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POS Studying > 2009 Exam > Flashcards

2009 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Principle of beneficence is defined as:

A

doing an action that benefits another person

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2
Q

for longterm TPN. what is the best IV site used to access the SVC?

A

Internal jugular

however notable is that the basicili is great for short term TPN

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3
Q

what are the changes of a morbidly obese patient losing weight and maintaining it by dieting?

A

10% or lower,

the other option was 3% we weren’t sure

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4
Q

The five year risk of rupture of a 5.5cm AAA is?

A

25%

-if youre over 8cm then you have a 30-50% risk of rupture

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5
Q 
which of the following is not a canmeds role?
Teacher
Manager
Health advocate
Medical expert
A

teacher! Its actually called scholar

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6
Q

Resident always shows up late to OR, after prepping and draping. Which CanMEDs role is he lacking?

A

professional

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7
Q

Which of the following is an indication for thrombolytics in PE?

A

lobar PE with shock

agents to use: alteplase, streptokinase, tPa

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8
Q

what are other indications for thrombolytics

A

acute MI within 6 hrs, PE with hemodynamic compromise, puml HTN,

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9
Q

POD#5 colon cancer surgery, patient develops crushing retrosternal chest pain. The following are all part of management EXCEPT:

streptokinase
O2 by NP
Admit to ICU
Do an EKG

A

admit to ICU - they don’t necessarily need to go in

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10
Q 
Which of the following is most sensitive way to diagnose post-op MI?
EKG
CK
CK-MB
Trops
A

some day tropes, the other ECG. I say tropes.

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11
Q

Which of the following resp conditions is most commonly associated with morbid obesity?

OSA
Asthma
Restrictive lung disease
Something else

A

OSA

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12
Q 
When performing a split thickness skin graft, the harvest site on the thigh, what is the cross-sectional depth.
Epidermis
Deep papillary dermis dermis
Reticular dermis (under papillary)
Superficial papillary dermis
A

superficial papillary dermis

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13
Q

what is the caloric rate perday for a sedentary person

A

25cal/day, with trauma this can go to 35-40kcal/day

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14
Q

Melanoma Clark IV, invades all the way down to?

A

reticular dermal layer

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15
Q

what is the Breslow Scale?

A

it helps prognosticate melanoma, whereas clarks system is for staging.
under 1mm = 90-100% survival
4mm = only 50% survival

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16
Q

Patient is bleeding, has normal INR but increase PTT what is the blood abnormality?

A

unrecognized blood dyscrasia

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17
Q 
Cyclosporine A, which is false?
Inhibits calcineurin
Phenytoin will increase its blood level
Suppresses T cell activation and IL 2 production
Can be nephrotoxic
A

false: phenytoin will NOT increase its blood level

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18
Q

Interferon-alpha does what?

A

it plays a role of chemotaxis of monocytes apparently?

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19
Q

what factor initates acute inflammation

A

factor VII - 7

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20
Q

SIRS is associated with all the of the following except?
aspiration
spinal cord injury
acute pancreatitis

A

spinal cord injury was the answer from the guide, not sure if thats right

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21
Q

Most common cause of death in patient with burn?

A

Bronchopneumonia #2 staph/pseudo

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22
Q

what is the most common cause of line sepsis (bug)?

A

Most common cause is coagulase-positive S. aureus and coagulase-negative staph.

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23
Q 
Untreated chylothorax, which do you NOT get?
hypoproteinemia
electrolyte imbalance
b cell leucopenia
deficiency in fat-soluble vitamins
A

b cell leucopenia

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24
Q

Several days post op, patient develops effusion. Thoracocentesis shows milky fluid. What is the management?

A

A chest tube and TPN for treatment of chyle leak.

you need OR if:
1)there is greater than 1L of fluid per day x 5 days
2) loculated
3) nutrtional or metabolic complications.
tx is thoracic duct ligation

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25
Q

Which of the following will most likely result in respiratory arrest with administration of 100% oxygen?

A

pH 7.3; pCO2 60; O2 sat 96%

the idea is that this set of labs refers to a COPD patient and if they are already sattign 96%, targetting them at 100% is going to drop their respiratory drive

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26
Q 
ATN, which is most likely?
hemoglobinuria
hyaline casts
UNa 80
Urine specific gravity 1.010
A

UNA 80
- recall the diagnosis of ATN is made by FeNA over 3 and granular casts
in ATN you have a high urinare NA, as opposed to prerenal where the FeNA is low

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27
Q

In SIADH, which do you see?

comment on hypo/hypernatremia, volume status, urine concentration.

A

hyponatremia,
euvolemic
concentrated urine, veyr concentrated

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28
Q

With hyponatremia, which is false?

