Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endeavor Air > 200 Limitations > Flashcards

200 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

RNAV Required Equipment (7)

A 
VOR (2)
DME (2)
FMS
Current FMS Database
GPS (1)
Flight Directors (2)
Autopilot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

RNAV operations must not be conducted with any of the following messages displayed (9):

A 
GPS NOT AVAILABLE
GPS DISABLED
GPS-FMS DISAGREE
DME-FMS DISAGREE
FMS-FMS DISAGREE
LOW POS ACCURACY
CHK POS
NO APPR GPS RAIM
NO GPS RAIM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When may RNAV operations be continued following the display of an FMS “CHK POS” message?

A

If the message is displayed for less than one minute while en-route, and clears itself with no action from the pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When must the ADC source coupled to the autopilot must be the same as that coupled to the transponder?

A

During flight in RVSM airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Operational Limitations for Category II Operations (9)

A 
Flap configuration - 45-degrees
Both Engines Operating
Autopilot Coupled
Aircraft Placarded as Certified for Category II
Both Pilots Trained and Qualified
Both Pilots Have 100 hrs. In-Seat in CL-65 at Endeavor
Flight Director Transferred to FO's Side
Maximum Headwind - 17 kts.
Maximum Tailwind/Crosswind - 10 kts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The minimum required oxygen pressure guarantees there is adequate oxygen to:

A

Perform an emergency descent from 41,000 ft. to 10,000 ft. in 10 minutes, followed by 110 minutes of cruise at 10,000 ft. with a “Normal” mask setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What oxygen pressure will trigger the OXY LO PRESS caution message?

A

1410 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Under what conditions may a flight be conducted with an OXY LO PRESS caution message (3)?

A

No leak suspected
Flight conducted where MEAs are 10,000 ft. and below
Sufficient pressure is verified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum crew oxygen bottle pressure?

A

1850 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum number of passengers on the main cabin door:

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum weight on the main cabin door

A

1000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If cargo is carried in the cargo compartment, how close must a flight always be to a suitable airport?

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum cargo capacity

A

3500 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

41,000 ft

37,000 ft (company)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum operating altitude during single-pack operations

A

25,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum ambient temperature for takeoff and landing

A

ISA +35-deg C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Minimum ambient temperature for takeoff

A

-40-deg C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Target rotation rate on takeoff

A

3-degrees per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When calculating landing performance, when must “Wet” data be used?

A

The runway is wet

The visibility is less than RVR40 or 3/4SM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum Taxi and Ramp Weight

A

53,250 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

53,000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

47,000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

44,000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

30,000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maneuvering Load Limits

A
  • 1.0g - 2.5g (F Up)

0. 0g - 2.0g (F Dn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Avoid unnecessary and large side-slip maneuvers during which flight regime?

A

Low-speed, high-altitude cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum Runway Slope

A

+2 uphill / -2 downhill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing

A

10 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a wet runway

A

27 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway

A

27 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a contaminated runway

A

15 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definition of Visible Moisture

A

Clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Engine Anti-Ice

ground operations

A

OAT is 10C or below and visible moisture is present

OAT is 10C or below when operating on contaminated surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When must the Wing Anti-Ice be selected ON for takeoff?

A

OAT is 5C or below and:

Visible moisture below 400 ft AGL, or
Runway is wet or contaminated, or
Presence of any precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When must the Wing Anti-Ice be selected ON during final taxi?

A

OAT is 5C or below, unless anti-ice fluid has been applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For the purpose of Wing Anti-Ice, what is considered “Final Taxi”?

A

Initiation of the Before Takeoff Checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If required for taxi, when may the Wing Anti-Ice be selected ON?

A

After both engines are running, but no later than the commencement of the Before Takeoff Checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If anti-ice fluid has been applied, when may the Wing Anti-Ice be selected ON?

A

Just prior to thrust increase for takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If anti-ice is not required for takeoff, when may the Wing Anti-Ice be selected OFF?

A

Just prior to takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Engine Anti-Ice

flight operations

A

In icing conditions

When ICE is detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Wing Anti-Ice

flight operations

A

In icing conditions less than 230 kt

When ICE is detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Definition of Icing Conditions in-flight

A

TAT of 10C or below with visible moisture present, except when SAT is -40C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to which aircraft surfaces?

A

Upper surface of the fuselage

Underside of wing (caused by cold-soaked fuel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A tactile check of the wing leading edge, and forward and rear upper surfaces, is required when:

A

OAT is 10C or less, or wing fuel temperature is 0C or less, and:

There is visible moisture
Water is present on the wing
Temp/Dew Point spread is 3C or less
Conditions conducive to frost formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the maximum depths of standing water acceptable for takeoff and landing?

