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FNP > 2 > Flashcards

2 Flashcards

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Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

hematuria can be seen with

A

kidney stones
bladder cancer
acute pyelonephritis

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2
Q

first-line medication for tinea unguium?

A

oral terbinafine

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3
Q

Emphysema presents with

A 
shortness of breath
minimal cough
decreased heart and lung sounds
pursed-lip breathing
use of accessory muscles
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4
Q

Chronic bronchitis is characterized by

A

productive cough
wheezing
coarse crackles

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5
Q

A patient with a cluster headache should be initially treated with

A

100% oxygen @12L + intranasal 4% lidocaine

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6
Q

Puncture wounds of the foot may become infected with _____________ by the foam material from sneakers.

A

P. aeruginosa

gram negative

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7
Q

increased ICP (Cushing’s triad)

A

increased SBP
increased pulse
decreased respirations

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8
Q

What is used to treat the initial symptoms of mild allergic conjunctivitis?

A

OTC antihistamine/mast cell stabilizer

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9
Q

topical steroid strengths range from _ (least potent) to _ (very potent)

A

7; 1

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10
Q

First imaging to assess for any neural tube defects

A

US

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11
Q

Where do you hear vesicular breath sounds?

A

in the lower lobes

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12
Q

Where do you hear bronchial breath sounds?

A

at the second and third intercostal spaces

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13
Q

Where do you hear tracheal breath sounds?

A

over the trachea

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14
Q

Kawasaki’s usually occurs in children under what age?

A

5 years

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15
Q

range of estradiol associated with perimenopause is

A

30 to 400 pg/mL

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16
Q

FSH >30 mIU/mL is indicative of

A

decreased ovarian function

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17
Q

AMH level of <0.5 ng/mL is associated with

A

perimenopause

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18
Q

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

A

anticholinergic and antispasmodic

decreases fecal urgency and pain associated with diarrhea

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19
Q

Lubiprostone (Amitiza)

A

chloride channel activator

treatment of IBS with constipation in adults

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20
Q

Alosetron (Lotronex) is administered for

A

IBS associated with diarrhea

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21
Q

Patients with PMR are treated with______________.

A

oral corticosteroids

One of the hallmarks of the disorder is the dramatic improvement of symptoms after starting treatment with oral prednisone.

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22
Q

classic sign of allergic rhinitis is a

A

transverse nasal crease (allergic salute)

Also may see clear nasal discharge and under-eye circles from vasodilation and/or lack of sleep from sneezing and itchiness

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23
Q

balanoposthitis

A

penile gland and foreskin are inflamed. A reddened, moist macular lesion is present on the prepuce

candida infections, are commonly associated with the use of antibiotics and are the most common identifiable infectious etiology associated with balanoposthitis

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24
Q

Primary tx for de Quervain’s

A

Ice + NSAIDs

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25
Q

rash appears either as a single expanding red patch or as a central spot surrounded by clear skin that is in turn ringed by an expanded red rash

A

bull’s-eye lesion of Lyme dz

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26
Q

test used to assess for inflammation and the presence of bacteria in the lower urinary tract, findings that are associated with symptoms of chronic prostatitis

A

Meares–Stamey 2-glass

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27
Q

Periumbilical to RLQ pain occurs more frequently in ______, while LLQ is more classically associated with ____________.

A

Crohn’s; ulcerative colitis (UC)

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28
Q

Avoid triptans in patient with hx of

A

MI

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29
Q

penopubic epispadias

A

urethral meatus is found near the pubic bone

bladder sphincter is shaped more like a horseshoe than a ring, it does not close all the way. Because of this, urine leaks out.

30
Q

In boys with epispadias, the penis tends to be

A

broad, short, and curved up

31
Q

penile epispadias, the urinary meatus is found along the______. In penopubic epispadias, it is found _________.

A

shaft; on or near the pubic bone.

32
Q

suppurative otitis media

A

TM bulges & ruptures spontaneously through a small perforation in the pars tensa

discharge usually present

Dx usually made with direct visualization of TM via otoscope

TM = red and swollen, and may be retracted or bulging

Decreased mobility of TM as measured by tympanogram

33
Q

postherpetic neuralgia

A

s/p Shingles

Shingles lasts about 3-5 weeks, but neuralgia can last months

sensation of burning, throbbing, sharp pain, and aching at the site of the outbreak

Tx w/ gabapentin

34
Q

patient should first be examined for acute renal failure with _______ and then ____ or ___________.

A

24-hour creatinine level; MRI, intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

35
Q

Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the

A

fecal–oral route

commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers

36
Q

Hepatitis B can be transmitted by

A

IV drug use, unprotected sex, or blood transfusion

37
Q

Hepatitis C can be transmitted by

A

unprotected sex or contaminated needles.