A

In expanded ECF with peripheral edema, administration of NS will help the edema

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29
Q

Regarding cancer cells. Stages of initiation, promotion, and progression. What does promotion refer to?

A

serial genetic changes

  • initiation= mutation of cancer gene
  • promotion= clonal expansion
  • progression= further mutations of gene
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30
Q

Intravasation of tumor refers to?

A

Malignant cells go from tumor to lymph and vessels

recall that extravastaion means cells are going from the blood stream to the tumor site ( so the extravsation is from the point of view of the blood vessel)

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31
Q

Percentage of posterior urethal injuries in pelvic fractures?

A

10%

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32
Q

Patient metastatic lung ca, patient wants full code. What can you use to discuss with patient?

A

rationing was one of the answers that seemed wrong

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33
Q

Gastric outlet obstruction in 45 year old male, which is most likely?

  • K of 3.7
  • Aciduria
  • Increase in BUN with normal creatinine
  • pH of 7.3
A

B.
what GOO, its usually due to cancer. You get a very specific and rare electrolyte disturbance :

you get aciduria
metabolic alkalosis
hypokalemia
hypochloremic ( like with pyloic)

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34
Q 
Post-op ileus, NG.  48 hours later, lab work will likely show:
hyperkalemia
hypochloremia
hypernatremia
?
A

B hypochloremia

because youre sucking HCL out of the stomach, they get hypochloremic, hypokalemia

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35
Q

Compartment syndrome of anterior lower leg compartment, which is false?

A

hyperesthesia in sural nerve distribution

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36
Q

Which is not a feature associated with necrotizing soft tissue infection?
Bullae (hemmorahgic)
hypotension
no pain

A

no pain

thats bullshit it should be pain out of proportion extending outside the wound edges

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37
Q

45 year old male abrasion while cleaning basement 24 hours ago. Comes in with cellulitis to lower leg associated bullae, has pain at the area, which extends around redness. WBC 18,000. What is your management?
CT scan of leg
Surgical debridement
Admit and put on triple antibiotic therapy
Trial of PO abx and reassess in 24 hours

A

B- surgical debridement

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38
Q

What happens if trach is inserted through 1st tracheal ring (increased risk of what?)

A

subglottic stenosis

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39
Q

All have been proven to decrease wound infection except?
Preop administration of antibiotics for parotidectomy
Supplemental O2
Keeping patient above 36.8 during the OR
Strict sterile technique

A

preop abx for a sterile and small procesure like a parotidectomy

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40
Q

Which have been proven to decrease SSI – all EXCEPT:
Closed-suction drain
Pre op abx for clean-contaminated cases
Keeping patient normothemic

A

closed suction drain

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41
Q 
Patient in house fire, ++ burns, CO poisening suspected.  Which is most likely.
Pale skin, sat 70%
Pink/red skin, sat 70%
Pale skin, sat 100%
Pink/red skin, sat 100%
A

pink/red with sat 100% ( but the sat probe is reading inaccurately)

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42
Q

Which is most likely cancer post transplant?
lymphoma
Kaposi
Epidermoid skin cancer

A

Epidermoid skin cancer is the most common following solid body organ transplant due to the ongoing immunosuppressive drugs we ask this pts to be on

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43
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

fluid accumulation in tunica vaginalis

44
Q

What has not been proven beneficial in septic shock?

A

Anti-inflammatory modalities

45
Q

Hypoxic vasoconstriction happens because of?

A

Low alveolar 02 : PA02

46
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A

recall the cortex or outside does the salt (Aldo), sugar (cortisol), and sex ( testost and estrogen).
the inside or medulla does epi and norepi

47
Q

What is not an effect of steroids?
Increase in fat deposition
Delayed closure of physis
Ulcers (GI)

A

delayed closure of physis - it actually promotes closure? Not sure I would have known that honestly. Not srue i know what a physis is referring to

48
Q

What is the best determinant of prognosis post TBI?

A

initial GCS

49
Q

Patient with botulism and a nosocomial infection, which of the following is contraindicated in terms of abx/medications?

A

aminoglycosides- Aminoglycosides may potentiate neuromuscular blockade.

50
Q

In a patient with a genetic alteration in cholinergic receptor (vs. acetylcholine esterase?), which of the following drugs will cause prolonged depolarization?

A

a- succinylcholine

51
Q

Which is not consistent with significant PE?

  • ventilation-perfusion mismatch
  • PaO2 > 60
  • Abnormal vascular markings on lateral CXR
  • Non-specific ST and T wave changes
A

Pa02 being above 60 is not in keeping

52
Q

In laparoscopic surgery, what happens when CO2 is insufflated into peritoneal cavity?

