding perioperative planning:
- give replacement factor before the surgery and for 10 days following
- administer factor VIII immediately after the surgery
- administer Factor VIII for 2 doses pre-operatively, and one dose post-op
- give Factor VIII for 5 days following surgery
Answer: #1. Factor VIII deficiency is Hemophilia A. You can give high purity factor VIII concentrates, or porcine factor VIII. You give the replacement before surgery and for a total of 10 days following.
Source: Up to Date
- The commonest infectious agent post transplant is:
- HIV
- HBV
- HCV
- CMV
Answer: #4
Source: Up to Date. Morell notes
- Which drug has the longest action:
- mepivacaine
- bupivocaine
- lidocaine
- procaine
Answer: #2 bupivicaine= 360-720 min Mepivacaine= 180-300 min Lidocaine= 120-240 Procaine= ester Tetracaine= 360-720 min
- Which of the following is the prophylactic antibiotic of choice (if only one could be chosen), for a patient set to undergo abdominal surgery and who has a penicillin allergy and has an artificial valve:
- vancomycin
- clindamycin
- metronidazole
- cipro
Answer: #1
Genitourinary or gastrointestinal procedures — For those high risk patients who undergo gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedures at a time of ongoing gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection, antibiotic coverage for enterococcal bacteremia should be provided with amoxicillin or ampicillin or, in the patient unable to tolerate these drugs, vancomycin. For dental and upper resp. tract procedures give amoxicillin or ampicillin and if allergic give clinda., azithro. Or cephalexin.
The AHA guideline no longer considers any GI (including diagnostic colonoscopy or esophagogastroduodenoscopy ) or GU procedures high risk and therefore do not recommend routine use of IE prophylaxis even in patients with the highest risk cardiac conditions.
The following are the highest risk conditions according to 2007 guidelines:
· Prosthetic heart valves, including bioprosthetic and homograft valves.
· A prior history of IE.
· Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, including palliative shunts and conduits.
· Completely repaired congenital heart defects with prosthetic material or device, whether placed by surgery or by catheter intervention, during the first six months after the procedure.
· Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of the prosthetic device.
· Cardiac valvulopathy in a transplanted heart.
The following are the highest risk procedures:
· All dental procedures that involve manipulation of either gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa.
· Procedures of the respiratory tract that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa.
· Procedures in patients with ongoing GI or GU tract infection.
· Procedures on infected skin, skin structure or musculoskeletal tissue.
· Surgery to place prosthetic heart valves or prosthetic intravascular or intracardiac materials.
No longer indicated — Common valvular lesions for which antimicrobial prophylaxis is no longer recommended in the 2007 AHA guidelines include bicuspid aortic valve, acquired aortic or mitral valve disease (including mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation and those who have undergone prior valve repair), and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with latent or resting obstruction
Up to Date
- Which of the following is true when comparing an animal vs. human bite:
- animal bites have more anaerobic organisms
- human bites have greater beta-lactamase bacteria
- Iekenella is in higher concentration in animal bites
- Pasturalla multiceda is in higher concentration in human bites
Answer: #2
Aerobic gram-positive cocci and anaerobes are found more frequently in bites from humans than from those from animals. Pasteurella species were the most common bacteria from dog and cat bites (50 and 75 percent respectively. Eikenella corrodens, a gram-negative anaerobe, is a common constituent of normal human mouth flora and is recovered from seven to 29 percent of human bite wounds but rarely from animal bites.
Source: Up to Date
- What is the most common infectious agent responsible for a would infection POD#2
- staph aureus
- E-coli
- Enterococcus
- Pseudomonas
Answer: #1.
Source: M.Bernstein, M.D. Up to date.
- What are the fluid requirements for a 15 kg child:
- 900 cc/d
- 1000 cc/d
- 1200 cc/d
- 1500 cc/d
Answer: #3. Use 4:2:1: rule.First 10 kg, multiply by 4. And then the next 10 kg, multiply by two. 10x4 + 5 x2 = 40 + 10 = 50 cc/hr. 50 cc/hr x 24 hr = 1200 cc/d
Source: M.Bernstein M.D.
- What rate should you bolus a child:
- 10 ml / h
- 20 ml / h
- 30 ml / h
- 40 ml / h
Answer: #2 You bolus at 20cc per Kg/Hour
Source: D.Schonfeld, NYU peds resident.
