2. Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What is membrane potential?

A

Voltage difference across cell membrane

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2
Q

Is resting membrane potential positive or negative and why?

A

resting membrane potential (MP) is negative (-ve), with intracellular fluid (ICF) more negative than extracellular fluid (ECF).

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3
Q

What is an action potential?

A

Rapid, changing electrochemical impulses in excitable cells (e.g., nerve, muscle) used to transmit messages.

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4
Q

Which other cells use action potentials besides nerves and muscles?

A

Fertilized egg cells and hormone-secreting cells.

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5
Q

What two conditions are required to establish a potential difference across a membrane?

A
  1. A concentration gradient for an ion
  2. A membrane permeable to that ion.
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6
Q

What is the relationship between concentration and electrical gradients in membrane potentials?

A

Ions move down their concentration gradient, creating an electrical gradient. The electrical force eventually balances the concentration gradient, so ion movement in equals ion movement out.

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7
Q

How does K+ contribute to membrane potential?

A

K+ moves out of the cell due to its concentration gradient, creating a negative charge inside the membrane, which then attracts K+ back into the cell due to the electrical gradient.

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8
Q

What is equilibrium potential (E of ion)?

A

The potential difference across a membrane at equilibrium for a specific ion, also called reversal potential.

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9
Q

What happens when the voltage difference exceeds the equilibrium potential?

A

The direction of ion movement changes.

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10
Q

What occurs if the membrane potential becomes more negative than -60 mV for K+?

A

More K+ would move from outside to inside the cell, against its concentration gradient

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11
Q

How do the ions affect the overall cell/cytoplasm

A

The number of ions moving is very small, and they stay close to the membrane, not affecting the overall cell/cytoplasm.

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12
Q

What is the Nernst potential (NP)?

A

The diffusion potential across a membrane that opposes the net diffusion of a specific ion, determined by the concentration ratio of the ion on either side of the membrane.

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13
Q

How does the concentration ratio affect the Nernst potential?

A

The greater the concentration ratio, the higher the Nernst potential required to stop net diffusion of the ion.

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14
Q

How does ion charge affect the sign of EMF?

A

EMF is positive if a negative ion diffuses from inside to outside, and negative if a positive ion diffuses from inside to outside.

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15
Q

What does the Goldman equation calculate?

A

The equilibrium potential for all relevant ions when the membrane is permeable to multiple ions.

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16
Q

What factors affect the Goldman equation?

A

Ion polarity, membrane permeability (P_ion), and ion concentrations inside (C_i) and outside (C_o) the cell.

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17
Q

What is the resting membrane potential for a nerve?

A

-90 mV.

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18
Q

How does the Na+/K+ pump contribute to the resting membrane potential?

A

It pumps 3 Na+ out for every 2 K+ in, creating a negative potential inside the cell and maintaining a large concentration gradient.

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19
Q

How does membrane permeability differ between K+ and Na+?

A

Leaky channels are 100 times more permeable to K+ than Na+.

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20
Q

SAVING FOR MEMBRANE POTENTIAL QUESTION

A

A. Only K+
* Nernst: + 61 X log (35) = -94 mV
B. add slight Na+ perm. through leaky
channels
* permeability of the membrane to
K is about 100 times that of Na
* Therefore, only reduced to -86 mV
C. Na+ - K+ pump
* adds - 4 mV
* Overall net membrane potential =
-90 mV

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21
Q

What are the stages of a nerve action potential?

A
  1. Resting
  2. depolarization
  3. repolarization.
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22
Q

What is the resting stage of a nerve action potential?

A

The membrane is polarized at -90 mV.

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23
Q

What happens during depolarization?

A

The membrane becomes very permeable to Na+, and Na+ diffuses into the axon.

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24
Q

What happens during repolarization?

A

Na+ channels close, K+ channels open, and K+ diffuses out, reestablishing polarization.

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25
Q

What are the two gates of a voltage-gated Na+ channel?

A

The activation gate (outside) and the inactivation gate (inside).

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26
Q

What is the state of Na+ channels at resting membrane potential (-90 mV)?

A

The activation gate is closed, preventing Na+ entry.

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27
Q

What happens to the Na+ channel as the membrane potential changes from -70 to -50 mV?

A

The activation gate opens, increasing Na+ permeability 500-5000 fold.

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28
Q

Why does Na+ stop entering the cell after depolarization?

A

The inactivation gate closes, though more slowly than the activation gate, allowing brief Na+ entry.

