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Network + > 2 Network + Final Study Guide (Multiple Choice) > Flashcards

2 Network + Final Study Guide (Multiple Choice) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ultimate goal of network security is to protect which of the following?

a. the customers who use the system
b. the organization and its employees
c. business partners who access the network
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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2
Q
  1. What is a policy that defines the methods involved when a user logs on to the network called?

a. audit
b. security
c. authentication
d. acceptable use

A

c. authentication

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following should not be a concern when discerning the level of security that is required in a network?

a. how difficult it would be to enforce a password policy
b. the costs to implement a security system
c. whether the data is important enough to safeguard
d. from whom the data needs to be protected

A

a. how difficult it would be to enforce a password policy

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4
Q
  1. In Windows 7, what is the maximum length that a password can be?

a. 8
b. 16
c. 64
d. 128

A

d. 128

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5
Q
  1. Which one of the following passwords meets Windows password complexity requirement?

a. NetWoRKing
b. NetworkingIsFun
c. N3tworking1O1
d. netw@rk!ngb@s!cs

A

c. N3tworking1O1

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6
Q
  1. Which form of authentication involves the exchange of a password-like key that must be entered on both devices?

a. Kerberos authentication
b. digital certificate
c. GNC privacy guard
d. preshared key

A

d. preshared key

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7
Q
  1. When using BitLocker to encrypt your entire disk which mode must you use if your system is not configured for TPM support?

a. transport mode
b. USB key mode
c. user authentication mode
d. encryption mode

A

b. USB key mode

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8
Q
  1. If you need to implement a VPN on a Windows Server 2008 system, what server role must be installed to access routing and remote access services?

a. network policy and access services
b. Active Directory services
c. domain name services
d. remote network services

A

a. network policy and access services

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9
Q
  1. Which VPN implementation needs no additional configuration to be allowed access through a firewall?

a. SSTP
b. IPSec
c. PPTP
d. L2TP

A

a. SSTP

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10
Q
  1. What process, available on most routers, will help improve security by masking the internal IP address of the transmitting device?

a. IPSec
b. NAT
c. EFS
d. VPN

A

b. NAT

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11
Q
  1. What is the generic term used to describe programs that are designed to cause harm or disruption to a computer system?

a. spyware
b. malware
c. virus
d. Trojan

A

b. malware

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12
Q
  1. What is a type of malware that is so difficult to detect and remove that most experts agree that it is better to backup your critical data and reinstall the OS?

a. rootkit
b. Trojan
c. hoax virus
d. spyware

A

a. rootkit

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of malware that isn’t self-replicating and is usually installed by the user without his knowledge? Its primary goal is to invade your privacy by monitoring your system and reporting your activities to advertisers and spammers.

a. rootkit
b. Trojan
c. hoax virus
d. spyware

A

d. spyware

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14
Q
  1. The 802.11i standard is the newest version of wireless security that uses more advanced encryption methods than the previous versions. What is it more commonly referred to as?

a. WEP
b. WAP
c. WPA
d. WPA2

A

d. WPA2

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a scanner used as a tool to determine what possible points of entry exist that are open and vulnerable on your system?

a. Port
b. Protocol
c. Ping
d. Finger

A

a. Port

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves flooding the network with broadcast messages that contain a spoofed source address of an intended victim?

a. packet storm
b. broadcast flood
c. smurf attack
d. half-open SYN attack

A

c. smurf attack

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the function of a switch?

a. It determines the path used based on the destination IP address
b. It sends broadcast frames out all connected ports
c. Each port on a switch represents a separate collision domain
d. Switches have the ability to operate in full-duplex mode

A

a. It determines the path used based on the destination IP address

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following combinations will you find in a switching table?

a. application/destination port number
b. IP address/exit interface
c. destination network/next Hop
d. MAC address/switch port number

A

d. MAC address/switch port number

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19
Q
  1. Besides a managed switch what is a high-end switch that offers features such as multicast processing and port security called?

a. intuitive
b. executive
c. smart
d. enterprise

A

c. smart

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function that would be found in a managed switch?