- 1 week post-op from surgery involving GA (endotracheal intubation), and the patient develops hoarseness with no associated pain. The most likely cause is:
- laceration of the laryngeal artery
- dislocation of the tracheolaryngeal junction
- neuropraxia of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
- collapse of the voice box
Answer: #3. Collapse of the voice box would cause airway compression, and the patient would have more symptoms. Neuropraxia to RLN (1st degree nerve injury). Can occur within a couple of days after surgery. Confirmed on fiberoptic laryngoscopy.
Source: Acta Anesth. Scand 2005.
- Which of the following is most determinant for renal transplant success:
- HLA
- Cold ischemia time
- Warm ischemia time
- ABO
Answer: #1
When organ allocation is based upon HLA typing, one concern is the effect of cold ischemia time upon long-term survival. The beneficial effect of HLA matching appears to generally outweigh the detrimental effect of prolonging the cold ischemia time in transported kidneys. The current registry data indicate that the five year graft survival of six antigen matched cadaver kidneys is the same regardless of whether the kidneys undergo 3 or 36 hours of cold ischemia.
Long-term survival is also best in HLA-identical, particularly living related, kidneys and worst in randomly matched cadaver kidneys.
Source: Up to date
- Which of the following is not a side effect of Vincristine:
- hypofibroginemia
- paralytic ileus
- thrompocytopenia
- leukopenia
Answer: #1
Source: Morell notes
- Which is not a complication of massive blood transfusions:
- hypercalcemia
- thrombocytosis
- metabolic acidosis
- hypocalcemia
Answer: #1 and #2. Complications include. Both metabolic alkalosis and acidosis. Hypocalcemia from all the citrate being transfused (citrate chelates calcium), hypothermia, DIC, thrombocytosis, bleeding. Hyperkalemia
Source: Up to date.
look this up - there are two questions with different answers
- Most common anterior mediastinal mass is:
- Thymoma
- Teratoma
- Bronchogenic cyst
- Pericardial cyst
Answer: #1. Thymomas represent 20 percent of all mediastinal neoplasms in adults; they are the most common anterior mediastinal primary neoplasm in adults but are rarely seen in children. They occur with equal frequency in males and females, and commonly present between the ages of 30 and 50.
Benign teratomas are the most common anterior mediastinal neoplasm in infants and are often seen in adults between 20 and 40 years of age. Although patients with disseminated systemic lymphoma often have involvement of the mediastinum, 5 to 10 percent of patients with lymphoma present with primary mediastinal lesions. Primary mediastinal lymphoma accounts for 10 to 20 percent of primary mediastinal masses and is the second most common primary anterior mediastinal mass in adults.
Source: Up to date and Sabiston
- Normal hemodynamic changes during pregnancy include all of the following except:
- hemodilution
- increased red cell mass
- leukocytosis
- eosinophilia
Answer: #4. Red cell mass increases, physiologic anemia occurs because a greater increase in intravascular volume occurs. Pregnancy does not cause increased eosinophils.
Source: Up to date and Gyne Obst Invest. 2006
- The advantage of a split-thickness skin graft to a full thickness skin graft is that:
- It scars less and blends in with the surrounding skin
- better over bony
- better scar contraction
- better take
Answer: #4. STSG includes epidermis and various amounts of dermis. Full thickness includes sebaceous glands and sweat glands. Thicker grafts have less tendency to undergo contraction, while the thinner the STSG the better the take.
Source: Wheeless online. Emedicine.com
- A 20 year old man presents to the ER with a 1.5 cm deep and 5 cm long laceration to his
forearm after being cut by a lawnmower blade. He has lived in Canada his whole life and had
all of his childhood immunizations. The wound is full of dirt and grease. He is not sure of his
tetanus status. What is the most appropriate treatment plan: - tetanus toxoid
- tetanus immunoglobin
- tetanus toxoid and immunoglobin
- antibiotics for 10 days and then a tetanus toxoid
Answer: #3. Patient will need tetanus toxoid and immunoglobulin immediately. He will also need Abx, but you cannot give him tetanus toxoid 10 days post-injury.
Source: M.Bernstein M.D.
- What is the most common cause of a febrile reaction following blood transfusions:
- WBC alloantibodies
- Platelet alloantibodies
- RBC alloantibodies
- Sepsis
Answer: #1. Most common transfusion reaction is a febrile, non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. These are benign. They are immune related caused by accumulated cytokines that are realeased from WBC alloantibodies.