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29
Q

When can the inactivation gates of Na+ channels reopen?

A

They only reopen when the membrane potential returns to the original resting potential (-90 mV).

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30
Q

When do voltage-gated K+ channels open?

A

They open as the membrane potential moves toward zero, slightly delayed, coinciding with the closing of Na+ channels.

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31
Q

How do K+ channels contribute to repolarization?

A

Decreased Na+ entry and increased K+ exit speed up repolarization, restoring the negative membrane potential.

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32
Q

What triggers the initiation of an action potential?

A

Any factor causing sufficient Na+ to diffuse inward, starting the positive feedback cycle of Na+ channel opening.

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33
Q

What are the three types of stimuli that can initiate an action potential?

A
  1. Mechanical (e.g., sensory neurons in skin)
  2. chemical (e.g., neurotransmitters)
  3. electrical (e.g., heart and intestine cells).
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34
Q

What is the threshold for excitation?

A

Approximately -65 millivolts.

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35
Q

How does an action potential propagate along the membrane?

A

It spreads in all directions from the stimulus until the entire membrane is depolarized, known as the nerve impulse.

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36
Q

What is the “all-or-nothing” principle of action potential propagation?

A

Once initiated, the action potential propagates fully across the membrane, or not at all.

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37
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

A period during which a second action potential cannot be generated, even with a strong stimulus, because Na+ channels are inactivated.

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38
Q

How are sodium-potassium gradients re-established after an action potential?

A

The Na+/K+ pump uses ATP to restore ionic gradients, with pump activity increasing proportionally to the intracellular Na+ concentration.

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39
Q

What is saltatory conductance in myelinated nerve fibers?

A

It refers to the process where ions flow only through the nodes of Ranvier, increasing conduction velocity.

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40
Q

How much does saltatory conductance increase nerve impulse speed?

A

It increases velocity 5 to 50-fold.

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41
Q

How does saltatory conductance affect energy use?

A

It reduces the energy needed to re-establish Na+ and K+ concentrations and allows re-polarization with minimal ion transfer

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42
Q

Whats the speed of nerve impulses

A
  • Small unmyelinated fibers - slow
  • Very large myelinated fibers - fast
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43
Q
A
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44
Q

Channels vs Pump

A

C: diffusion
P: active transport

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45
Q

What does conductance measure in relation to ion movement?

A

Conductance measures the movement of charge across the membrane.

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46
Q

What does permeability indicate about ions and membranes?

A

Permeability measures the capability of ions to flow across the membrane, regardless of whether they are actually moving.

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47
Q

What comprises the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

A

The brain and spinal cord.

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48
Q

What does the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) include?

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves going to somatic structures, as well as the autonomic nervous system (ANS) that goes to visceral structures.

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49
Q

What is the function of sensory neurons (afferent neurons)?

A

They transmit sensory information from receptors throughout the body to the CNS.

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50
Q

What do motor neurons (efferent neurons) do?

A

They control various body functions.

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51
Q

What are association neurons (interneurons)?

A

Neurons that connect afferent and efferent neurons and comprise 90% of all neurons, performing integrative functions.

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52
Q

What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).

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53
Q

Where is the CNS located?

A

In the bony casing of the cranium and vertebrae.

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54
Q

What does the PNS connect?

A

The periphery with the brain and spinal cord, innervating muscles, skin, and glands.

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55
Q

What are the two functional divisions of the PNS?

A

Autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system.

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56
Q

What does the somatic nervous system control?

A

Voluntary control of muscles.

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57
Q

What functions does the autonomic nervous system regulate?

A

Involuntary functions such as control of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.
- Control the most visceral functions of the body

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58
Q

What are the three components of the autonomic nervous system?

A

1) Sympathetic nervous system (stress response)
2) Parasympathetic nervous system (homeostatic functions)
3) Enteric nervous system (gastrointestinal regulation)

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59
Q

Where are the cell bodies for the parasympathetic system located?

A

In select regions of the brain and in sacral levels of the spinal cord.

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60
Q

Where are the cell bodies for the sympathetic system located?

A

In the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

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61
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A

A subdivision of the ANS located in the walls of the gastrointestinal tract that can function independently while being influenced by both sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

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62
Q

How do sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons typically interact?

A

They tend to have opposite actions when innervating the same structure.

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63
Q

What is the primary role of the parasympathetic system?