A

volume-related changes in cardiac output

53
Q

Which of the following signs is associated with abdominal compartment syndrome?

A

increase in peak airway presssures,

increase in CVP,

54
Q 
All of the following increase CVP except?
Cardiac tamponnade
Simple PTX
Cardiac dysfunction
Over resuscitation
A

simple PTX

recall CVP is a static indicator of right atrial pressures

55
Q

Rationale for using PEEP in ARDS is:
Decrease in FRC
Decrease extracellular lung water
Improve V/Q mismatch

A

increase FRC
reduce extracellular water
improve the V/Q mismatch

56
Q

What is an example of orginal categorical data?

A

breast cancer staging
the idea is that its not a numerical or yes no kind of set information, it a number that has to be put into a framework to make sense eg like staging

57
Q 
For dichotomous outcomes, which can’t you use?
Chi-square
Fishers exact test
Students T test
ANOVA
A

D : ANOVA

i need to read more about what this means honestly..

58
Q

how to do you calculate ARR?

A

CER-EER

you need to read more baout this

59
Q

Male patient with trauma with T8 fracture dislocation, complete sensory and motor loss below that level. No perirectal sensation or rectal tone, no bulbocavernosus reflex. Which is most true?

A

Patient in spinal shock so prognosis cannot be determined at this point
( but the definition of spinal shock is that they will recover some function, atleast the bulbocarvernosus reflex)

60
Q

Sensory level of umbilicus?

A

T10

61
Q

Patient sustained laceration over hand 6 weeks ago. On exam, cannot flex IP joint (FPL rupture). Why can’t you repair?

A

retraction of the myotendinous unit

62
Q

Patient with distal radius fracture many weeks ago, now has paresthesias over 1st and 2nd fingers. Which nerve is more likely affected?

A

i think its radial, but apparently the answer is media

63
Q 
In a study, a new beta-blocker decreases the risk of MI by 25%.  Mortality with MI is 1%.  What is the ARR and NNT for this new beta-blocker?
0.25%, 400
2.5%, 40
25%, 4
1%, 100
A

ARR is 0.25 (1-.75=.25)

and then NNT is 1/0.25 = 400

64
Q

Hyperadrenalism, what are the results of this on the body?

A 
Addision disease is characterized by hypotension, hyperkalemia (no aldsosterone), 
and hyponatremia (due to inability to lose free water)
65
Q

Most common organism in a cat bite?

A

Pastruella

66
Q

Overwhelming sepsis post splenectomy, most likely

A

strep Pneumo

67
Q

Advantage of LMWH over UFH?

A

less risk of bleeding, as there is less inhibition of platelet function

  • higher bioavailability
  • dosing more predictable
  • have to dose less frequently
68
Q

With regards to LMWH and regional anesthesia, when do you need to stop it eg to get a spinal or epidural?

A

12 hours before

69
Q

Which of the following is true about platelets?

A

When activated, they attract fibrinogen

- then also degranulate when they are activated

70
Q

Massive transfusion can lead directly to what?
hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis

A 
it leads to:
hyperkalemia
thrombocytopenia (most commonly)
hypothermia ( second most commonly)
met alkalosis
71
Q

In rhabdo, can get all except
hypokalemia
hypotension

A

hypokalemia

actually you get hyperkalemic from the lysis of cells that release K

72
Q

Which mineral can lead to tetany?

A

magnesium

calcium was not an optino

73
Q 
Which of the following does not result in problems with wound healing?
Zinc
Calcium
Copper
Vitamin C
A

for wound healing you need zinc, vita A, vit C, copper. Recall zinc and iron are cofactors for healing

so calcium is not involved

74
Q 
Which of the following is necessary for wound healing?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Iron
Zinc
A

Vit A - super important

75
Q

Preop lady, very anxious and hyperventilating. Complains of perioral numbness and painful spasm in her hands. What will you most likely find on blood work?

A

A hypocalcemia - perioral tingle

met alkalosis - because of hyperventilation

76
Q 
All can be used to treat hyperkalemia except?
Cation-binding resin
Insulin and glucose
Calcium gluconate
Some random thing that started with M
A

the rando thing that started with M

77
Q

Patient has potassium of 6.7 with peaked T waves. What would you do first?

A

calcium gluconate to stabilize the myocardium

78
Q

In studying wear rates for 4 sizes of femoral heads (24, 28, 30, 32). Which of the following should you use for your statistical analysis?

