2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

side effects of Barbituates (sedatives/hypnotics)

A
sleepy
hypoventilation
nausea
bradycardia
hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Benzo use and adverse effects and examples(antianxiety)

A
  1. short-term use/panic attacks
  2. withdrawl syndrome after as little as 4-6wks of therapy
  3. diazepam and lorazepam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

non benzo use and examples (antianxiety)

A
  1. long term

2. hydroxyzine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI) Action, adverse effect, contraindication, patient management, and examples (Antidepressants)

A
  1. increases serotonin by inhibiting neuronal uptake to CNS
  2. Sexual dyfunction and insomnia
  3. CV issues and elderly.
  4. 4-6 weeks to become effective and dont take with St. Johns Wart
  5. Citalopram, Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) (antidepressant) Action
adverse Effect
Patient Management
Examples

A
  1. increase serotonin by inhibiting neuronal uptake to CNS
  2. Sexual Dysfunction and insomnia
  3. 4-6 weeks to become effective and dont take with St. Johns Wart
  4. Citalopram, Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Anti psychotic 
action
adverse effect
Contraindication
examples
A
  1. block dopamine receptors in the brain, causes CNS depression
  2. hypotension, sedation, extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignany syndrome
  3. severly depressed and hypotension
  4. haloperidol and phenothiazines (specifically promethazine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
Amphetamines ( CNS Stimulants)
Adverse Effects
Contraindication
Patient Management
Examples
A
  1. Headache, dizziness, apprehension,over simulation of the CNS, insomnia, tachycardia, blurred vision, hypertension
  2. Hypertension, stroke, and glaucoma.
  3. Insomnia and anorexia usually disappear during continued therapy, decrease caffeine, and loss of appetite.
  4. Methylphenidate HCL and Destroamphetamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anti-Convulsants

Examples

A

Pheno

  1. Diazepam
  2. Lorazepam

Non-Pheno
1. Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anti-Emetic/Anti-Vertigo

  1. Action
  2. Example
A
  1. Ondansetron blocks the effects of serotonin at the 5-HT3 receptor sites
    2.Promethazine
    2A. Ondonsetron
    2B. AntiVertigo
    2C. Meclizine
    2D. Diazepam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anesthetics

  1. Action
  2. Contraindication
  3. Examples
A
  1. Inhibits transport of ions across neuronal membranes (Sodium-Potassium channels)
    1A. Ketamine produces a cataleptic type state
  2. Risk of laryngospasms.
    2A. Ketamine: conditions in which increase BP wouldbe hazardous
  3. Lidocaine
    Ketamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Analgesics

1. Subclasses

A
  1. Salicylate
    1B. Non-Salicylates
    1C. NSAIDS
    1D. Urinary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

NSAIDS

  1. Action
  2. Example
A
  1. inhibits the action of the enzyme cyclooygenase (COX-1 [non-selective] and COX-2 [selesctive]) which is responsible for prostaglandin synthesis
  2. Celecoxib (selective COX2)
    Melaxicam (selective COX2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Urinary anesthetics

  1. Side Effects
  2. Examples
A
  1. Turns urine orange-red

2. Phenazopyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Narcotic Analgesics

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Side Effects
  4. Contraindications
  5. Examples
A

1.Opiods bind to opiate receptors in the CNS
2. Short term management of moderate to severe pain
3. Resp Depression, Light headedness, Constipation, N/V
4. Codeine
Fentanyl
morphine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Narcotic Antagonist

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Example
A
  1. acts on opiod receptors, effectively blocks the receptor, preventing the body from responding to opiates and endorphins
    * *Competative Antagonist**
  2. Overdose of a narcotic
  3. Naloxone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antihistamine

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Adverse Effect
  4. Examples
A
  1. Block H1 and CNS depressants
  2. Allergies, allergic reaction, sedations, insomnia, motion sickness, problems with inner ear
  3. Anticholinergic effects, Drying Effect, Fatigue, hypotension
  4. 1st Gen: diphenhydramine
    Hydroxyzine
    Promethazine
    2nd Gen: Cetirizine
    Loratadine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Decongestant

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effect
  3. Examples
A
  1. alpha-adrenergic receptors induces vasoconstriction of the blood vessels of the nose, throat, and paranasal sinuses which results in reduced inflammation
  2. hypertension, tachycardiac
  3. Oxymetazoline HCL
    Pseudoephedrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Broncho Dilators (Beta 2 antagonists)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Adverse Effects
  4. Contraindications
  5. Examples
A
  1. Beta 2 receptors are in bronchial smooth muscle and when stimulated cause relation of bronchioles, mydrasis
  2. reversible airway obstruction caused by bronchospasm due to bronchial asthma
  3. tachycardia, increase respiration
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias
  5. albuterol sulfate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Broncho dilators (Corticosteroids)