Source: Up to date.
- A man is injured waterskiing, resulting in a massive laceration across his chest. He presents to the ER with a stable BP of 100/60, HR of 100, and a chest tube is inserted draining 1200 ml immediately. He is stabilized at the community hospital and when he arrives at the trauma center he continues to drain 600 ml over the hour. What is the next step?
- CT chest
- Insert another chest tube
- Irrigate, debride and repair the chest would and clamp off the chest tube
- Emergent thoracotomy
Answer: #4. Indications for emergent thoracotomy. 1. Initial drainage of >1500cc. 2. > 200-300 cc/hr
Source: M.Bernstein, M.D. and Morell notes.
- A 30 y old woman presents with a 2cm nodule in the left posterior cervical area. What should you do first:
- FNA
- Open Biopsy
- Excisional biopsy
- CT scan of abdomen and neck
Answer: #1 Adult patient with a neck mass, you must r/o malignant process. In the head and neck region, the diagnosis is first confirmed with fine needle aspiration.
Source: Up to date
- A man presents with a tibial fracture which was ORIFed. 4 h following, he presents with a red, swollen and painful leg. What is the most sensitive sign for his present condition:
- absence of pedal pulses
- paresthesia of the lower limb
- pallor on examination
- pain with passive toe extension
Answer: #4. The best way to diagnose a compartment syndrome is via passively moving those tendons that are in the compartment of concern. All other signs are late findings and are too late.
Source: M.Bernstein, M.D.
- Comparing the metabolic rate in a trauma patient to that of a person in a starvation state, which of the following is false:
- increased lipolysis
- increased epinephrine
- decreased oxygen utilization
- something about cortisol, but I forget if it said increase or decrease
Answer: #3 Trauma patients will have increased metabolic rate, increased oxygen consumption, increased catecholamines, increased lipolysis. Starvation state is a “hibernation state”.
Source: Greenfield Surgery.
- What is the source of the enzymes that degrade tissue in an abscess:
- neutrophils
- macrophages
- eosinophils
- mast cells
Answer: #1 Neutrophils release proteases that cause tissue destruction.
Source: M.Bernstein, M.D.
- HLA matching is routinely performed prior to transplants of the following organs:
lung
heart
kidney
liver
KIDNEY
□ all these organs require a cross match
□ liver is the only organ that does not require an ABO compatibility
□ ABO compatibility is determined to avoid hyperacute rejection of renal allografts
□ potential donors and recipients are typed for HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR molecules
□ HLA matching is the best means of prolonging allograft survival. The larger the number of HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR alleles that are matched between both donor and recipient, the better the survival rate, particularly in the first year after transplantation
□ three types of graft rejection occur
o Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes to days after transplantation and is mediated primarily by preformed antibody. This type of rejection is prevented by screening the recipient for preformed antibodies, not by classic antirejection pharmaceuticals.
o Acute rejection is mediated primarily by T lymphocytes and first occurs between 1 and 3 weeks after solid organ transplantation without immunosuppression. Acute rejection episodes are most common in the first 3 to 6 months after transplantation but can occur at any time. Acute rejection can quickly destroy a graft if left untreated. The new immunosuppressive agents have made acute rejection increasingly less common.
o Chronic rejection occurs over a span of months to years and is the most common cause of graft loss after 1 year. From an immunologic standpoint, chronic rejection is mediated by both T- and B-cell responses.
o 64. Which organ is the most immunogenic:
kidney
liver
heart
skin
Skin
- Hepatitis C causes all except:
cryoglobulinemia
lymphoma
hepatocellular carcinoma
cirrhosis
All these diseases occur in hep. C
□ extrahepatic diseases have been associated with chronic HCV infection, and in most cases appear to be directly related to the viral infection
o Hematologic diseases such as cryoglobulinemia (type II or mixed most common) and lymphoma
o Autoimmune disorders such as thyroiditis and the presence of autoantibodies
o Renal disease: most commonly membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
o Dermatologic conditions such as lichen planus and porphyria cutanea tarda
o Myalgias, arthralgias
□ HCV accounts for approximately one-third of HCC cases in the United States. Estimates of the risk of developing HCC once cirrhosis has developed have varied from 0 to 3 percent per year in various reports.
□ In contrast to hepatitis B virus infection, HCC in patients with hepatitis C occurs almost exclusively in those with cirrhosis suggesting that it is cirrhosis that is the major risk factor.