A

Normal maintenance of the internal environment, acting during “rest and digest” states.

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64
Q

What is the primary role of the sympathetic system?

A

Response to external environmental stressors, acting during “fight or flight” or “freeze” responses.

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65
Q

Name some organs that receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic input.

A

Salivary glands, heart, bladder, and sex organs.

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66
Q

What are some structures that only receive sympathetic input?

A

Sweat glands, most blood vessels, and piloerector muscles of the skin.

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67
Q

What are neurons?

A

Nerve cells that transmit information throughout the nervous system.

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68
Q

Afferent processes vs afferent process

A

Dendrites and axon

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69
Q

What is a nuclei

A

Groups of nerve cell bodies within the CNS

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70
Q

What is a ganglia

A

Groups of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS

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71
Q

What are tracts/fasciculi

A

Bundles of nerve processes within the CNS

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72
Q

What are nerves?

A

Bundles of processes outside the CNS

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73
Q

What are glia?

A

Non-neuronal cells that don’t produce impulses, they provide support and protection

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74
Q

What are some functions of glial cells?

A

K⁺ and Ca²⁺ buffering, neurotransmitter reuptake, axonal guidance during regeneration, and CSF production.

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75
Q

What are the 2 types of macroglia?

A
  1. Astrocytes
  2. Oligodendroglia
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76
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

A type of macroglia found throughout the CNS, involved in forming the blood-brain barrier and providing support.

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77
Q

What role do oligodendroglia play in the CNS?

A

They are involved in the formation of myelin sheaths.

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78
Q

What are microglia?

A

Resident macrophages in the CNS that act as immune responders.

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79
Q

What is the ependyma?

A

The epithelium lining the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord, involved in CSF production.

80
Q
A
81
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Structures that receive information from other neurons and conduct nerve impulses toward the cell body.

82
Q

What does the cell body of a neuron consist of?

A

A nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and mitochondria.

83
Q

What are axons?

A

Major routes by which one nerve cell sends signals to other neurons, conducting nerve impulses away from the cell body.

84
Q

What are terminal or synaptic boutons?

A

Swellings at the distal end of the axon that contain neurotransmitter-filled vesicles and form chemical synapses with other neurons.

85
Q

What are en passant boutons?

A

Boutons found along the length of the axon in some types of neurons

86
Q

How do neurons communicate?

A

By releasing neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron that bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, causing a change in membrane potential.

87
Q
A
88
Q

What are pseudounipolar neurons?

A

Neurons with a single process that extends from the cell body and divides into central and peripheral branches; commonly found in dorsal root ganglia.

89
Q

What are bipolar neurons?

A

Neurons with a single axon and a single dendrite extending from the cell body; found in the retina and olfactory system.

90
Q

What are multipolar neurons?

A

Neurons with one axon and several dendrites; they are the most common type of neuron in the CNS.

91
Q

What are the different types of synaptic connections?

A

Axo-dendritic: Between axons and dendrites.
Axo-somatic: Between axons and cell bodies.
Axo-axonic: Between axons and the initial segment of another axon or synaptic boutons.
Dendro-dentritic: Between dendrites.
Neuromuscular junction: Between neurons and muscles, as well as other organs like the heart.

92
Q

What type of synapses are most common in the nervous system?

A

Chemical synapses.

93
Q
A
94
Q

How does information flow in chemical synapses?

A

Conductance is one-way, from the presynaptic neuron (which secretes the transmitter) to the postsynaptic neuron (which the transmitter acts on).

95
Q

Where are electrical synapses typically found?

A

In muscle (visceral smooth and cardiac) and a few in the CNS.

96
Q

What are presynaptic terminals or boutons?

A

Minute knobs (few to 200,000) that lie on the surface of dendrites and some on the cell body, originating from many other neurons.

97
Q

What do presynaptic terminals secrete?

A

Either excitatory or inhibitory transmitter substances.

98
Q

What are the structures found in the presynaptic terminal?

A

Transmitter vesicles that store and release the transmitter substance, as well as mitochondria for energy (ATP) synthesis.

99
Q

How is neurotransmitter release triggered?

A

An action potential causes a small number of vesicles to release their transmitter into the synaptic cleft.

100
Q

What role do voltage-gated calcium channels play in synapses?

A

They allow a large influx of calcium into the presynaptic terminal upon depolarization, which is proportional to the amount of transmitter released.

101
Q

What is the synaptic cleft?

