2. Psych [2] Flashcards

1
Q

Describe 4 clinical features that PTSD may present with.

A

Hyperarousal; hypervigilance, sleep problems, irritability, difficulty concentrating, exaggerated startle response

Avoidance, of people and place related to event

Re-experience e.g. flashbacks, nightmares, intrusive memories

Emotional numbing

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2
Q

Complex PTSD is defined as PTSD but has 3 additional groups of symptoms. What are these?

A

Negative / unstable sense of self / self concept

Dysregulation of affect

Disturbance in relationships

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3
Q

What are the options for treatment of PTSD?

A

In mild cases, watching and waiting can be useful, with advice about sleep hygiene etc, and regular follow ups.

CBT

EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing); patient is asked to think about the trauma whilst attending to other sensory stimulus e.g. flashing lights

SSRI or venlafaxine can also be used

Severe / refractory; may be able to add in antipsychotic e.g. risperidone if severe hyperarousal / psychotic features and no response to other treatments.

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4
Q

Risk factors for PTSD can be split into person-factors and event factors. Give some of each.

A

Person:
Hx of previous trauma
Hx of previous mental health diagnosis
Lower socioeconomic status
Female
Younger age
Certain professions
Multiple other major stressors at time of event
Low social support
Refugees and asylum seekers

Event:
Increased severity of event
Longer duration of event/s e.g. years of child abuse or torture
Intentional > accidental
Physical injury included in traumatic event

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5
Q

What is the prognosis of PTSD?

A

50% self resolve in 3 months.

1/3 have moderate / severe symptoms lasting for years.

Can present straight after the event, but 15% may present years later.

Patients with PTSD are more likely to have other medical problems e.g. drug and alcohol abuse, GI symptoms, cardiorespiratory symptoms etc.

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6
Q

ASD involves impaired social interaction, social communication and behaviours. Give some clinical examples of how each of these areas may present in an individual with ASD.

A

Communication:
Delay / regression in language development.
Repetitive use of words or phrases.
Lack of eye contact / non-verbal communication.
Difficulty with imaginative play etc.

Interaction:
Cannot understand non-verbal social cues.
Avoids physical contact.
Doesn’t make eye contact.
Difficulty making friendships.

Behaviours:
Interest in objects / patterns / numbers over people.
Rigid routine and repetitive behaviours and anxiety and distress when this is disrupted.
Stimming / self stimulating e.g. hand flapping, rocking
Deep, intense interests.
Restricted food habits.

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7
Q

ASD is a highly heritable condition, with a heritability of around 80%. Substantial proportion of this risk arises from sporadic mutations, and the same genetic variants can increase risk of neurodevelopmental disorders. What other conditions are linked to the genes that have been linked to ASD?

A

Intellectual disability
Epilepsy
ADHD
Schizophrenia

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8
Q

3 areas that ASD affects:

A

Social communication

Social interaction

Behaviour

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9
Q

Describe briefly the heritability and risk factors for ADHD.

A

Highest heritability of all psychiatric disorders, ~80%.

First degree relative of someone with ADHD has 20% chance of having it also.

Prenatal, perinatal and postnatal environmental factors also increase risk: maternal smoking, alcohol and heroin use during pregnancy, very low birth weight, fetal hypoxia, perinatal birth injury, prolonged emotional neglect during infancy.

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10
Q

ADHD symptoms can be split into 2 groups, and individuals may display mainly one or the other, or both. What are the two groups and give examples.

A

Hyperactivity / Impulsivity:
Can’t sit still, fidgets, restless.
Talks excessively.
Difficulty taking turns.
Poor risk perception, reckless.

Inattention:
Difficulty focusing on tasks especially those that are mundane, doesn’t finish tasks, careless mistakes etc.

Easily distracted, seems like isn’t listening, frequently ‘daydreaming’.

Difficulty with organisation, e.g. day to day tasks, forgetful.

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11
Q

Give some differentials for attention deficit in adults.

A

ADHD
Secondary to substance use
Intellectual disability
Secondary to other psychiatric disorder e.g. schizophrenia, depression
Brain injury
Neurodegeneration e.g. depression

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12
Q

First line management of ADHD is always environmental modification and parenting skill support. Give some examples of these.

A

School age: seating plan arrangements, support of a teaching assistant.

Use of headphones to reduce distractions.

Regular movement breaks during tasks.

Reinforcing verbal instructions in writing.

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13
Q

If despite optimal environmental modifications the child is still experiencing significant impairment, medication can be offered. Outline the medication options and the order of which they may be tried.

