20.02.02 ARMs, OLA, Pyrosequencing Flashcards

1
Q

What is known mutation detection

A

Methods that can distinguish two alleles based on a single nucleotide difference

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2
Q

Uses of known mutation detection

A
  • Diagnosis of diseases with limited alleleic heterogeneity
  • Detection of common pathogenic variants
  • Diagnosis in a family, where a mutation has been characterised
  • SNP genotyping
  • Testing normal controls to see if a candidate variant is pathogenic or a polypmorphism
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3
Q

What is allele-specific PCR

A
  • Method that allows efficient discrimination of SNPs.
  • Common reverse primer and two forward allele-specific primers. Creates two allele-specific PCR products of different lengths, which are separated by electrophoresis.
  • If the 3’ end nucleotide is not perfectly base paired then amplification will not take place.
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4
Q

What is ARMS

A
  • Amplification refractory mutation system
  • An allele-specific PCR
  • Paired PCR reaction, where there is a common primer with either a normal or mutant-specific primer.
  • Allele-specific primers differ in their 3’ end nucleotide. Amplification does not occur if 3’ end nucleotide doesn’t match.
  • Primers can be designed to give products of varying sizes so they can be multiplexed and separated by electrophoresis.
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5
Q

An example of an ARMS test

A
  • CF-EU Elucigene kit.
  • Tests for the common 50 pathogenic variants in CFTR gene.
  • Two parallel PCR reactions run in parallel
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6
Q

Advantages of ARMS

A
  • Quick, sensitive, simple, cheap
  • Doesn’t require specialist equipment
  • Can detect point mutations, insertion or deletions
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7
Q

Disadvantages of ARMS

A
  • Cannot detect rare or novel variants
  • Polymorphisms under primer site can affecting primer binding.
  • Designing assay can be complex, commercial kits are often required.
  • Cross reactivity may pick up the wrong pathogenic variant. e.g. Phe508del and Phe508Cys
  • Prone to contamination (e.g. MCC in prenatals)
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8
Q

What is restriction enzyme digest

A
  • Where restriction enzymes make double stranded breaks in DNA at specific recognition sites.
  • Used when a substitution creates or abolishes a recognition site of a restriction endonuclease.
  • PCR products containing the potential variant are digested and products separated by electrophoresis to see if a cut has occurred.
  • Methylation specific enzymes can be used to digest methylated DNA.
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9
Q

Example of restriction digests in diagnostic labs

A
  • Haemochromatosis. C282Y variant using Rsa I.

- Haemophilia A. F8 intron 22 inversion using bcl I

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10
Q

Ada vantages of restriction enzyme digest

A
  • Cheap, easy, quick

- No specialist equipment needed

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11
Q

Disadvantages of restriction enzyme digest

A
  • Polymorphisms can affect restriction target sequence.
  • Can only be used in a diagnostic lab if the variant creates a restriction site.
  • Only suitable for use if a restriction enzyme is available for the sequence of interest.
  • Rare or obscure restriction enzymes would not be suitable as expensive and poor quality.
  • Partial or over digestion will affect interpretation.
  • Non-specific activity can occur in the presence of contaminants (e.g. glycerol)
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12
Q

What is FRET

A
  • Fluorescent resonance energy transfer
  • Uses minor groove binders (long molecules that bind to duplex with DNA at minor groove). Very stable interaction.
  • Used in real time PCR.
  • Polymerisation of a new DNA strand is initiated from primers. Once the polymerase reaches probe, 5’-3’ exonuclease degrades the probe. The fluorescent reporter moves away from quencher leading to an increase in fluorescence.
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13
Q

Uses of FRET assays

A

JAK2 V617F mutation in myeloid disease.

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14
Q

Advantages of FRET assays

A
  • Highly selective to target.
  • Very stable
  • Can detect low levels of mutant DNA
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15
Q

Disadvantages of FRET assays

A
  • No multiplexing

- Costly, probes for multiple targets

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16
Q

What is ddPCR

A
  • Droplet digital PCR
  • Method that fractionates a sample into thousands of droplet.
  • PCR is then run using WT and mutant TaqMan probes (different fluorophores), with primers flanking region of interest.
  • Software then reads positive and negative droplets and distinguishes between WT and mutant.
17
Q

Example of ddPCR in diagnostic labs

A

-BRAF V600E in certain cancers

18
Q

Advantages of ddPCR

A

-Detects low level mutations

Quantitative

19
Q

Disadvantages of ddPCR

A
  • Poor amplification due to sample quality (DNA from tumour blocks)
  • Accuracy depends on quality of sample (e.g. high percentage of tumour cells).
  • Fixation of sample causes DNA damage and result in PCR artefacts
20
Q

What is minisequencing

A
  • Based on the incorporation of a single fluorescently labelled ddNTP at 3’ end of an oligonucleotide. Oligo is complementary to the sequence and located one nucleotide before the examined polymorphic site.
  • Labelled ddNTPs are incorporated and separated by capillary electrophoresis
  • Not used in diagnostic testing anymore
21
Q

What is OLA

A
  • Oligonucleotide ligation assay
  • Two oligos (mutant or WT) are designed to hybridise to adjacent DNA sequences, where the join site is adjacent to the position of the pathogenic variant.
  • two steps
    1) PCR primer is hybridised to target sequence, where nucleotide of interest is at 3’.
    2) Ligation reaction. A common primer with a fluorescent dye at 3’ end meets the first primer over the nucleotide of interest. If the 3’ end of the first primer matches perfectly with the target DNA, ligation occurs. No ligation occurs when there is a mismatch between the 3’ end of the first primer and the target DNA.
  • No longer used diagnostically
22
Q

What is pyrosequencing

A
  • Based on sequencing by synthesis.
  • Polymerase extends DNA one dNTP at a time. When dNTP is added a pyrophosphate is released. Enzymes couple this pyrophosphate to light emission by luciferase.
  • Amount of light released is proportional to the number of bases incorporated.
  • No longer used diagnostically