A

The space that separates the presynaptic terminal from the postsynaptic neural soma, measuring 200-300 angstroms.

102
Q

What are small molecule, fast-acting transmitters classified into?

A

Class I: Acetylcholine
Class II: The Amines (Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, Serotonin, Histamine)
Class III: Amino acids (GABA, Glycine, Glutamate, Aspartate)
Class IV: Nitric oxide (NO)

103
Q

What are the neuropeptides that are slowly-acting transmitters/growth factors?

A
  1. Hypothalamic-releasing hormones
  2. Pituitary peptides
  3. Peptides that act on gut and brain
  4. From other tissues
104
Q

What do receptor proteins in the postsynaptic neuron consist of?

A
  1. A binding component that protrudes outward into the synaptic cleft
  2. an ionophore component that passes through the membrane.
105
Q

What are the two types of ionophore components?

A
  1. Ion channels (allow ions to pass)
  2. Second messenger activators (activate substances in the cell cytoplasm).
106
Q

What are cation channels most often permeable to?

A

Na+ ions, but can also allow K+ and/or Ca2+ ions to pass.

107
Q

How do cation channels operate regarding ion movement?

A

Cation channels are lined with negative charges, which attract positively charged sodium ions when the channel diameter increases, while repelling chloride and other anions.

108
Q

How do cation channels affect neuron excitability?

A

Excitatory transmitters open cation channels, allowing positive Na+ ions to enter, which excites the neuron.

109
Q

What ions pass through anion channels, and what is their effect on the neuron?

A

Anion channels allow Cl- ions to enter, which inhibits the neuron.

110
Q

How do anion channels function in terms of ion movement?

A

Anion channels, when the channel diameter becomes larger, allow chloride (Cl⁻) ions to pass into the channel and move to the opposite side.

111
Q

What is the role of the second messenger system?

A

It allows for prolonged activation of processes that require extended changes in neurons, such as memory.

112
Q
A
113
Q

What is the example of the G-protein in the second messenger system

A

It activates the receptor and has an alpha portion that can open specific ion channels or activate intracellular enzymes and gene transcription.

114
Q

What are the functions of the alpha portion of G proteins in the second messenger system?

A
  1. Open specific ion channels in the postsynaptic membrane, allowing prolonged channel activity.
  2. Activate cAMP or cGMP, which can trigger specific metabolic processes.
  3. Activate intracellular enzymes and initiate gene transcription.
115
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of a spinal motor neuron?

A

Approximately -65 mV, which is less negative than peripheral nerves and skeletal muscle fibers.

116
Q

How does a decrease + increase in resting membrane potential affect excitability?

A

Decrease - more excitable
Increase - less excitable

117
Q

What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in the resting membrane potential?

A

It maintains the resting membrane potential by moving Na+ out of and K+ into the cell, contributing to the -65 mV resting potential

118
Q

How does chloride permeability influence the resting membrane potential?

A

The membrane’s permeability to chloride allows it to move out of the cell due to the negative charge inside, affecting the overall excitability.

119
Q

What is the Nernst Potential inside the membrane?

A

A: The potential that exactly opposes the movement of an ion (EMF in mV) = +61 × log [in]/[out].

120
Q

When is the Nernst potential positive vs negative?

A

Positive: When a negative ion diffuses out or a positive ion diffuses in.
Negative: When a positive ion diffuses out or a negative ion diffuses in.

121
Q

What are the characteristics of the soma of a spinal motor neuron?

A
  1. Highly conductive intracellular fluid
  2. large diameter (10-80 μm)
  3. low resistance to conduction
  4. allows for summation of signals from multiple sources.
122
Q

What happens when an excitatory transmitter acts on the postsynaptic somal membrane?

A

It increases membrane permeability to sodium, resulting in a rapid influx of sodium (+) and creating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).

123
Q

What is the change in membrane potential during an EPSP?

A

Resting potential changes from -65 mV to -45 mV; EPSP = +20 mV.

124
Q

How is an action potential initiated?

A

When the EPSP reaches a high enough level, it triggers an action potential in the initial segment of the axon, which has a higher concentration of voltage-gated sodium channels.
- AP travels in both directions but some

125
Q

Action potential and traveling in both directions

A

The AP travels in both directions along the axon, but the soma and dendrites have few sodium channels, resulting in little effect in those areas.

126
Q

What occurs during an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?

A

Hyperpolarization occurs, increasing negativity beyond the normal resting potential, primarily through opening chloride and potassium channels.