  1. Adverse Effects
  2. Examples
A
  1. Throat irritation/cough and candidae albicans

2. Fluticasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Broncho dilators (antitussives)

  1. Action
  2. Examples
A
  1. Central acting: depresses cough center
  2. Codeine sulfate
    Benzonatate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mucolytics (bronchodilators)

1. action

A
  1. brings fluids to loosen respiratory secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Expectorants (bronchodilators)

  1. Action
  2. Example
A
  1. Raises mucus from respiratory system

2. Guafenesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anti Arrhythmics (Class 2)
Action
2. Example

A

Beta blockers block stimulation of the beta receptors of the heart. Adrenergic neurohormones stimulate the beta receptors and increase the heart rate
2. Metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antiarrythmics (Class 3)

  1. Action
  2. Use
A

Amiodarone blocks potassium channels in the heart. this is used for ventricular dysrrthmias and atrial fibrillation
2. Amiodrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antiarrythmics (Class 4)

  1. Action
  2. Use
A

Verapamil blocks calcium channels which are critical to the production of muscle contraction and electrical conduction atrial fibrillation
2. Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nitrates (Antifungal)

1.Patient Management

A
  1. if BP is <100 systolic do not give

do not use with Viagra, Cialis, Levitra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ACE inhibitors (antihypertensives)

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effects
  3. Example
A
  1. Breakdown of angiotensin 1 in the lungs
  2. dry hacking cough
  3. Lisinopril
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (antihypertensives)
1. Action
2. Use
3.

A
  1. Reduces excitability

2. Cardiac conduction and contractibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Beta Blockers (antihypertensives)

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effect
A
  1. beta blockers compete with adregenic for adrenergic receptors sites (beta)
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HMG-Coa statins (antihyperlipidemic)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Examples
A
  1. reductase inhibitors inhibit an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis (Most Common)
  2. Reduction of blood lipids
  3. Atorvastatin: Lipitor
    Simvastatin: Zocor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Thiazide Diuretics (diuretics)

  1. Action
  2. Contraindication
  3. Examples
A
  1. inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney
  2. hydrochlorothiazide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Antacids

  1. Action
  2. Contraindications
  3. Examples
A
  1. Neutralize of reduce the acidity
  2. Severe abdominal pain of unknown cause
  3. Calcium caronate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Histamine H2 Antagonist

  1. Action
  2. Examples
A
  1. reduces the secretion of gastric Acid

2. Ranitidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Antidiarrheal

1. Contraindication

A
  1. abdominal pain o funknown origin

bloody stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Antiflatulents

1. Examples

A
  1. Simethicone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Laxatives

  1. Contraindications
  2. Examples (irritant/stimulant and bulk producing)
A
  1. persistent abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting of unknown cause
  2. biscodyl
    Psyillium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

  1. Action
  2. use
  3. Examples
A
  1. blocking the final step in the production of gastric acid
  2. ulcers with helicobacter pylori
  3. omeprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hemorrhoid Agents

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effects
  3. Examples
A
  1. Antiinflammatory
  2. Atrophy
  3. Hydrocortisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Insulin (Antidiabetics)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Adverse Effects
A
  1. stimulates the synthesis of glycogen by the liver
  2. insulin is necessary for controlling type 1
    severe and complicated type 2
  3. hypoglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sulfonylureas (oral antibiotics)

  1. action
  2. contraindications
A
  1. stimulates beta cells of pancreas

2. severe infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

biguanide (oral antibiotics)

  1. Action
  2. Contraindication
  3. Examples
A
  1. reduces hepatic glucose production and decrease intestinal ansorptiono of glucose and improve insulin sensitivity in fat and muscle in muscle and fat cells
  2. severe infection
  3. metformin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Thyroid (hormones)

1. Examples

A
  1. levothyroxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Male Hormones (hormones)

  1. Adverse Reaction
  2. Examples
A
  1. May result in breast enlargement

2. Methyltestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Contraceptive (hormones)

  1. Action
  2. Examples
A
  1. Estrogen-inhibition of ovulation

Progestin-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sulfonamides (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Examples
A