a. the ability to stop switching loops using STP
b. the ability to transfer it’s switching table with neighboring switches
c. the creation of VLANS to logically separate resources
d. to limit access to the network by enabling security on individual ports

A

b. the ability to transfer it’s switching table with neighboring switches

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21
Q
  1. Each interface on a router must have an IP address and what else to be able to communicate on the network?

a. network ID
b. default gateway
c. MAC address
d. serial number

A

c. MAC address

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22
Q
  1. When a router’s interface is configured with multiple IP addresses with each address belonging to different networks, what is it called?

a. multi-homed router
b. dynamic router
c. link-state router
d. router on a stick

A

d. router on a stick

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23
Q
  1. What type of routing protocol are RIP and RIPv2?

a. distance-state protocol
b. link-state protocol
c. hybrid protocol
d. distance-vector protocol

A

d. distance-vector protocol

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24
Q
  1. The time it takes for all the routing tables on every router in a network to be fully updated, either when a change occurs or according to a schedule, is called the speed of what?

a. delivery
b. convergence
c. congestion
d. concurrence

A

b. convergence

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25
Q
  1. When an access control list is applied on a router’s interface, that interface is performing a specific function on the packets that it receives. What is that function called?

a. packet filtering
b. packet forwarding
c. packet manipulating
d. packet dispatching

A

a. packet filtering

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26
Q
  1. What command issued from a command prompt will display the routing table in Windows?

a. route table
b. route print
c. route delete
d. route config

A

b. route print

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27
Q
  1. A wireless router is actually composed of three devices, a wireless access point and which two other devices?

a. a router and a hub
b. a switch and abridge
c. a router and a switch
d. a router and a bridge

A

c. a router and a switch

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28
Q
  1. What type of hacker uses a scanning device to find unsecured wireless networks and break into those networks?

a. white hat
b. wardriver
c. script kiddy
d. phisher

A

b. wardriver

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29
Q
  1. Which is the PCI bus type that has the highest possible transfer rate?

a. PCI
b. PCIe
c. PCI-X
d. PCMCIA

A

b. PCIe

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30
Q
  1. Which advanced feature of a NIC allows a computer to download an OS from the network instead of from a local drive?

a. onboard coprocessor
b. advanced configuration power management interface
c. shared system memory
d. preboot execution environment

A

d. preboot execution environment

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31
Q
  1. Which part of the OS provides users and applications with an interface to manipulate files?

a. kernel
b. services
c. processes
d. file system

A

d. file system

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32
Q
  1. Older OSs first used what type of multitasking, which allowed a process to monopolize the CPU`s time until the process had completed its own task?

a. contextual
b. cooperative
c. preemptive
d. precocious

A

b. cooperative

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33
Q
  1. What method does the CPU use to divide its computing cycles between more than one process?

a. context switching
b. process switching
c. time slicing
d. thread slicing

A

c. time slicing

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34
Q
  1. In Windows, you use Task Manager to view the processes running on your computer. What do you use to view the running processes on some Linux systems?

a. resource monitor
b. terminal manager
c. performance manager
d. system monitor

A

d. system monitor

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35
Q
  1. What is the native file-sharing protocol in Linux?

a. SMB
b. NFS
c. NSF
d. SMP

A

b. NFS

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36
Q
  1. Which common email protocol allows the user to access messages, yet still have them stored on the server?

a. SMTP
b. IMAP
c. POP3
d. SNMP

A

b. IMAP

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37
Q
  1. What is the process called that grants or denies a user’s access to network resources?

a. authentication
b. acceptance
c. authorization
d. admission

A

c. authorization

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38
Q
  1. What directory service protocol used in Linux systems is also supported by Windows?

a. NFS
b. NIS
c. LDAP
d. LEAP

A

c. LDAP

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39
Q
  1. What storage solution involves a third-party company that provides off-site hosting of data?

a. network-attached storage
b. cloud-based storage
c. network accessed appliance
d. storage area network

A

b. cloud-based storag

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40
Q
  1. What is a partial copy of a VM that is used to restore it to a previous state?