- Which of the following is the most infectious agent for a blood transfusion:
HAV CMV HBV HCV HIV
CMV
Blood is not routinely tested for CMV; prevalence of CMV Ab: 50% to 80% of the population; can cause problems in neonates or immunocompromised patients and can be prevented by transfusing CMV negative Blood or frozen, deglycerolized RBC’s.
HBV 1 in 66,000
HCV 1 in 121,000
HIV 1 in 563,000
- A foreign body is more prone to infections because:
it suppresses T-cell activation
It suppresses B-cell activation
It forms a glycocalyx to which bacteria can attach
It forms a glycocalyx to which bacteria can attach
□ S epidermidis forms glycoprotein matrix around FB which protects pathogen fr host phagocytosis
□ extensive glycocalyx served a protective function for the bacteria and was important in bacterial adherence
□ interaction of PMN with a nonphagocytosable foreign body induces a complex PMN defect, which may be partly responsible for the high susceptibility to infection of foreign bodies.
- A young man presents to the emergency department with a nearly complete circumferential laceration to the right arm. The would itself is extremely dirty. After ample irrigation you should:
- perform a primary closure in the ER
- perform a primary closure in the OR
- Perform a mechanical debridement
- Harvest a skin graft to cover the defect
- Perform a mechanical debridement
□ Classification: clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, dirty
□ Anesthetize, explore, irrigate, debride then clean, inspect, clip surrounding hair, ensure hemostasis, adequate debridement nonviable tissue and foreign bodies, fresh edge for reapproximation
What is the cytokine responsible for the proliferation of fibroblasts:
- TGF beta
- TNF alpha
- TGF
- TGF
TGF beta
□ TGF alpha stimulates epidermal growth and angiogenesis
□ TNF alpha mediates inflammation and angiogenesis
□ TGFbeta stimulates fibroblast proliferation indirectly by releasing PDGF
□ TGFbeta chemoattracts and stimulates fibroblast production of collagen and fibronectin and angiogenesis macrophages must be present for this to occur
- What is the daily protein turnover in a 80 kg man:
- 1%
- 3%?
- 6%
- 9%
Answer: #2
□ total body protein is 15-18% of healthy man
□ during homeostasis 2.5% of total body protein is broken down and resynthesized again every 24hours (digestion, Hb turnover, muscle protein synth, mmune fn)
□ decreases with age (neonate 25 g/kg/d, 7 g/kg/d 1 year, adults 3 g/kg/d, less in elderly)
□ protein yields 3.5cal/g
□ adult protein requirements 1-2 g/kg/d (1.5-1.75g/kg/d for sx pts)
□
A 70-kg man has between 10 and 11 kg of protein, otherwise referred to as lean body mass. In the fed state, daily protein turnover amounts to between 250 and 300 g, or 3%.
- A pregnant woman is brought to the trauma suite with substantial intra-abdominal trauma. She expresses that she is a Jehovah’s witness and cannot accept blood or blood product transfusion. Her baby is stable at present. Patient consents to undergo surgery and intra-operatively, the patient becomes hypotensive, placing the unborn child at risk. Of the following people, who has the right to act on the patient’s behalf as POA in aiding in the decision making in this situation:
- the baby’s biological father
- the patient’s common-law partner
- the patient’s sibling
- the physician
Answer: #2
The following is the Hierarchy of SDMs in the Health Care Consent Act, s.21:
- Guardian of the Person with authority for Health Decisions
- Attorney for personal care with authority for Health Decisions
- Representative appointed by the Consent and Capacity Board
- Spouse or partner
- Child or Parent or CAS (person with right of custody)
- Parent with right of access
- Brother or sister
- Any other relative
- Office of the Public Guardian and Trustee
- the most water content can be seen in:
- 60 y old man
- 60 y old woman
Answer: #1
□ decreases w age (infant 70-80%TBW; adult 60% TBW)
□ increases w lean body mass/males (muscle has more water than adipose tissue)
- A 45 y old man is rushed to the OR after identification of a leaking aortic aneurysm on CT scan in the trauma evaluation following a high speed MVC. The patient declares that he is a Jehovah’s witness and therefore consented to the surgery but not to the administration of any blood or blood products. During the surgery the patient’s blood pressure falls and it becomes clear the patient will likely not survive without blood transfusions. The nurse then comes into the OR stating that the wife is outside and threatens to sue you unless you do everything you can to save her husband, emphasizing that you should administer blood if that’s “what he needs”. The most appropriate action at this time is:
