20 cards Flashcards

1
Q

empirical antibiotic regimen of choice for pyelonephritis.

A

Intravenous ampicillin plus intravenous gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common urinary malignancy

A

Bladder transitional cell carcinoma/ TCC/UC/ urothelial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line treatment of superficial urothelial carcinoma

A

Transurethral resection which allows for histopathological grading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of low grade, non muslce invasive TCC of the bladder

A

Repeat cystoscopy in 3 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of recurrent, high grade superficial urothelial cancer

A

Single dose of intravesical mitomycin or epirubicin - administered in theatre with cytotoxic precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management of muscle invasive urothelial cancer

A

Radical cystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for urinary clot retention

A
  1. Catheter irrigation
  2. Manual bladder washout
  3. Cystoscopy and clot evacuation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inital investigation for painless hematuria

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gleason score

A

Gleason score is a pathological measure of the degree of mutation in prostate cancer. The Gleason score consists of a primary + secondary grade. Grading is based on architectural features of the tissue biopsy ranging from a score of 1 (well differentiated) to 5 (poorly differentiated). The primary grade indicates the most prevalent architectural pattern, and the secondary grade indicates the next most prevalent architectural pattern (eg. 4+3).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What features of varicocele should prompt further investigation

A

unilateral/right-sided varicocele should raise suspicion for a retroperitoneal obstructing mass in the abdomen and should trigger further investigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does Addison’s disease most commonly cause

A

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does alcohol posioning cause

A

Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does hypoxia cause

A

raised AG metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of metabolic abnormality does shock most commonly cause?

A

raised AG metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EGFR 30-44 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function

A

CKD stage 3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Greater than 90 ml/min, with some sign of kidney damage on other tests (if all the kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD)

A

CKD stage 1

17
Q

egfr 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage (if kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD)

A

CKD stage 2

18
Q

egfr 45-59 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function

A

CKD stage 3a

19
Q

Egfr 15-29 ml/min, a severe reduction in kidney function

A

CKD stage 4

20
Q

EGFR Less than 15 ml/min, established kidney failure - dialysis or a kidney transplant may be needed

A

CKD stage 5

21
Q

What medication should be started in patients with albumin to creatinine ratio of >30 mg/mmol

22
Q

Most common form of prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

23
Q

At which EGFR level does anaemia in CKD become apparent

A

GFR less than 35 ml/min, other causes of anaemia should be considered in GFR is >60 ml/min

24
Q

Presentation of post streptococcal GN

A

Hematuria, proteinuria/edema, HTN and oliguria