a. snapshot
b. clone
c. hypervisor
d. host computer

A

a. snapshot

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following virtualization products provides hosted virtualization?

a. Citrix XenServer
b. VMware vSphere
c. Microsoft Hyper-V
d. VMware Workstation

A

d. VMware Workstation

42
Q
  1. Which edition of Windows Server 2008 includes support for up to 64 processors and provides unlimited virtual instances?

a. Web Server 2008
b. Standard Edition
c. Enterprise Edition
d. Datacenter Edition

A

d. Datacenter Edition

43
Q
  1. You are the network administrator for a company. The company’s policy is that the users are allowed to set their own passwords but that they must change their password every 30 days. You have just received a call from a user who can’t log on because she forgot her password. After you change her password, which of the password options listed would you set in the user’s account so that she will have to change the password when she logs on using the password you assigned?

a. User must change password at next logon.
b. User cannot change password.
c. Password never expires.
d. Account is disabled.

A

a. User must change password at next logon.

44
Q
  1. In regards to a user account, what does a white circle with a black arrow indicate?

a. The account is locked.
b. The account is disabled.
c. It is a guest account.
d. It is corrupted and needs attention.

A

b. The account is disabled.

45
Q
  1. You are creating a new group for the Sales department. All of the users that will be in this group will need to have access to the same resources. What scope would you use for this group?

a. domain local
b. universal
c. global
d. local

A

c. global

46
Q
  1. A user logs on to her account and is able to makes changes to her desktop, like adding a background and screen saver. However, when she logs off and logs back on, the desktop reverts to its original configuration. What type of user profile does this user have?

a. roaming
b. local
c. default
d. mandatory

A

d. mandatory

47
Q
  1. The partition that contains the Windows OS files is known as the what type of partition?

a. extended
b. dynamic
c. boot
d. primary

A

c. boot

48
Q
  1. A disk must be formatted as what type of disk if you want to access additional features such as disk spanning?

a. system
b. active
c. basic
d. dynamic

A

d. dynamic

49
Q
  1. If you need to limit the amount of data users can store on a volume, you would implement which of the following?

a. shadow copies
b. disk quotas
c. file compression
d. volume mount points

A

b. disk quotas

50
Q
  1. When a file is encrypted, what color does the file name appear in Windows Explorer?

a. green
b. purple
c. red
d. blue

A

a. green

51
Q
  1. What tool would you use to view error messages that are generated by system services or application?

a. Resource Manager
b. Event Viewer
c. Task Manager
d. Performance Monitor

A

b. Event Viewer

52
Q
  1. What is RAlD level l also called?

a. disk striping
b. disk mirroring
c. disk striping with parity
d. disk parity

A

b. disk mirroring

53
Q
  1. How many disks are needed to implement a RAID 1 + 0?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

c. 4

54
Q
  1. Employees in the Sales department need to be able to access the sales share on the file server. They will need to have the ability to create files, read them, and make corrections or additions. Which of the following share permissions should the group be given?

a. change
b. read
c. modify
d. full control

A

a. change

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a requirement for most small business networks?

a. Internet access for all users
b. file and printer sharing
c. complex WAN environment
d. accessibility to specialized business applications

A

c. complex WAN environment

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a new file-sharing option that can be used on the network if all the computers have Windows 7 installed?

a. home network
b. HomeGroup
c. peer-to-peer network
d. work network

A

b. HomeGroup

57
Q
  1. Which of the following installations of Windows can be used to create a HomeGroup?

a. Windows 7 Home Premium
b. Windows 7 Starter
c. Windows 7 Home Basic
d. Windows Vista

A

a. Windows 7 Home Premium

58
Q
  1. For a computer to connect to a HomeGroup, it must have certain features enabled or configured correctly. Which of the following is not necessary to join a HomeGroup?

a. IPv6 Protocol
b. Network Discovery
c. Network Configuration
d. DHCP

A

d. DHCP

59
Q
  1. If you want to implement fault-tolerance on your network, what type of RAlD would you use on the drives that contain data?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5

A

d. 5

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a feature that you should consider when choosing a new switch for a small business?