A

Methylphenidate; CNS stimulant. Comes in short acting form of Ritalin and other modified release forms e.g. Concerta XL, Xaggitin XL etc. FIRST LINE IN CHILDREN.

Lisdexamfetamine 2nd line if 6 week trial of methyphenidate at adequate dose not working / side effects.

Atomoxetine and Guanfacine = 3rd line.

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14
Q

Describe when a diagnosis of ADHD should be considered.

A

At least 6 (5 in adults) symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity or inattention symptoms are present.
Present for >6 months and interfering with educational or occupational performance.
Symptoms started before age 12.
Present in 2 settings or more.
Cannot be explained by another disorder.

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15
Q

Name 3 drugs used to treat ADHD.

A

Methylphenidate
Lisdexamfetamine
Atomoxetine
Guanfacine

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16
Q

Describe the mechanism of lisdexamfetamine and prescribing notes.

A

It’s a pro-drug that is metabolised to dexamfetamine by an enzyme in red blood cells. This limits the rate at which dexamfetamine is generated, limiting its potential for abuse.

However, some patients benefit from the faster on-off times that dexamfetamine straight provides. Can try this as a second option after trial of lisdexamfetamine.

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17
Q

What associations with methylphenidate might a parent come to you with concerns about, and how is this monitored?

A

Growth suppression with prolonged use.

Regular weight and height monitoring is always indicated, every 6 months, and drug holidays can be used to allow for catch-up growth.

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18
Q

What is the MOA of methylphenidate? And give some side effects.

A

CNS stimulant; primarily acts as a dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor.

Growth suppression, abdo pain, nausea, dyspepsia.

Stimulants are sympathomimetic, and can potentially suppress appetite.

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19
Q

What investigation must be done prior to starting ADHD medication and why?

A

Baseline ECG, as all of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic.

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20
Q

What is recommended as first line treatment for bulimia nervosa, and what does it involve?

A

BN-GSH; bulimia nervosa guided self help.
Helps to:
Understand their eating disorder
Develop coping strategies for binge-purge cycles
Develop healthier attitudes towards food and body image
Monitor their own symptoms

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21
Q

When should CBT be considered for bulimia nervosa?

A

If BN-GSH has been trialled for 4 weeks with no improvement.

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22
Q

Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by:

A

Binge eating episodes followed by purgative behaviours including intentional vomiting, use of laxative / diuretics and excessive exercise.

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23
Q

Describe the DSM-5’s diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa (6 bullet points).

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating.

Lack of control during episodes.

Recurrent inappropriate compensatory mechanisms to prevent weight gain.

Episodes occur at least once a week for 3 months.

Self evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape.

Does not occur exclusively during periods of anorexia nervosa.

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24
Q

Give some complications of anorexia nervosa.

A

Cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalance, hypotension, bradycardia.

Osteoporosis due to chronic malnutrition, amenorrhoea.

Gastroparesis and constipation.

Anaemia and leukopenia.

Lanugo hair growth and xerosis (dry skin).

Death due to multiorgan failure.

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25
Q

Give 3 points described in the DSM-5 for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa (3).

A
  1. Restriction of eating leading to significantly low body weight in context of age, sex, developmental stage etc.
  2. Intense fear of gaining weight.
  3. Disturbance in body perception, unaware of own body weight or shape, undue weight on body image when considering sense of self.
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26
Q

What management options are recommended by NICE for a) adults b) children and teenagers?

A

Adults:
Eating disorder focused CBT
MANTRA; Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults
SSCM; supportive specialist clinical management
These are all long term, 20-40 sessions, focusing on regaining weight, involving carers, helping to found healthy eating behaviours,

Children: anorexia based family therapy

AN is the most common cause for admission to psychiatric wards in child and adolescent services. Up to 10% of patients will die because of the disorder.

Medical risk / psychiatric risk e.g. suicide may require admission to medical unit or psychiatric unit respectively.

27
Q

Outline the ‘cycle’ observed in obsessive compulsive disorder.

A
  1. Obsession
  2. Anxiety
  3. Compulsion
  4. Temporary relief
28
Q

Some milder OCD cases can be managed with education and self help resources. What options are available for more severe cases?

A

CBT and ERP (exposure and response prevention)

SSRI

Clomipramine (TCA)

29
Q

What does a Section 2 order of the Mental Health Act involve?

A

Compulsory admission for assessment, following a MHA assessment.

Lasts up to 28 days.

Cannot be renewed, can only end in discharge or by putting a Section 3 order in place.