1.Bacteriostatic
2. UTI
Silver sulfadizine is topical and sued to treat burns
3. Silver sulfadiazine
Trimethoprim
sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Penicillins (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Examples
A
  1. prevents bacteria from using a substance that is necessary for the maintenance of the bacterias outer wall
  2. Gonorrhea
    Syphillis
    3.PENVK
    Amoxicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cephlosporone (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Contraindication
  3. Examples
A
  1. ffects the vacterial cell wall making it defective and unstable. Will work on bacteria that has become resistance to PCN
  2. Allergy to cephalosporins
  3. 1st Gen
    -Cephalexin
    -Cefazolin
    3rd Gen
    -ceftriaxone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tetracyclines (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Examples
A
  1. bacteriostatic, broad spectrum
  2. Rickettsia
  3. Doxycyclin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Macrolides (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Examples
A
  1. Bacteriostatic
    2.pneumonia
  2. Azithromycin
    erythromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fluoroquinolones (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Use
  3. Adverse Effects
A
  1. Bactericidal
  2. pneumonia
    UTI
    STI
  3. Achilles tendon ruptures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

aminoglycocides (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Adverse effects
  3. Contraindication
  4. Examples
A
  1. disrupt the functional ability of the bacterial cell membrane
  2. nephrotoxicity
    ototoxicity
    neurotoxicity
  3. preexisting hearing loss
  4. gentamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Carbapenems (antibacterial)

  1. Action
  2. Examples
A
  1. extended spectrum beta lactamases

2. ertapenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nitroimidazole (antibacterial)

  1. Use
  2. Examples
A
  1. (a) Anaerobic bacterial infections

2. metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lincosamide (antibacterial)

  1. use
  2. examples
A
  1. (alternative agent)(a) Skin and soft tissue infections ( MRSA)
  2. clindamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

antivirals

  1. action
  2. Examples
A
  1. most agents inhibit viral replication
  2. penciclovir
    oseltamivir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Antifungals

  1. adverse effects
  2. examples
A
  1. oral ketoconazole can include herpatic toxicity
  2. topical
    - clotrimazole
    Systemic
    -fluconazole
    -terbinafine
57
Q

Muscle relaxers

1. Examples

A
  1. cyclobenzaprine

methocarbamol

58
Q

Corticosteroids

  1. action
  2. use
  3. adverse effects
  4. Examples
A
  1. potent antiinflammatory
  2. rheumatic disorders
    allergic reactions
  3. if abrupt cessation occurs a potentiall life threatening adrenal insufficiency can occur
  4. prednisone
59
Q

Triptan (antimigraine)

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effects
  3. Contraindication
  4. examples
A
  1. causes vasoconstriction and reduces neurogenic inflammation
  2. hypertension
  3. ischemic heart disease
  4. sumatriptan
60
Q

Scabicide (skin disorder)

  1. action
  2. Adverse effects
A
  1. paralysis and death of the pest

2. Seizures

61
Q

Antibiotic (topical anti-infective)

  1. use
  2. Example
A
  1. prevent superficial infection

2. bacitracin

62
Q
Anti fungal (topical anti-infective)
1. Examples
A
  1. Clotrimazole
63
Q
Anti viral (topical anti-infective)
1. Examples
A

penciclovir

64
Q

antiseptics and germicides

1. Examples

A
  1. Chlorohexidine gluconate

2. povidone iodine

65
Q

topical corticosteroids
1. adverse effects
. Contraindications
3. Examples

A
  1. atrophy and secondary infection
  2. use on face, groin, and axilla
  3. hydrocortisone 1% cream and ointment
    Triamcinolone 0.1% cream
66
Q

Keralytics

  1. Use
  2. Examples
A
  1. anywhere on the body
  2. podofilox
  3. salicylic acid
67
Q

Otic preparations

  1. Action
  2. use
  3. Contraindications
  4. Examples
A
  1. Antibiotic, steroid combination, miscellaneous
  2. treat infection and inflammation and aid in the removal of ear wax
  3. dont use if the ear drum is perforated
    4.Aluminum acetate/acetic acid
    Carbamide peroxide
    1% hydrocortisone 3.3mg neomycin sulfate
    ciprofloxacin
68
Q

Antiviral Preparations (opthalmic preparations)

  1. Use
  2. Examples
A
  1. herpes simplex infection of the eye

2. gandclovir

69
Q
Artificial tears (opthalmic preparations)
1. use
A

lubricates the eyes

70
Q

Smoking cessation aid

1. examples

A
Transdermal patch
gum
inhaler
nasal spray
lozenge
71
Q

What does the liver do

A

Metabolize

72
Q

What does liver disease effect

A

Half life

73
Q

Different routes for drugs

A

Tst-interdermal

ā€œknow the other routesā€

74
Q

Different types of oral route

A
  1. buccal
    sublingual
    oral
    NG tube
75
Q

Drugs and alcohol at the same time produces what kind of effect

A

synergistic

76
Q

MAOI interacts with what?