a. the speed of the switch
b. VPN support
c. support for different types of media
d. managed or unmanaged

A

b. VPN support

61
Q
  1. If your company has a web site that customers need to access, you will need to allow unsolicited communications from outside the network. In this situation, you need to install a router that supports what type of forwarding?

a. call
b. packet
c. Port
d. fast

A

c. Port

62
Q
  1. Which of the following should you consider when choosing a wireless network instead of a wired network?

a. the ability of unauthorized users to receive a signal
b. the cable grade you should use
c. suitable environment to run cabling
d. which 802.3 standard to choose

A

a. the ability of unauthorized users to receive a signal

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is a VPN mode that is usually implemented to give mobile users access to the network?

a. client-to-gateway
b. endpoint-to-client
c. gateway-to-client
d. gateway-to-gateway

A

a. client-to-gateway

64
Q
  1. Before you purchase any software for a small business, especially the OS, you should be aware of the number of users that are allowed to access the software What document will give you that information?

a. ACL
b. TCO
c. CRM
d. EULA

A

d. EULA

65
Q
  1. What is CRM software?

a. software that maintains accounting records for a small business
b. software that maintains a database of employee records including payroll and taxes
c. software that is used to keep track of customer information including contact information and appointments
d. software that is used to allow a number of employees to contribute and share data easily in a small network

A

c. software that is used to keep track of customer information including contact information and appointments

66
Q
  1. You have been contracted to set up a network for a small business. The company currently has 100 users, and they are looking to expand. They want to use Microsoft Exchange Server for their email and shared calendar feature. What version of Windows Server would you suggest that they purchase?

a. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition
b. Windows Essential Business Server
c. Windows Small Business Sewer
d. Windows Server 2008 Data center Edition

A

b. Windows Essential Business Server

67
Q
  1. After you have set up a network for a small business, you may need to access the network remotely to provide support for the users. Which remote access option should not be used unless a secure connection can be established first?

a. dialup
b. Telnet
c. SSH
d. Windows Remote Assistance

A

b. Telnet

68
Q
  1. You are currently troubleshooting a network issue with your ISP’s customer support agent. The agent requests that you open up command prompt and type “ping 127.0.0.1”. What does this accomplish?

a. tests the default gateway
b. tests a well-known public IP address
c. tests that the local IP stack is functioning
d. tests TCP/IP configuration settings

A

c. tests that the local IP stack is functioning

69
Q
  1. Which command will display the configured IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers for a Windows workstation?

a. ipconfig
b. ipconfig /all
c. ipconfig /conf
d. ipconfig /show

A

b. ipconfig /all

70
Q
  1. Your current backup schedule involves incremental backups of all data Monday through Saturday, with a full backup on Sunday. Last Saturday, one of your storage drives failed prior to running the daily backup. What must be done to recover the data on the failed drive?

a. The last full backup must be restored first, followed by the last incremental backup prior to the drive failure
b. Only the last incremental backup needs to be restored
c. The incremental backups must be restored in sequential order, but the full backup is not necessary
d. The full backup must be restored first, followed by all incremental backups in sequential order leading up to the day of failure

A

d. The full backup must be restored first, followed by all incremental backups in sequential order leading up to the day of failure

71
Q
  1. Following a massive infection of your network by a virus, you have been tasked with developing preventive measures for keeping the network infection free. What would be an effective preventive measure?

a. Install an enterprise-based anti-virus solution.
b. Send a sternly worded email detailing the company’s strict “no-virus” policy.
c. Decrease the amount of time before a use must change their password
d. Modify your disaster recovery plan to include forensic analysis of any potential viruses to determine their source.

A

a. Install an enterprise-based anti-virus solution.