30
Q

What does a Section 3 order of the Mental Health Act involve?

A

Compulsory admission for treatment.
Lasts up to 6 months, but the responsible clinician can arrange to extend if required.
Detention under Section 3 requires a MHA assessment, can be from a Section 2 admission to a Section 3, or can be admitted from the community if the patient is well known to mental health services.

31
Q

What does a Section 4 order of the Mental Health Act involve?

A

Detention for 72 hours when necessary / urgent scenario and where other processes do not have time to be put in place.

It requires a AMHP and only one doctor. It is followed by a MHA assessment.

Often changed to a Section 2 on arrival to hospital.

32
Q

What does Section 136 of the Mental Health Act involve?

A

Used by the police to remove a person that appears to have a mental
health disorder from a public space to a place of safety to allow a MHA assessment to be carried out.
Lasts up to 24 hours.

33
Q

What do Section 5(2) and 5(4) orders of the MHA refer to respectively?

A

5(2); patient already in hospital voluntarily, used in an emergency to detain patients. Requires only 1 doctor, lasts 72 hours.

5(4); patient already in hospital voluntarily, used in an emergency to detain patients. Requires only 1 nurse to hold the patient for up to 6 hours.

Both are followed by a MHA assessment.

34
Q

What does Section 135 of the Mental Health Act involve?

A

Allows the police to break into a home to remove the person at risk to a place of safety for assessment.

35
Q

What does Section 17a of the Mental Health Act refer to?

A

Also known as CTO / Supervised Community Treatment.
Allows recall of the patient from the community to the hospital for treatment if not complying with the conditions of the order within the community e.g. taking medication.

36
Q

How should an SSRI be stopped?

A

Gradually reduced over a 4 week period (not necessary with fluoxetine)

37
Q

SSRIs in pregnancy:

A

Weight up benefit and risk

First trimester small increased risk of congenital heart defects

Third trimester can result in PPHN

Paroxetine has increased risk of congenital malformations esp in first trimester

38
Q

Which two types of drugs if coprescribed with SSRIs can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

Triptans

MAOIs

39
Q

Describe the review method of a patient who has just been started on SSRIs.

A

Reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks.
If <25 or high risk of suicide then 1 week.

Continue on treatment 6 months after secession of symptoms as this reduces risk of relapse.

40
Q

How do MAOIs work and give 2 examples that are used in Parkinson’s.

A

Block action of monoamine oxidase-B enzymes, helping to increase levels of circulating dopamine (the B enzymes are more specific to dopamine, other monoamine oxidases breakdown serotonin and adrenaline as well).

Selegiline and Rasagiline

41
Q

Give 5 indications for MAOI use.

A

Atypical depression (hypersomnia, overeating and anxiety)

Anxiety disorders

Parkinson’s disaese
Migraine prophylaxis
Tuberculosis

42
Q

The combination of MAOIs and ?-rich foods can precipitate ?

A

Tyramine rich foods can precipitate a hypertensive crisis in combination with MAOIs.
E.g. mature cheese, yeast extract, broad beans, soya beans, pickled / smoked fish

Throbbing headache is an early warning sign of a hypertensive crisis; check BP of anyone on an MAOI who feels unwell.

43
Q

Give some examples of drugs that may precipitate a hypertensive crisis if taken alongside MAOIs.

A

Adrenaline / noradrenaline
Amphetamines
Cocaine
l-DOPA , dopamine
Ephedrine (decongestant)
Local anaesthetic with adrenaline

44
Q

Give 3 contraindications to a MAOI.

A

Mania
Phaeochromocytoma
Cerebrovascular disease

45
Q

As well as a hypertensive crisis, what other 2 side effects are important to be aware of in patients taking an MAOI?

A

Anticholinergic side effects

Postural hypotension

46
Q

Order the following drugs in terms of duration of action (short, medium, long): chlordiazepoxide, midazolam, nitrazepam, diazepam, lorazepam.

A

SHORT
Midazolam
Lorazepam

MEDIUM
Nitrazepam

LONG
Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam

47
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A

Potentiates GABA receptors, which is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter, increases frequency of chloride channels.

Allows more chloride ions into the cell which hyperpolarises the postsynaptic membrane and reduces neuronal excitability.

48
Q

Discuss some indications for benzodiazepines (5 minimum).

A

Insomnia (short acting, short term only)

Anxiety (short term only)

Alcohol withdrawal (chlordiazepoxide)

Akathisia

Acute psychosis / mania (for sedation)

+ epilepsy prophylaxis, seizures, muscle spasm and anaesthetic premedication

49
Q

Discuss important side effects of benzodiazepines and when to be cautious in prescribing.