A

Everything

Donā€™t take with SSRIs

77
Q

Worse case scenario for abrupt corticosteroid cessation

A

Adrenal insufficiency and death

78
Q

ACE inhibitors/ARBs, Beta blockers, Calcium Channel Blockers, and Diuretics are what class of drugs

A

Antihypertensive

79
Q

How do diacritics work

A

exchange of ions removes water in the nephrons. All about the ions

80
Q

Medication for ventricular dysrhythmia

A

amiodarone

81
Q

What type of drug stops a response

A

Antagonist

82
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

Slows/retards bacterial regeneration

83
Q

Greatest effect on platelets

A

Salicylates (aspirin) make the platelets slick - something about aggregation

84
Q

Why wouldnt we use a laxative

A

impactino

unknown abdominal pain

85
Q

what are beta blockers used for prophy;actically

A

migrains

86
Q

immergent reasons for beta blockers

A

aortic dissection and aneyurisms

87
Q

1:1 drug reaction

A

additive

88
Q

Pharmokinetic

A

Lip to tip

89
Q

Antipsychotic goal

A

CNS depression

90
Q

Statans are what kind of drug

A

hypolipidemias

91
Q

Examples of antacids

A

laxatives can also be antacids

92
Q

Treating hemorrhoids does what

A

reduces inflammation

93
Q

Drug that treats flu

A

osotamovir

94
Q

Sulfdrugs

  1. can be used for what
  2. Contraindications
  3. Examples
A
  1. Good for burns
  2. G^PD and Sulfas cant be mixed
  3. Silver sulfadiazine
  4. Trimethoprine/sulfamethoxazole
95
Q

PCN

  1. does what
  2. examples
A
  1. prevents bacteria from using a substance that is necessary for the maintenance of the bacterias outer wall
    2.PENVK
    Amoxicillin
96
Q

Cephalosporins

  1. used to be what and is now what
  2. prefix
A
  1. Used to be gram pos but now broad

2. CEPH/CEF

97
Q

Tetracyclines

  1. Use
  2. Adverse effect
A
  1. Arthropod or insect bite or infectious disease

2

98
Q

Macrolides are used when

A

As a back up for PCN allergies
Azithromycin
Erythromycin

99
Q

Fluoroquinolones

  1. Adverse Reactions
  2. Examples
A
  1. Achilles tendon ruptures

2. Ciprofloxacin

100
Q

Aminoglycocides

  1. Action
  2. examples
A

1.disrupt the functional ability of the bacterial cell membrane
2. Gentomycin
Neomycin

101
Q

Carbapenems

1. Examples

A

Ertapenem

Heavy Hitters used during Heavy Trauma

102
Q

Nitromidazole

  1. Uses
  2. Example
  3. Patient MAnagement
A
  1. (a) Anaerobic bacterial infections
  2. Metronidazole-BV or used as a secondary for other gut stuff
  3. No alcohol
103
Q

Sedatives and hypnotics
a. Action
Breakdowns

A
  1. Barbituates
104
Q

Antianxiety

  1. What are they
  2. How long does it take to kick in
  3. How do they work
A
  1. Benzos/ NonBenzos
    IDCs use Hydroxyzine for non benzo. Any SSRI for the physician
    Diazepam for pnic attacks on ship IDC
  2. 4-6WKs
  3. Benzos works on
105
Q

Antidepressant
for sleep
examples

A
  1. Trazadone

2. SSRIs end with (ine, tine, and line [sometimes pram])

106
Q

Antipsychotic

  1. use
  2. exmples
A
  1. for psychoses

2. promethazine

107
Q

CNS stimulants

  1. Action
  2. Adverse Effects
  3. PT management
  4. Contraindications
A
  1. Stimulates the CNS
  2. Increases the BP and HR
  3. Reduce caffeine, surpresses the appetite
  4. Glaucoma
108
Q

Anticonvulsants

  1. Drug of choice
  2. Which on prevents new onset
A
  1. Diazepam

2. Phenytoin

109
Q

Local anesthetics

A

Block ion channels

110
Q

Ketamine works on which receptors

A

GABA

111
Q

Which meds is not given if marines are in combat

A

NSAIDs and salucylates

112
Q

Which drug for UTI

A

phenopyridadine

113
Q

Whos recognized as the ships controlled substance custodian

A

Ships MDR

114
Q

How is accountability for controlled substances taken

A

through a working stock log and periodic inventories

115
Q

Working Stock Custodian shall maintain a minimum of how much of each authorized controlled substance in the working stock safe at all times.