72
Q
  1. Which of the following statistics should a network baseline report include?

a. how many text files are in use
b. hard drive utilization
c. number of idle uses on server
d. average RPM of system fans

A

b. hard drive utilization

73
Q
  1. You receive a phone call from a co-worker telling you that “the network is down.” Just as you are about to look into the issue, you receive several more phone calls from other co-workers. Using the problem-solving process, what must be done first to effectively troubleshoot the issue?

a. Determine what the problem is, and then figure out who has been affected on your network
b. Check documentation for a possible cause of network outages
c. Consider what could have caused the network outage
d. Apply a solution

A

a. Determine what the problem is, and then figure out who has been affected on your network

74
Q
  1. You recently completed a network overhaul over the weekend. Everything seems to be functioning properly until you receive a swarm of help desk support requests, all originating from one specific floor in your building. After a few minutes on the phone with those affected, you determine that no one has indicator lights active on their NICs. What is most likely the problem?

a. The DHCP sever has failed
b. A gateway is incorrectly configured
c. Static IP address settings have prevented the NIC from entering a usable state
d. A network switch has not been powered

A

d. A network switch has not been powered

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a good practice for performing upgrades?

a. ignoring update to new release
b. test upgrade on an isolated network
c. upgrade notification reminders for uses
d. research on potential upgrading issues

A

a. ignoring update to new release

76
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding differential /incremental backups?

a. A differential backup copies all files changed since the last full or differential /incremental backup.
b. An incremental backup copies all files changed since the last full backup doesn’t mark files as backed up.
c. Differential backups copy all files to the selected media and marks files as backed up.
d. incremental backups copy all files changed since the last full or incremental backup and marks files as backed up.

A

d. incremental backups copy all files changed since the last full or incremental backup and marks files as backed up.

77
Q
  1. Select the utility inside of Windows that allows the user to recover a previous system state. This utility monitors drives and partitions, as well as registry settings and system files.

a. System Recovery Agent
b. Automated System State Recovery Agent
c. System Restore
d. Windows Data Recovery

A

c. System Restore

78
Q
  1. When using tape backup, what should be done to ensure that the backups are viable?

a. Use only one tape per day
b. Use tapes with the largest amount of storage
c. Verify data can be restored
d. Purchase high quality tapes

A

c. Verify data can be restored

79
Q
  1. Traceroute would be best suited for which of the following tasks?

a. testing layer 3 connectivity with a locally connected host
b. testing DNS settings
c. locating bottlenecks in a network
d. determining network bandwidth

A

c. locating bottlenecks in a network

80
Q
  1. What does the ping message “Destination host unreachable” message mean?

a. The pinged host is on another network.
b. The pinged host responded, but has an incorrect gateway configured.
c. The host’s network is down
d. The pinged IP address is on the same network, but an ARP reply was not received.

A

d. The pinged IP address is on the same network, but an ARP reply was not received.

81
Q
  1. What does the ping message “Destination net unreachable” mean?

a. The pinged host has a firewall.
b. A router in the path from the source to the destination determined that the destination network does not exist.
c. The pinged IP address is on the same network, but an ARP reply was not received.
d. IPv6 is installed on the local machine.

A

b. A router in the path from the source to the destination determined that the destination network does not exist.

82
Q
  1. A junior network administrator tells you that he can ping a DNS server successfully, but he has not tested domain name lookups. What utility on the command line would you suggest your colleague use next?

a. ipconfig
b. nbtstat
c. traceroute
d. nslookup

A

d. nslookup

83
Q
  1. Select the true statement regarding analog and digital signals.

a. Analog signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while digital signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.
b. Digital signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while analog signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.
c. A modem is not required to use a line that uses analog signals.
d. 0n fiber-optic media, a 1 bit can be represented as a pulsing analog signal.

A

a. Analog signals vary over time continually and can be represented by a sine wave, while digital signals are binary 1s and 0s using voltage levels.

