20.02.03 Sizing strategies Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of starting material for sizing strategies

A
  • Native DNA (genomic/ mitochondrial)

- Amplified DNA (via PCR)

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2
Q

-Issues with using native DNA

A
  • DNA is too large to pass through gel matrices or supercoiled so passes through at a rate disproportional to size.
  • DNA needs to be fragmented
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3
Q

-Issues with using amplified DNA

A
  • Allele drop out (SNPs or secondary structures)

- Preferential amplification or lack of allele heterozygosity

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4
Q

What determines the rate of migration of DNA through a gel

A
  • Size of DNA
  • Agarose concentration
  • DNA conformation
  • Voltage
  • Presence of ethidium bromide
  • Type of agarose
  • Electrophoresis buffer
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5
Q

What is PAGE

A
  • Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

- Sensitive, can resolve fragments <50 bp in length

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6
Q

What is PFGE

A
  • Pulse field gel electrophoresis
  • Umbrella term for the alternating of an electric field in more than one direction through a solid matrix to achieve separation of DNA molecules
  • Time for DNA to reorientate to new electric field is proportional to their molecular weight.
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7
Q

What is capillary electrophoresis

A
  • Separation of single stranded DNA fragments in a capillary containing polyacrylamide gel.
  • Rate of migration is dependent on the size of the fragment. An internal size standard is run for each sample.
  • Amplified fragments can be mixed by the use of different fluorophores
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8
Q

What are nanowire structures

A

3D nanowire structures embedded in microchannels

  • DNA or RNA mixtures are stained with a dye. ELetrocphoretic mobility difference is assessed as a function of molecular size in the 3D nanowire structure.
  • Reportedly faster and can control size of pore so gives flexibility (DNA, RNA, protein separation)
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9
Q

What is an Agilent 2100 Bioanalyzer

A
  • It is a nanofluidics device the performs size fractionation and quantification of small samples (DNA, RNA, protein)
  • Uses electrophoresis and flow cytometry
  • Often used to assess quality and fragmentation of DNA prior to NGS prep or assess RNA degradation (RIN= RNA integrity number)
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10
Q

How do you assess RNA degradation

A
  • Calculate RIN (RNA integrity number)

- As RNA degrades, there is a decrease in ratio of ribosomal bands 18S and 28S

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11
Q

What is fluorescent PCR

A
  • PCR with a fluorescent tag on one primer
  • Products are analysed by capillary electrophoresis
  • Resolution= 1bp
  • Limitations= size of fragment (larger fragments aren’t amplified), preferential amplification of smaller fragments (drop out of larger alleles)
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12
Q

What is long range PCR

A
  • Normal PCR modified to amplify larger fragments (>5kb)
  • Additives= Betaine to equalise AT and GC contribution, DMSO to weaken base pairing and destabilise secondary structures, 7-deaza-dGTP (base analogue to dGTP, reduces secondary structures)
  • Polymerase mixture used= Taq (highly processive but lacks 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity), Pfu or Pwo (proofread for errors created by Taq)
  • Uses= Large common IKBKG deletion in Incontinentia Pigmenti, intron 22 inversion in Haemophilia A, templates for targeted NGS (e.g. PMS2, PKD1, to avoid pseudogene)
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13
Q

What is triplet primed PCR

A
  • Used to detect expansions in triplet repeat disorders (DM1, FRDA)
  • Used when large expansions would be too big to amplify by conventional PCR
  • Uses a flanking fluorescent primer (P1) and triplet repeat-specific primer (P4). P4 primer is reversed to 3’ is specific to repeat and 5’ is complementary to P3 primer.
  • 10:1 molar ratio of P3:P4, ensures P4 is exhausted early (so P4 doesn’t primer to early PCR products, minimises shortening of PCR products)
  • Limitations= large exps can’t be accurately sized. False negatives in DM1/2 due to SNPs in P1 binding site. Therefore TP-PCR is done bidirectionally. False negatives due to repeat interruptions (DM1/2)
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14
Q

What is chimeric PCR

A
  • Similar to TP-PCR but uses 2 primers
  • Forward primer is locus specific. Reverse primer has two or more annealing sites (5’ end specific to region of HTT gene following CAG repeats, 3’ end complementary to 5 CAGs- chimeric portion)
  • The complementary primer anneals at high temps, generates a prominent peak specific to the full CAG repeat for each allele.
  • The chimeric portion anneals at low annealing temps to generate less prominent peaks that form the CAG stuttering pattern.
  • Detects up to 101 repeats (+/-1)
  • Can be used as a standalone test, primers avoid all known variants, don’t need to use two sets of primers if patient is apparently homozygous as it proves co-amplification of both alleles.
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15
Q

What is inverse shifting PCR

A
  • Detects distinct genomic inversions that result in differently sized products.
  • first applied to severe haemophilia A patients to identify inversions in introns 22 and 1.
  • Genomic DNA is digested by BclI. Digested DNA is then ligated in a large volume to encourage circularisation of fragments
  • Ligated DNA is then used as a template for PCR. Primers designed to point away from each other but would form a PCR product if an inversion is present.
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16
Q

What is southern blotting

A
  • Used to detected large fragments of DNA not amplifiable by PCR
  • Uses= FRAX methylation status of full mutations, C9ORF72, FSHD, DM1
  • Labour intensive, low throughput
17
Q

List steps involved in Southern blotting

A
  1. Restriction digest of DNA- to isolate fragment of interest.
  2. Gel electrophoresis- digested DNA is resolved by electrophoresis.
  3. DNA in gel is denatured to make single stranded
  4. Transfer- DNA transferred from gel to membrane (positively charge nylon or nitrocellulose) by capillary action (absorbent material soaks up buffer through gel and membrane taking DNA with it).
  5. DNA fixed to membrane by baking, sodium hydroxide or UV light.
  6. Probe hybridisation- single stranded probe hybridises to DNA.
  7. Washing- removes unbound probe
  8. Detection- radiolabelled blots are visualised by autoradiography, or for chemiluminescent probes like digoxigenin a substrate is added
18
Q

What is chromosome or molecular combing

A
  • Identification of large DNA rearrangements (4kb-1Mb) by visualisation of single DNA molecules.
  • Chemically modified glass coverslips are dipped into a DNA solution. DNA molecules become irreversibly attached and stretch over coverslip. Labelled NDA probes can then hybridise and detected by fluorescence microscopy.
  • Uses= FSHD (D4ZA repeat contraction)