127
Q

Can EPSP and IPSP occur simultaneously?

A

Yes, sufficient IPSP can nullify the effect of EPSP, affecting the neuron’s overall excitability.

128
Q

What is facilitation of neurons?

A

When large groups of neurons are near threshold but not firing, they can quickly respond to new signals.

129
Q

What is presynaptic inhibition

A

The release of an inhibitory substance (often GABA) onto presynaptic nerve fibers, which opens anion channels and allows chloride ions to enter, inhibiting synaptic transmission.

130
Q

What role does presynaptic inhibition play in sensory pathways?

A

Presynaptic inhibition occurs in many sensory pathways and helps minimize sidewise spread and mixing of signals in sensory tracts.

131
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

The process where multiple presynaptic terminals simultaneously discharge to achieve the firing threshold.

132
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

The summation of successive discharges from a single presynaptic terminal that occur rapidly enough to reach the firing threshold and cause an action potential.

133
Q

Describe the efferent component of the sympathetic nervous system.

A

Preganglionic neuron: Soma in the brain stem or spinal cord.
Postganglionic neuron: Soma in ganglia outside the CNS.

134
Q

Where are the cell bodies of sympathetic preganglionic neurons located?

A

In the intermediolateral horn of the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

135
Q

Where do postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate?

A

In paired paravertebral ganglionic chains or prevertebral ganglia, with relatively long axons innervating various tissues.

136
Q

What special structure does the sympathetic nervous system activate in response to stress?

A

The adrenal medulla, through modified sympathetic ganglia that secrete into the vascular system.

137
Q

What are the efferent components of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Preganglionic neurons: Soma in the brain stem (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X) and sacral spinal cord.
Postganglionic neurons: Located in small ganglia close to the tissue they innervate.

138
Q

What does the sacral outflow (pelvic nerve) control?

A

The pelvic organs.

139
Q

What is the enteric system?

A

A network of intramural nerves within the gastrointestinal tract, part of the autonomic nervous system.

140
Q

What are the inputs to the stomach and intestines in the enteric system?

A

Stomach: Vagus (PSNS) vs celiac plexus (SNS).
Intestines: vagus and pelvic nerves (PSNS) vs Celiac, aorticorenal, cranial mesenteric ganglia (SNS),

141
Q

Where is the myenteric plexus located, and what are its main functions?

A
  • Located between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the gut. Functions include:
    1. Segmentation of gut contents and peristalsis
    2. Reciprocal innervation of muscle layers
    3. Sensory neurons that control reflexes between different gut parts
142
Q

Where is the submucosal plexus located, and what are its roles?

A
  • Located between the circular muscle layer and mucosa. Roles include:
    1. Regulating ion and water transport across epithelia
    2. Controlling crypt cell secretions
    3. Feeding sensory information back to the myenteric plexus for gut motility regulation
143
Q

Do most tissues receive sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation? What are the exceptions?

A

Yes, most tissues receive both (with antagonistic input), except for:

Sweat glands, piloerector muscles, uterus, and most blood vessels (only SNS innervation)
Salivary glands receive both but are not antagonistic (SNS = scant viscous saliva; PSNS = copious watery saliva)

144
Q

How does the divergence of the SNS and PSNS differ?

A

SNS: Extensive divergence, activated en masse during stress.
PSNS: Limited divergence, more discrete and acts at an individual organ level.

145
Q

Divergence vs convergence

A

Divergence allows one neuron to communicate with many other neurons in a network.
Convergence allows a neuron to receive input from many neurons in a network.

146
Q

What are the groups of neurotransmitters and their receptors?

A

1) Catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine) -> adrenergic receptors
2) Acetylcholine -> cholinergic receptors
3) Nonadrenergic/noncholinergic (NANC

147
Q

How are catecholamines synthesized and inactivated?

A

Synthesis: tyrosine or phenylalanine
Inactivation: active uptake into presynaptic terminal for metabolism.

148
Q

What are the types of adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha receptors: Generally excitatory (except in the gut).
Beta receptors: All act through G proteins and second messengers.
Beta-1: Heart and kidney
Beta-2: Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle
Beta-3: Adipocytes (lipolysis)

149
Q

How do norepinephrine and epinephrine differ in receptor activity?

A

Norepinephrine (NE): Acts on all alpha receptors and beta-1 but not beta-2.
Epinephrine (EPI): Acts on all alpha and beta receptors; beta receptors are more sensitive.