38
Q

________ can reactivate during treatment for hepatitis C and cause serious liver problems.

A

Hepatitis B

39
Q

first-line antibiotic treatment for an infant with pertussis are

A

macrolides

40
Q

MS patient with intermittent or new vision loss should see a __________. because the patient may have __________.

A

neurologist; optic neuritis

41
Q

contact lens keratitis

A

Often d/t sleeping with contact lenses

eye pain, redness, excessive tearing, and a lesion on the cornea

Topical antibiotics are the first line of treatment

42
Q

Antiretroviral regimens for HIV often have black box warnings for severe hepatomegaly and HBV exacerbation. What do we do?

A

monito liver enzymes and cholesterol

tell patients to follow low-fat diet

43
Q

patient with HIV for follow-up of initial antiretroviral treatment regimen that is working

A

f/u PVL should be completed in 4 to 8 weeks

f/u CD4 in 3 months.

44
Q

Multiple bacteria in a urine sample is indicative of

A

a contaminated sample

45
Q

highest sensitivity/specificity for kidney stones

A

noncontrast CT

46
Q

syphilis

A

condylomata lata = wartlike papules are found in the inguinal area

rash on palms and soles of feet

Step 1: RPR or VDRL
Step 2: if those are positive, confirm with FTA-ABS, MHA-TP

47
Q

tests ordered for suspected infection with HIV

A

HIV-1/ HIV-2 antibody and P24 antigen tests (combination assay)

48
Q

Miliary TB

A

found in children under age 5 and the elderly

seen on x-ray with milia seed patterns

49
Q

Reactivated TB noted on XR by

A

lesions, nodules, and cavitation

50
Q

Latent TB

A

when bacteria is in the lymph nodes and is not infectious.

XR shows calcification and fibrosis.

51
Q

Pleural TB

A

in the pleural space and is very contagious

it is indicated by a mass with obtuse angles on x-ray

52
Q

ventricular gallop

A

S3 heart sound

53
Q

S3 heart sound is heard

A

during early diastole

54
Q

At what age should healthy full-term infants be screened for anemia?

A

9 to 12 months

infants have enough iron stores to last 4 to 6 months after birth

55
Q

It is important to monitor _______________ when administering theophylline (Theo-Dur).

A

serum concentration

56
Q

Scoliosis spinal curvature of >40 degrees requires

A

surgical intervention with a Harrington rod

57
Q

Scoliosis spinal curvature between 5 and 20 degrees should

A

be monitored for changes

58
Q

Scoliosis spinal curvature between between 20 and 40 degrees need

A

Bracing

59
Q

Healthy women (age 18–65 years) dx with UTI may be treated with a ___-day treatment plan

A

3

60
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide can cause __________ suppression, leading to __________

A

bone marrow

neutropenia

61
Q

Uncomplicated acute diverticulitis can be treated on an outpatient basis if the provider educates the patient on the treatment plan:

A

take Augmentin as ordered and report fever to HCP immediately so that the patient can be evaluated for abscesses, peritonitis, or sepsis

62
Q

Once the acute diverticulitis episode resolves, the patient should

A

maintain a high-fiber diet with supplemental psyllium fiber
avoid laxatives long term
stool softener can be added to the regime, if necessary

63
Q

groups of papules and vesicles (not bullae) on a red base that rupture and become crusted; along dermatome

A

typical shingles rash

64
Q

Pityriasis versicolor, formerly known as tinea versicolor,

A

Dx by clinical appearance and a sample of the skin scrapings placed on a KOH wet mount, which reveal short hyphae and budding cells

oral fluconazole (Diflucan) is the primary prescribed treatment for widespread infection

65
Q

Why do infants have an increased risk of CNS toxicity and sensitivity to pharmacologic agents that act on the brain?

A

infant’s blood–brain barrier is not fully developed for several months

66
Q

AV nicking and copper wire/ silver wire arterioles are signs of

A

hypertensive retinopathy

ventricular hypertrophy affects the heart
stroke damages the brain.

67
Q

noncommunicating hydrocele

A

occurs when the sac closes normally around the testicle during development, but the body does not absorb the fluid inside it.

common in newborns and usually disappears without treatment by 1 year of age.

68
Q

Surgery is recommended for a _________hydrocele (when the sac ___________)

A

communicating

does not seal

69
Q

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome is a

A

neuroendocrine tumor that leads to gastrin hypersecretion and multiple peptic ulcer formation

70
Q

ADA A1C goal for most pregnant pts

A

< 6%

71
Q

ADA A1C goal for most adults with T2DM

A

< 7%

72
Q

ADA A1C goal for older patients

A

< 8%

FNP (4 decks)

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