A

1/2 in. for Takeoff

3/4 in. for Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the maximum depths of slush acceptable for takeoff and landing?

A

1/2 in. for Takeoff

7/8 in. for Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the maximum depths of wet snow acceptable for takeoff and landing?

A

1 in. for Takeoff

1 1/2 in. for Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the maximum depths of dry snow acceptable for takeoff and landing?

A

3 in. for Takeoff

3 3/4 in. for Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is a takeoff authorized on a contaminated runway with one thrust reverser inoperative?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is a landing authorized on a contaminated runway with one thrust reverser inoperative?

A

Yes, unless a Special Winter Operations Airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Under what condition is landing prohibited on a contaminated runway with one thrust reverser inoperative?

A

Special Winter Operations Airports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speeds

A

200 kt - Flaps 8
200 kt - Flaps 20
185 kt - Flaps 30
170 kt - Flaps 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Maximum Flap Extended Speeds

A

230 kt - Flaps 8
230 kt - Flaps 20
185 kt - Flaps 30
170 kt - Flaps 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed

A

250 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speeds

A

200 kt - Retraction

250 kt - Extension

57
Q

Maximum Tire Limit Speed

A

182 kt groundspeed

58
Q

Maximum Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

A

280 kt or 0.75M, whichever is lower

59
Q

Maximum Speed with STAB or MACH TRIM Inoperative

A

250 kt or 0.70M, unless the autopilot is engaged

60
Q

Bank angle is limited to 15-degrees when operating below which speed?

A

Maneuvering Speed

Vref + 10 kt

61
Q

Maximum Windshield Wiper Speed

62
Q

If the windshield wiper has failed in a non-parked position, the speed must not exceed:

63
Q

What occurrence signifies the onset of a stall warning?

A

Stick Shaker Operation

64
Q

When is it acceptable to climb below 250 kt/0.70M above 10,000 ft (3)?

A

In mountainous terrain, until clear of terrain or reaching MEA - Vx or Vref + 10

When specifically asked by ATC - Vy, except in icing conditions above 15,000 ft.

Highest speed allowed by an MEL, but not below Vx

65
Q

A climb will be stopped when the vertical speed at 250 kt/0.70M decreases to:

A

300 ft/min

66
Q

Minimum Enroute Cruise Speeds

A

Long Range Cruise - Above FL310

Two-Engine Vmd - At and Below FL310

67
Q

Full application of rudder and ailerons are restricted to airspeeds below:

A

Maneuvering Speed

68
Q

Minimum N2% for Engine Starting

69
Q

Maximum ITT During Engine Start

70
Q

Maximum ITT During Engine Acceleration

71
Q

Maximum Continuous ITT

72
Q

Maximum ITT During Normal Takeoff

A

884C for 5 minutes

900C for 2 of 5 minutes

73
Q

Maximum ITT During Go-Around or APR Thrust

A

900C for 5 minutes

928C for 2 of 5 minutes

74
Q

Maximum N2 Split at Idle Power

75
Q

With an OAT of -20 or warmer, the engine must not be accelerated above Idle with an N2 of what (or less)?

76
Q

What defines a cold-soaked airplane?

A

Exposed to temperatures of -30C or below for more than 8 hours

77
Q

Prior to the first flight of the day, what must take place for a cold-soaked airplane?

A

Engine dry-motored for 60 s, and fan rotation verified prior to engine start

Reverse thrust actuated until deploy/stow cycles are less than 5 s

78
Q

Minimum Oil Temperature for Engine Starting

79
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Temperature

80
Q

Maximum Permissible Oil Temperature

A

163C

15 min maximum

81
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure at Steady State Idle

82
Q

Minimum Oil Pressure at Takeoff Power

83
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Pressure

84
Q

Maximum Transient Oil Pressure After Cold Start

A

156 psi

130 psi at idle, 10 min maximum

85
Q

Continuous Ignition must be used during the following conditions:

A

Takeoff and landing on contaminated runways
Takeoffs when crosswind exceeds 10 kt
Flight through moderate or heavier rain
Flight through moderate or heavier turbulence
Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms

86
Q

How long must the engines run prior to takeoff?

87
Q

How long must the engines stabilize at idle prior to shutdown?

88
Q

For the purpose of engine stabilization, what maximum engine speed may be considered as part of the cool-down period?

89
Q

If after an engine shutdown ITT is observed to rise rapidly above 350C, what action must be taken?