. listen to the wife because she is the POA while the patient is incapable of making this decision on his own under the general anesthetic - administer blood and disguard the evidence
- do not administer any blood products and continue to rescusitate the patient to the best of your ability
3
- Cancer is caused by all except:
- HBV
- HCV
- TH1 cells
- CMV
Answer: #3
□ human T cell leukemia virus 1 (HTLV 1): adult human T cell leukemia
□ EBV: Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal ca, ?gastric cancer
□ HBV/HCV: HCC
□CMV: prostate ca, Kaposi’s sarcoma (this was their answer, but I think it’s wrong)
□HPV: cervical ca
□H pylori: gastric ca, MALT gastric lymphoma
□HHV-8: Kaposi’s sarcoma
- What suture material would you use to sew an abdominal aorta repair:
- absorbable braided
- absorbable monofilament
- non-absorbable braided
- non-absorbable monofilament (nylon, polypropylene)
Answer : #4
• The thrombogenicity of five suture materials - polypropylene (Prolene), polyester (Mersilene=braided), polyglactin 910 (Vicryl=abs braided), nylon (Ethilon), and silk (=nonabs braided) - was examined in vivo by scanning electron microscopy. The most blood-compatible material appeared to be Prolene. A rather satisfactory antithrombogenciity was shown by Mersilene, in comparison with which Ethilon and Vicryl provided less thromboresistance
• 76. Which of the following is the most ideal place to bring out an end colostomy from a sigmoid colon resection:
- left upper quadrant lateral to the rectus sheath
- Right lower quadrant above the inguinal ligament
- Left lower quadrant through the rectus sheath
- Left lower quadrant lateral to the rectus sheath
Answer:#3
- The treatment of malignant hyperthermia involves all of the following except:
- cooling blankets
- Oxygen
- Dantrolene
- Diazepam
Answer: #4
• autosomal dominant trait, reduced penetrace, variable expressivity
• sudden increase intracellular Ca in skeletal and ♥ muscle → activates ATPase and phosphorylase → muscle contraction, massive increase O2 consumption → fulminant hypermetabolic crisis
• unexplained tachycardia and tachypnea are first signs
• sudden marked increase in ETCO2, muscle rigidity, hypermetabolic activity w hyperthermia
• most common causes: halothane, succinylcholine
Treatment:
o dantrolene (before tissue ischemia!): inhibits Ca release from SR
o supportive and cooling measures, d/c trigger
o ETT, hyperventilate
o Fluid, diuretics, procainamide, bicarb as needed
- A 40 y old assembly line worker presents to the ER with a mangled right distal forearm. He describes that the paramedics had a very difficult time controlling the bleeding but finally managed with the tighly bound dressing the patient has around the distal forearm. The most appropriate next step is:
- send the patient for X-rays
- remove the dressing and inspect the wound
- perform a physical examination of the hand
- proceed immediately to the OR to remove the dressing and examine the patient under anesthesia
Answer: #3
79 . Lower esophageal sphincter is affected by all of the following except:
- caffeine
- smoking
- alcohol
- impaired peristalsis of the esophagus
- all of the above
Answer #5
• LES basal tone: vagal drive, to a lesser extent gastrin, ↑ w intra-abd pressure
• increase LES tone: cholinergics, prokinetics, alpha agonists, beta blockers, gastrin, substance p, bombesin
• decrease LES tone: alpha blockers, beta blockers, CCB, CCK, estrogen, progesterone, somatostatin, secretin, caffeine, fats
- The process of disclosure with regards to a surgical procedure involves which of the following:
- describing what any person under the exact situation would want to know
- what any person would want to know
- what other reasonable physicians would say
- only what you want to tell them
Answer: #2
- Pancreatitis causes all of the following except:
- Makes the patient delusional
- fat necrosis
- pleural effusion
- dyspnea
- pain
Answer: #1
- Which of the following is the latest and least complete to return after the surgical repair of a severed nerve:
- pin prick sensation
- 2 point discrimination
- temperature sensation
- deep pressure
□ neuropraxia: block of impulse conduction without anatomic destruction
o spontaneous recovery is the rule
□ axonotmesis: axonal fibers completely divided, covering intact
□ neurotmesis: complete transaction of nerve
o need accurate approximation of cut nerve ends
o primary 1cm
o S4, same and 2pt discrimination
- A patient develops acute pancreatitis post ERCP. The best way to feed this patient is:
- enteral
- parenteral
- enteral via gastric tube
- clear fluids per os
Answer: #1.