150
Q

How is acetylcholine synthesized and terminated?

A

Synthesis: choline acetyltransferase
Termination: hydrolysis in the synaptic cleft with choline transported back to the presynaptic terminal.

151
Q

What are the types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic receptors: Present in ganglia, skeletal muscle, and CNS; all are excitatory.
Muscarinic receptors: Located at postganglionic synapses in the PSNS; can be excitatory or inhibitory.
Dopaminergic receptors: Mostly in the kidney and sympathetic ganglia.

152
Q

What are the neurotransmitters of SNS

A

Traditional: Adrenergic, Cholinergic, Nonadrenergic/noncholinergic (NANC)

153
Q

What are the neurotransmitters of PSNS

A

Cholinergic, Nonadrenergic/noncholinergic (NANC)
- less than SNS

154
Q

What are the neurotransmitters of ENS

A

Cholinergic, Nonadrenergic/noncholinergic (NANC)

155
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the heart?

A

SNS: Increases heart rate and force of contraction (beta-1 receptors).
PSNS: Reduces heart rate and contractile force.

156
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on blood vessels?

A

SNS: Constriction of cutaneous, mucosal, splanchnic, renal, and genital arteries (alpha-1); dilation of coronary and skeletal vessels (beta-2).
PSNS: Dilation of genital blood vessels via nitric oxide

157
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the gut?

A

SNS: Relaxes smooth muscles, contracts sphincter muscles, and reduces secretions.
PSNS: Increases peristalsis, secretion, and relaxes sphincters.

158
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the lungs?

A

SNS: Smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation (beta-2 receptors).
PSNS: Bronchoconstriction and mucous secretion.

159
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the eyes?

A

SNS: Pupil dilation.
PSNS: Pupil constriction (controls focusing).

160
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the bladder?

A

SNS: Relaxes detrusor muscle and contracts trigone, leading to urine retention.
PSNS: Contracts detrusor muscle and relaxes trigone, resulting in bladder evacuation.

161
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on sweat glands?

A

SNS: Sweating activated by cholinergic innervation (humans, dogs, cats) and sympathetic adrenergic innervation (other animals).
PSNS: Not primarily involved in sweat gland activation.

162
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on salivary glands?

A

SNS: Viscous and limited saliva due to myoepithelial contraction.
PSNS: Profuse, watery saliva for swallowing and digestion.

163
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on reproductive organs?

A

SNS: Facilitates ejaculation and can relax or contract the uterus.
PSNS: Venoconstriction for erection, stimulation of mucous secretions, and uterine contractions.

164
Q

SNS and PSNS Effects on the liver?

A

SNS: Promotes glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
PSNS: Relaxes bile duct sphincter and promotes some glycogen synthesis.

165
Q

What are the five classes of sensory receptors?

A
  1. Mechanoreceptors: mechanical compression or stretching
  2. Thermoreceptors: changes in temperature
  3. Nociceptors: pain receptors/damage
  4. Electromagnetic receptors: light on the retina of the eye
  5. Chemoreceptors: taste in mouth, smell in nose, oxygen/CO2 levels, osmolality.
166
Q

What are the mechanoreceptors responsible for skin tactile sensibilities?

A
  1. Free nerve endings
  2. Expanded tip endings (Merkel’s discs)
  3. Spray endings (Ruffini’s endings)
  4. Encapsulated endings (Meissner’s corpuscles, Krause’s corpuscles)
  5. Hair end-organs
167
Q

What mechanoreceptors are responsible for deep tissue sensibilities?

A
  1. Free nerve endings
  2. Expanded tip endings
  3. Spray endings (Ruffini’s endings)
  4. Encapsulated endings (Pacinian corpuscles)
  5. Muscle endings (Muscle spindles, Golgi tendon receptors)
168
Q

What are the specialized functions of mechanoreceptors

A
  1. Vision (rods and cones respond to light)
  2. Hearing (sound receptors in cochlea)
  3. Balance (vestibular receptors detect acceleration)
  4. Arterial pressure (baroreceptors in carotid sinuses and aorta)
169
Q

What do nociceptors detect, and what do they not detect? Where are they found?

A

Detect pain and tissue damage
Do not detect usual touch/pressure.
Detect tissue damage.
Found as free nerve endings.

170
Q

What do thermoreceptors detect?

A

Cold receptors detect cold.
Warmth receptors detect warmth.