A

one unit of issue

116
Q

In the absence of a Pharmacy Technician, the Working Stock Custodian will be

A

the Independent Duty Corpsman

117
Q

Who cant be the WSC

A

must not be the Bulk Stock Custodian or a member of the CSIB

118
Q

Who provides training in accordance with Controlled Substances Standard Operating Procedures to the Bulk Stock Custodian and all CSIB members prior to appointment
This person also tests them out

A

WSC

119
Q

All records must be maintained for how long

A

3 years

120
Q

Who does the WSC report directly to?

A

CO

121
Q

Who should be the BSC

A
  • a commissioned officer appointed in writing with responsibilities delineated by the current CO
  • must not be the Working Stock Custodian or a member of the Controlled Substance Inventory Board (CSIB)
122
Q

A minimum of how many safes must be onboard

A

two safes

-The only exceptions are DDG 1000, LCS, MCM and PC platforms

123
Q

Where do you place SF 700s

A

combination change envelope (SF 700) shall be used and placed in the custody of the CO or an officer designated in writing by the CO

124
Q

When do you change safe combinations

A

immediately upon turnover, suspicion of compromise, and periodically every six months

125
Q

can IDCs prescribe controlled substances in port

A

NO

126
Q

ONLY the controlled substances on the AMAL specific to their platform. Except?

A

granted in writing by the applicable TYCOM Force Surgeon

127
Q

What is the only form and method authorized to prescribe and dispense outpatient medications

A

A DD Form 1289

  • prepared
  • dated
  • have the quantity strength
  • prescription number
  • signature of dispenser
128
Q

prescriptions will be signed by the SMDR and must be countersigned by

A

the CO or designated commissioned officer representative (usually the executive officer).

129
Q

The letter ā€œCā€ will be utilized as a prefix to all controlled substance prescriptions and must be filed sequentially. It is recommended to maintain an electronic log of Rx numbers to ensure prescription numbers are used in sequential order

A

true

130
Q

What is the CSIB comprised of

A

at least three members; two must be commissioned officers and the third may be enlisted E-7 or above

131
Q

Can CSIB members shall not be involved in the direct procurement of controlled substances

A

No

132
Q

All CSIB members must complete the required training in accordance with Controlled Substance Standard Operating Procedures and score ___ or above

A

90 %

133
Q

The board will perform inventories according to which schedule

A

i. (1) At least quarterly (every 90 days) if there have been no transactions.
ii. (2) Within one month (30 days) of any transaction (prescription, receipt, survey, etc.) involving controlled substances. The Working Stock Custodian must notify the Senior CSIB member of the transaction.
iii. (3) At the time of the relief of the CO, or MDR.
iv. (4) At the request of the CO.
v. (5) Upon direction from higher authority.

134
Q

NAVMED 6710/18
NAVMED 6710/22
NAVMED 6710/23

A

INTERNAL CONTROLS QUESTIONNARIE
COVER SHEET
CSIB AUDIT SHEET

135
Q
  1. DESCRIBE the procedures necessary for reporting lost, stolen, expired, or unaccounted controlled substances
A

Send one copy to the nearest DEA office, one copy to BUMED, and one copy to the nearest field representative of the NCIS. (you make a total of 4 copies-1 from you and three others)

136
Q

DD Form 200

A

Financial Liability of Property Loss

137
Q

How do we properly destroy controlled substances

A

i. (1) CO approval must be received prior to destruction of any controlled substances.
ii. (2) A minimum of three CSIB members, including the Senior CSIB Member, must be present to at time of destruction.
iii. (3) Each CSIB member must sign as witness to destruction on the DD Form 200.
iv. (4) Destruction shall be annotated on NAMVED 6710/5 with sequential transaction number (e.g., D-001).

138
Q

Thermogenics Highest risk is

A

dehydration

139
Q

Pre workout highest risk.

A

Dehydration and caffeine overdose