A

Dependence risk is high (especially in prolonged use and shorter acting drugs)

Drowsiness, ataxia and reduced motor coordination (warn about driving / operating heavy machinery)

Caution in older adults; drowsiness / confusion can precipitate falls or delirium

Chronic respiratory disease caution; may precipitate respiratory depression

50
Q

Benzodiazepines can be fatal in overdose but only usually when taken in combination with other sedatives. What drug is available to reverse the effect of benzodiazepines and what should you be cautious of?

A

Flumazenil

Can lower seizure threshold and cause acute benzodiazepine withdrawal.

Should only be done in hospital settings.

51
Q

Discuss the differences in pharmacodynamics between chlordiazepoxide and diazepam.

A

Both are long acting benzos.

Time to peak effect is significantly shorter for chlordiazepoxide, so it acts faster.

Both half lives are 100h.

Both can be taken orally, but only diazepam can be PR, IV, (IM last line).

52
Q

Compare 2 short-acting benzodiazpines.

A

Midazolam and Lorazepam.

Mid has onset of 5-10 mins whilst lorazepam takes 1-4 hours.

Half lives are 2 and 15 hours respectively.

53
Q

If patients withdraw too quickly from benzos they may experience benzo withdrawal symptoms, which may occur up to 3 weeks after stopping a long acting drug. Give some features.

A

Insomnia
Irritability
Anxiety
Tremor
Loss of appetite
Tinnitus
Perspiration
Perceptual disturbances
Seizures

54
Q

Barbiturates also act on the GABA neurotransmitter; what are their MOA?

A

Barbiturates increase the duration of chloride channel opening.

Compared to benzos, where the frequency of chloride channels is increased.

55
Q

It’s important to look for a potential physical cause when considering a psychiatric anxiety diagnosis. Give some conditions and medications that may trigger a secondary anxiety.

A

Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac disease
Phaeochromocytoma
Cushing’s

Salbutamol
Theophylline
Caffeine
Steroids
Antidepressants
Alcohol

56
Q

Physical symptoms of anxiety are caused by overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system. Give 6 physical symptoms of anxiety, and a medication that is often used to try and combat these.

A
57
Q

Describe some emotional / cognitive symptoms of GAD.

A

Excessive worrying and being unable to control the worrying.

Restlessness and difficulty relaxing.

Easily tired.

Difficulty concentratin.

58
Q

What tool can be used to assess severity of GAD, and what do the scores indicate?

A

GAD-7 (GAD Questionnaire)

5-9 = mild anxiety
10-14 = moderate anxiety
15-21 = severe anxiety

Mild can be managed with active monitoring, self help strategies, sleep, diet, exercise and alcohol / caffeine / drug abstinence.

Mod-severe requires CBT and or medication.

59
Q

What is first line for GAD that requires drug treatment?

A

SSRI

If unsuccessful, try a different SSRI or SNRI.

3rd line may be pregabalin.

Warn of risk of suicidal thoughts and self harm. Weekly follow up required.

60
Q

Give the definition of a phobia.

A

Extreme fear of certain situations or things, causing symptoms of anxiety or panic. .

Acrophobia = fear of heights
Glossophobia = fear of public speaking
Trypanophobia = fear of needles

Graded exposure therapy can be effective.

61
Q

Give 3 features of CBT.

A

Time limited 12-24 sessions.

Goal orientated, focuses on present problems and not how they developed or unconscious factors.

Collaborate therapeutic relationship.

62
Q

Discuss general differences between counselling, psychodynamic psychotherapy and CBT.

A

Counselling = unstructured, allowing patients to generate own solutions to problems.

Psychodynamic psychotherapy = aims to allow patient to recognise unconscious processes in themselves that are causing problematic symptoms.

CBT = aims to help patient to identify and change the links between how they think, feel, sense and behave. Often tackles cognitive distortions.

SEE NOTION TABLE FOR DIFFERENT TYPES OF THERAPY AND THEIR INDICATIONS.

63
Q

Discuss epidemiological differences between EUPD and APD.

A

EUPD
Younger age and females
Link to childhood sexual abuse
40x increase in suicide rate
Comorbid = depression, substance abuse, bulimia and anxiety

APD
25-44 year old MEN
School dropout, conduct disorders
Very high prevalence in prisons
Comorbidity = SUBSTANCE ABUSE

64
Q
A