171
Q

What are the electromagnetic receptors for vision?

A

Rods (low light vision)
Cones (color and bright light vision)

172
Q

What are the different chemoreceptors and what do they detect?

A

Taste: Receptors in taste buds.
Smell: Receptors in olfactory epithelium.
Arterial oxygen: Receptors in aortic arch and carotid bodies.
Osmolality: Neurons in supraoptic nuclei.
Blood CO2: Receptors in/on surface of medulla, aortic, and carotid bodies.
Blood glucose, amino acids, fatty acids: Receptors in hypothalamus.

173
Q

What determines the type of sensation from a nerve impulse?

A

Where the nerve fiber terminates in the CNS and its specific path (pain, vision, auditory, etc.).

174
Q

What is the labelled line principle?

A

Labeled line principle: each nerve fiber transmits only one type of sensation.

175
Q

What is the immediate effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor?

A

It changes the membrane electrical potential of the receptor.

176
Q

Name four ways sensory receptors can be excited to cause receptor potentials.

A
  1. Mechanical deformation (stretches receptor membrane and opens channels).
  2. Chemical application to the membrane (opens ion channels).
  3. Temperature changes (alters membrane permeability).
  4. Electromagnetic radiation (e.g., light on retinal receptors)
177
Q

What is the basic cause of receptor potential changes?

A

A change in membrane permeability, allowing ions to diffuse and alter transmembrane potential.

178
Q

What is the maximum amplitude of most sensory receptor potentials?

A

About 100 mVs, occurring at extremely high stimulus intensity.

179
Q

How does receptor potential amplitude respond to increasing stimulus strength?

A

Amplitude increases rapidly at first but less rapidly at high stimulus strength.

180
Q

How is the frequency of action potentials related to receptor potential?

A

Frequency of action potentials is proportional to receptor potential, allowing sensitivity to weak stimuli and peak firing only at extreme stimuli.

181
Q

What happens when a continuous sensory stimulus is applied to receptors?

A

Receptor firing decreases or ceases, especially in mechanoreceptors.

182
Q

Which receptors may never fully adapt to continuous stimuli?

A

Chemoreceptors and pain receptors.

183
Q

How quickly do Pacinian corpuscles adapt to constant stimuli?

A

They adapt to extinction within a few hundredths of a second.

184
Q

What are tonic receptors and what do they do?

A

A type of adaptive receptors
Tonic receptors are slowly adapting and continue transmitting information for hours, keeping the brain informed about the status of the body.

185
Q

Give examples of tonic receptors.

A

Muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, pain receptors, baroreceptors, and chemoreceptors.

186
Q

What are rate or phasic receptors, and how do they respond to stimuli?

A

A type of adaptive receptors
Phasic receptors adapt rapidly and are stimulated only when the stimulus strength changes.

187
Q

Give an example of a phasic receptor.

A

Receptors of the semicircular canals in the vestibular apparatus of the ear.

188
Q

What is amplifying divergence in neural pathways?

A

Input signals transfer to an increasing number of neurons as they move along the pathway, as seen in the corticospinal pathway, where a single pyramidal cell can excite up to 10,000 muscle fibers.

189
Q

What is divergence into multiple tracts?

A

Signals are transmitted in two directions, such as information traveling up the dorsal column of the spinal cord to the cerebellum and the thalamus, then to the cerebral cortex.

190
Q

What is convergence from a single source?

A

It provides spatial summation, where input signals from the same source are combined.

191
Q

What is convergence from multiple sources?

A

It allows correlation, summation, and sorting of different types of information from various sources.

192
Q

What is the function of the spinal cord in reflexes?

A

The spinal cord is involved in reflexes, sensory processing, and motor outflow. Reflexes typically involve receptor structures, afferent neurons, and efferent neurons.
- A reaction without using the brain

193
Q

What is the stretch reflex?

A

When a muscle is stretched, excitation of the muscle spindles causes reflex contraction of the same muscle and related muscles, using a monosynaptic pathway involving type 1A nerve fibers.

194
Q

What is the role of type 2 fibers in the stretch reflex?

A

Most type 2 fibers from muscle spindles terminate on interneurons, which slow down the signal.

195
Q

What is the flexor (withdrawal) reflex?

A

This reflex involves excitation of muscles, such as in the upper arm, with information passed to the spinal cord’s interneuron pool, activating necessary muscles while inhibiting antagonists and causing after-discharge.