-Chi-square
ANOVA
T-test

A

B _ ANOVA for comparing more than 2 groups

79
Q 
For which of the following will hand washing be most effective?
Rubella
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
TB
A

Hep A as it is fecal oral

80
Q 
Which of the following stimulates fibroblasts to produce collagen?
TGF-alpha
TGF-beta
IFN gamma
IL-2
A

TGF-beta

81
Q

Most common radiographic abnormality found in the thoracic and lumbar spine when metastic lesions are present

A

vertebral body collapse

82
Q

In a patient with sickle cell anemia, what is the most common complication after transfusion?

A

infection, allo-immunization

83
Q

What is the fluid bolus amount for a pediatric patient?

A

20cc/kg

84
Q

The difference between a split thickness and full thickness skin graft include:

  • Better take of the split thickness skin graft in an infected area
  • More durable coverage
  • Easier to match pigmentation
A

A apparently better take of the split graft to an infected area
i guess esp if you mesh it??

85
Q

It is possible to place a skin graft on a wound infected with all of the following bacteria except:

A

Answer: B, strept secretes streptokinase so you cant form a clot

86
Q

Cardiac index is calculated by:

A

Cardiac output divided by body surface area

87
Q

All are true about starvation except:

A

There are enough carbohydrate stores to supply energy for 5 days

88
Q

Which is true regarding nutrition in renal failure?

A

Increase calorie:nitrogen ratio

89
Q

Patients on TPN often develop elevated cholestatic enzymes because of overfeeding. Which is true:

A

Can occur without any predisposing abnormalities

90
Q

Nerve injury with an intact axon and local conduction block is called

A

neuropraxia

91
Q

Man is post-op AAA repair, uncomplicated. Received 6 L of crystalloid and 4 U PRBC intraop. Is now in ICU. CVP 5, BP 90/60. HR 100. What is your next step.

A

give more fluid

92
Q 
Most sensitive way to determine is there is gas present in an infected diabetic foot?
Smell
Soft tissue radiographs
Clinically
Aspiration with needle
A

sot tissue radiographs

93
Q

With regards to remodeling after fracture, which is true:
Overgrowth is a feature
Osteoclasts have an important role
The bone will never reach normal strength

A

osteoclasts have an important role

94
Q 
In SIADH, all except:
Hyponatremia
Low urine output
High urine osmolarity
Increase ECF
A

D increased ECF

95
Q

Which is not associated with paralytic ileus?
Myxedema
Retroperitoneal hematoma
Hyperkalemia

A

hyperkalemia!

its actually hypokalemia that causes the ileus so you should replace that K when the nurse is always calling about it

96
Q

Which is best to diminish toxic effect of radiation on the skin?
brachytherapy
cobalt

A

brachytherapy

97
Q 
bCG is an example of what type of immunotherapy?
active, specific
active, non-specific
inactive, specific
inactive, non-specific
A

active non specific

98
Q 
Which of the following carries the most risk of cardiac complications in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery?
MI 18 months ago
Severe aortic stenosis
Peripheral vascular disease
A fib on EKG
A

Aortic stenosis

99
Q

Patient POD#2 of uncomplicated OR (? Abdominal), has fever of 38.9.
What is your management?
Ensure physio helps ambulate and do breathing exercises
Starts on IV antibiotics
Do a CT chest

A

ensure physio helps ambulate and breathing exercises

100
Q

Patient was put on 10 days of prednisone 20mg for asthma exacerbation. What will happen if you discontinue it?
no adverse effect
significant depression of adrenal function
tapering would hasten adrenal dysfunction

A

A no effect

people have have supresision of their HPA axis include:
pt with 20mg/day pred x 3 wks
-any pt with clinical cushings

101
Q

Child gets deep laceration to the arm from being bitten by neighbor’s dog. What is the most appropriate course of action?

A

the key says just observe the dog, but I googled and a deep penetration means irrigate, abx,

102
Q

In a child in whom you cannot get IV access, what is the best place to insert intraosseous catheter?

A

One fingerbreath below tibial tubercle, aiming 45 degrees away from knee - aim away from the growth plate

103
Q

Patient sustains a hemothorax, chest tube inserted elsewhere. Initial drainage unknown. What is the minimal amount of hourly blood output that will prompt you to go to the OR for a thoracotomy?

A

1500 initially then over 200cc/hr - just means they are losing ALOT of blood and that should probably be looked into

104
Q

Best indicator of alveolar ventilation:

A

PaC02 - so the c02 concentration in the blood ( arterial)

105
Q 
Patient has a certain pre-test probability for x disease.  What property of your diagnostic test will be most helpful in calculating a post-test probability?
Relative risk
Likelihood ratio
Predictive value (positive or negative)
Sensitivity
A

predictive value

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