From Schwarz
Enteral nutrition should be commenced after initial fluid resuscitation and within the first 24 hours of admission. It can be introduced through a nasogastric tube and increased in step-wise fashion over 2 to 3 days. The tube can be advanced to the jejunum, by endoscopy or fluoroscopy, if there is evidence of feeding intolerance.
o limitation of enteral feeding has been the norm, but recent data suggest this is unnecessary
o enteral feeding avoids high cost TPN/catheter complications and supports intestinal mucosal integrity; b/c of aspiration risk, prefer NJ to NG feeds
- Following operative debridement of non-viable bone, which of the following is the best approach for covering the resultant overlying tissue defect:
- primary skin closure
- STSG (split thickness skin graft)
- Myocutaneous flap
- Allow closure by secondary intent
Answer: #3
□ Flap coverage within 6 days: less infection, less time to union
- A patient arrives in the ER following a significant trauma. On exam, he is unconscious, his right pupil is fixed and dilated and he is tachypneic with a RR of 45. His trachea is deviated to the right. His blood pressure is 80/30 and his HR is 110 bpm. What is the most appropriate immediate action:
- CXR
- Intubation with propofol for induction
- IV access
- Chest tube
ATLS = ABCDE = airway first = Intubation?
A unilateral dilated pupil in an altered patient is secondary to herniation until proven otherwise
- The Sx with greatest risk of DVT:
- Total hip arthroplasty
- vein stripping
- C-section
Answer: #1
Risk factors
• Stasis: immobility, CHF, pregnancy, Sx, obesity, paralysis
• Hypercoag: trauma, pregnancy, OCP, malignancy, inherited, HIT, age>40
• Endothelial damage
• Prev DVT/PE
- What is the primary determinant of myocardial oxygen supply in a healthy person:
- blood pH
- sympathetic activity
- oxygen content of the blood
- myocardial oxygen demand
Answer: #4
• O2 content of blood (rel constant) : Hb, degree of systemic oxygenation
• rate of coronary flow (major determinant): coronary perfusion pressure, coronary vascular resistance (autoreg, neural factors, humoral factors, metabolic control, compressive forces)
- All of the following are causes of fat embolism except:
- diabetes
- sickle cell
- fat aspiration
- COPD
Answer: #4 □ traumatic o long bone # (esp femur) o other # o ortho sx o blunt trauma to fatty organs (liver) o liposuction o BM bx
□ Nontraumatic o Pancreatitis o DM o Lipid infusion o Sickle cell crisis o Burns o CBP o Corticosteroids o Osteomyelitis o Alcoholic fatty liver o Acute fatty liver of pregnancy o Lymphangiography o Cyclosporine infusion
- Which is most associated with the authorship of a publication:
- participated in the writing of the paper
- provided lab space
- developed the background behind the hypothesis question
- responsible for the content of the publication
- assisted in the technical aspect of the experiment
Answer: #4
- If minute ventilation and carbon dioxide production are fixed, which of the following will decrease PaCO2?
- add PEEP
- decrease the respiratory rate
- increasing the tidal volume
- increasing the residual volume
Answer: #3
□ Minute ventilation = tidal volume X RR
□ Increasing the tidal volume but keeping minute vent the same, means you’re decreasing the resp rate BUT you increase the minute ventilation going to alveolar vent (rather than dead space), so they have better gas exchange therefore their CO2 goes down
- Humerus #, which nerve injured/ what action will be affected
- Radial nerve
- Wrist extension, finger extension (present with wrist and finger drop)
- Sensory to dorsum of hand
- Autonomic dysreflexia - what is it?
- unopposed parasympathetic
□ spinal cord injuries above the T6 level at any time after the stage of spinal shock
□ hyperhidrosis, headache, and vasodilatation above the level of the neurologic loss with nasal stuffiness
□ Paroxysmal hypertension is the cardinal sign; bradycardia is present inconsistently
□ Precipitated by distention or manipulation of the bladder or rectum or intraabdominal pathology → massive reflex sympathetic outflow → HTN, reflex brady, VD (above the level of the spinal cord lesion)
□ Place patient in an upright position and remove the stimulus, e.g., by bladder decompression; vasodilators for severe hypertension