84
Q
  1. When would you most likely NOT choose to use a leased line connection?

a. when high-quality, 24/7 access is needed
b. for mission critical applications
c. when fast upstream as well as downstream communications is required
d. when a nondedicated link is needed for backups

A

d. when a nondedicated link is needed for backups

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is something X.25 does NOT offer?

a. SVCs
b. PVCs
c. error-free communication
d. 144 Mbps maximum throughput

A

d. 144 Mbps maximum throughput

86
Q
  1. What is the local loop, or last mile?

a. the connection used between central offices
b. cable between the customer premise equipment and a PC
c. a line used by ISPs for testing T-Carrier signals
d. the connection between the demarcation point and the CO

A

d. the connection between the demarcation point and the CO

87
Q
  1. You’re the network administrator for a large bean-bag chair company. You are presenting to your supervisor several reasons to make use of cloud computing for handling data processing. Which answer would be a valid benefit of using cloud computing?

a. always on, always available access independent of network status
b. reduced physical plant costs
c. increased use of localized resources
d. decrease in user application training time

A

b. reduced physical plant costs

88
Q
  1. Which of the following rants describes the category of cloud computing in which a customer develops applications using development tools and infrastructure provided by the service provider?

a. hosted development
b. hosted applications
c. hosted platforms
d. hosted infrastructure

A

c. hosted platforms

89
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols is NOT used for Windows 7 VPN connections?

a. SMTP
b PPTP
c. L2TP
d. SSTP

A

a. SMTP

90
Q
  1. You area network architect for an IT consulting company. One of your clients needs a WAN connection and has asked you about the disadvantage of a packet-switched WAN method. Which of the following is a disadvantage that applies?

a. low bandwidth
b. expensive compared to leased lines
c. suspect reliability
d. shared bandwidth

A

d. shared bandwidth

91
Q
  1. You have been asked to install a VPN remote access solution using Windows Server. What do you need to install?

a. Microsoft Mobile User Service (MMUS)
b. Windows Saver Remote Access (WSRA)
c. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
d. Dialup and Remote Access Services (DRM)

A

c. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)

92
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a typical SONET data rate?

a. OC-3
b. OC-48
c. OC-768
d. OC-9001

A

d. OC-9001

93
Q
  1. What would an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network be best suited for?

a. sending email
b. downloading an RFC text file from the IETF web page
c. text messaging
d. carrying voice data and time sensitive information

A

d. carrying voice data and time sensitive information

94
Q
  1. Which cloud computing category refers to the use of software hosted on a service provider’s network and is usually subscription based?

a. hosted applications
b. hosted development
c. hosted platforms
d. hosted infrastructure

A

a. hosted applications

95
Q
  1. Which statement about Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is true?

a. MPLS is popular because of its ease of use and inexpensive cost
b. MPLS works with any network layer protocol
c. MPLS is dependent on Data Link layer technology
d. MPLS will run over ATM, frame relay, SONET, but not Ethernet

A

b. MPLS works with any network layer protocol

96
Q
  1. What is the signaling method used to allocate time slots for each channel in a T-Carrier line called?

a. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
b. Time Divided Multimixing (TDM)
c. Time Slotted Modulation (TSM)
d. Time Fractionalized Division (TFD)

A

a. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

97
Q
  1. The company you work for currently has ISDN service in place. Your supervisor wishes to know what sort of ISDN service is being used so that better alternatives can be considered. He tells you that the service has two B-channels and a D-Channel. What ISDN format do you have?

a. Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
c. Basic Rate Extended (BRE)
d. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

A

b. Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

98
Q
  1. The plain old telephone service is a good example of what kind of WAN technology?

a. packet switched
b. leased line
c. VPN over internet
d. circuit switched

A

d. circuit switched

99
Q
  1. Although a frame relay connection is established in much the same way that a T1 connection is, which of the following is an important distinction between the two technologies?

a. Frame relay is point to point, whereas T1 uses virtual circuits.
b. T1 uses point to point, while frame relay makes use of virtual circuits.
c. T1 connections are established using CSU/DSUs. Frame relay connections require a VPN service on the remote node.
d. T1 data traffic must all be transmitted in clear text, while frame relay encrypts data automatically and is more secure.

A

b. T1 uses point to point, while frame relay makes use of virtual circuits.

100
Q
  1. Part of SONET’s flexibility comes from its ability to be arranged in several different physical topologies. Which of the following is NOT a possible SONET topology?

a. point to point
b. point to multipoint
c. fault tolerant bus
d. fault tolerant ring

A

c. fault tolerant bus

Network + (5 decks)

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