A

Carry out a dry-motoring cycle

90
Q

Maximum N2 RPM for engagement of the engine starter

91
Q

Engine Starter Limits

A

1 - 60 s on, 10 s off
2 - 60 s on, 10 s off
3+ - 60 s on, 5 min off

92
Q

Dry Motoring Cycle Limits

A

1 - 90 s on, 5 min off

2+ - 30 s on, 5 min off

93
Q

Maximum ITT for thrust level movement from SHUT OFF to IDLE

A

120C for ground starts

90C for air starts

94
Q

Maximum Altitude for Airborne Engine Relight

95
Q

Target Airspeed for Windmilling Engine Relight

96
Q

Reduced thrust may not be used in the following situations (7):

A

Normal N1 is less than 85%
Engine unable to achieve full rated thrust
Anti-ice in use
Contaminated runway
Warnings of windshear or downdrafts forecast
Special DP specifies full thrust
Anti-skid inoperative

97
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between left and right main tanks:

98
Q

When may takeoffs be initiated with more than 500 lb of fuel in the center tank?

A

If each wing tank contains more than 4400 lb

99
Q

Minimum fuel for a go-around

A

900 lb

450 lb per wing

100
Q

Minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff

101
Q

Minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff

102
Q

Powered fuel crossflow and gravity crossflow must be in what configuration for takeoff?

A

Both must be off for takeoff.

103
Q

When may the engine oil level be checked?

A

Within 3 minutes to 2 hours after engine shutdown

104
Q

Minimum ambient temperature for APU starting

105
Q

APU Start Limits on Battery Power

A

1 - 30 s on, 2 min off
2 - 30 s on, 20 min off
3 - 30 s on, 2 min off
4 - 30 s on, 40 min off

106
Q

APU Start Limits on DC Ground Power

A

1 - 15 s on, 2 min off
2 - 15 s on, 20 min off
3 - 15 s on, 2 min off
4 - 15 s on, 40 min off

107
Q

Maximum APU Operating Altitude

108
Q

Maximum APU Start Altitude

109
Q

Maximum Altitude for APU Bleed Air Extraction

110
Q

Maximum Altitude for APU-Assisted Engine Starts In-Flight

111
Q

If both engines are started using APU bleed air, the operating engine thrust must not exceed:

112
Q

When operating with the APU door open, the following limitation applies:

A

Airspeed limited to 300 kt, OR

APU must remain in operation

113
Q

Maximum Positive Differential Cabin Pressure

114
Q

Maximum Negative Differential Cabin Pressure

115
Q

Maximum Differential Cabin Pressure During Taxi, Takeoff, and Landing

116
Q

What is the minimum cabin altitude that the pressurization system may be operated in manual mode?

117
Q

The EMER DEPRESS button must not be pushed above what altitude?

118
Q

Which door must remain open when the low-pressure air ground connection is used?

A

Passenger Door

119
Q

Rated AC Load for Main Generators

A

30 kVA to 35,000 ft

25 kVA above 35,000 ft

120
Q

Rated AC Load for APU Generator

A

30 kVA to 37,000 ft

121
Q

Maximum Load on Each TRU

122
Q

Maximum Permissible Time on Ground DC Power

123
Q

Except for touch-and-go training, flaps must be selected from which detent?

124
Q

Maximum Altitude for Flap Extension

125
Q

Upon arrival at the destination airport, an approach shall not be commenced, nor shall the flaps be extended unless one of the following criteria exists (4):

A
  1. Precision approach - Visibility at/above minimums
  2. Non-precision approach - Ceiling/visibility at/above minimums.
  3. Emergency requires landing at nearest suitable airport
  4. Fuel sufficient to divert and land with 1000 lb remaining
126
Q

For the purpose of flap limitation, a diversion route must allow a minimum flight altitude not to exceed:

127
Q

Flight spoilers must not be extended below what altitude?

A

1000 ft AGL

128
Q

Minimum airspeed for flight spoiler use:

A

Recommended maneuvering speed + 17 kt

129
Q

Maximum flap setting for flight spoiler use:

A

30-degrees

130
Q

Unless operating under MEL guidance, takeoff with the following thrust reverser indications is prohibited (3):

A

THRUST REVERSER UNLK light
REV icon on N1 gauge
L(R) REV UNLOCKED caution messge

131
Q

Maximum reverse thrust is not authorized below what airspeed?

132
Q

For the purpose of reverse thrust, what is considered “idle thrust”?

A

Not above 30% N1

133
Q

Taxi lights must be switched OFF whenever the aircraft is stationary in excess of:

134
Q

When is the use of the FCP submode “DES” prohibited?

A

During approaches

135
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use (general)

A

600 ft AGL

136
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use on a non-precision approach

A

400 ft AGL

137
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot use on a precision appraoch

138
Q

If the GPS is inoperative, what must be inhibited for operations below FL180?

A

Terrain awareness alerting and display functions

139
Q

FMS-calculated thrust settings must not be used for advisory information above which altitude?

Endeavor Air (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions