2 Flashcards

1
Q

hematuria can be seen with

A

kidney stones
bladder cancer
acute pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

first-line medication for tinea unguium?

A

oral terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Emphysema presents with

A
shortness of breath
minimal cough
decreased heart and lung sounds
pursed-lip breathing
use of accessory muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chronic bronchitis is characterized by

A

productive cough
wheezing
coarse crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient with a cluster headache should be initially treated with

A

100% oxygen @12L + intranasal 4% lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Puncture wounds of the foot may become infected with _____________ by the foam material from sneakers.

A

P. aeruginosa

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

increased ICP (Cushing’s triad)

A

increased SBP
increased pulse
decreased respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is used to treat the initial symptoms of mild allergic conjunctivitis?

A

OTC antihistamine/mast cell stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

topical steroid strengths range from _ (least potent) to _ (very potent)

A

7; 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First imaging to assess for any neural tube defects

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do you hear vesicular breath sounds?

A

in the lower lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do you hear bronchial breath sounds?

A

at the second and third intercostal spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do you hear tracheal breath sounds?

A

over the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Kawasaki’s usually occurs in children under what age?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

range of estradiol associated with perimenopause is

A

30 to 400 pg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FSH >30 mIU/mL is indicative of

A

decreased ovarian function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

AMH level of <0.5 ng/mL is associated with

A

perimenopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

A

anticholinergic and antispasmodic

decreases fecal urgency and pain associated with diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lubiprostone (Amitiza)

A

chloride channel activator

treatment of IBS with constipation in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alosetron (Lotronex) is administered for

A

IBS associated with diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patients with PMR are treated with______________.

A

oral corticosteroids

One of the hallmarks of the disorder is the dramatic improvement of symptoms after starting treatment with oral prednisone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

classic sign of allergic rhinitis is a

A

transverse nasal crease (allergic salute)

Also may see clear nasal discharge and under-eye circles from vasodilation and/or lack of sleep from sneezing and itchiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

balanoposthitis

A

penile gland and foreskin are inflamed. A reddened, moist macular lesion is present on the prepuce

candida infections, are commonly associated with the use of antibiotics and are the most common identifiable infectious etiology associated with balanoposthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Primary tx for de Quervain’s

A

Ice + NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
rash appears either as a single expanding red patch or as a central spot surrounded by clear skin that is in turn ringed by an expanded red rash
bull’s-eye lesion of Lyme dz
26
test used to assess for inflammation and the presence of bacteria in the lower urinary tract, findings that are associated with symptoms of chronic prostatitis
Meares–Stamey 2-glass
27
Periumbilical to RLQ pain occurs more frequently in ______, while LLQ is more classically associated with ____________.
Crohn's; ulcerative colitis (UC)
28
Avoid triptans in patient with hx of
MI
29
penopubic epispadias
urethral meatus is found near the pubic bone bladder sphincter is shaped more like a horseshoe than a ring, it does not close all the way. Because of this, urine leaks out.
30
In boys with epispadias, the penis tends to be
broad, short, and curved up
31
penile epispadias, the urinary meatus is found along the______. In penopubic epispadias, it is found _________.
shaft; on or near the pubic bone.
32
suppurative otitis media
TM bulges & ruptures spontaneously through a small perforation in the pars tensa discharge usually present Dx usually made with direct visualization of TM via otoscope TM = red and swollen, and may be retracted or bulging Decreased mobility of TM as measured by tympanogram
33
postherpetic neuralgia
s/p Shingles Shingles lasts about 3-5 weeks, but neuralgia can last months sensation of burning, throbbing, sharp pain, and aching at the site of the outbreak Tx w/ gabapentin
34
patient should first be examined for acute renal failure with _______ and then ____ or ___________.
24-hour creatinine level; MRI, intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
35
Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the
fecal–oral route commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers
36
Hepatitis B can be transmitted by
IV drug use, unprotected sex, or blood transfusion
37
Hepatitis C can be transmitted by
unprotected sex or contaminated needles.
38
________ can reactivate during treatment for hepatitis C and cause serious liver problems.
Hepatitis B
39
first-line antibiotic treatment for an infant with pertussis are
macrolides
40
MS patient with intermittent or new vision loss should see a __________. because the patient may have __________.
neurologist; optic neuritis
41
contact lens keratitis
Often d/t sleeping with contact lenses eye pain, redness, excessive tearing, and a lesion on the cornea Topical antibiotics are the first line of treatment
42
Antiretroviral regimens for HIV often have black box warnings for severe hepatomegaly and HBV exacerbation. What do we do?
monito liver enzymes and cholesterol tell patients to follow low-fat diet
43
patient with HIV for follow-up of initial antiretroviral treatment regimen that is working
f/u PVL should be completed in 4 to 8 weeks f/u CD4 in 3 months.
44
Multiple bacteria in a urine sample is indicative of
a contaminated sample
45
highest sensitivity/specificity for kidney stones
noncontrast CT
46
syphilis
condylomata lata = wartlike papules are found in the inguinal area rash on palms and soles of feet Step 1: RPR or VDRL Step 2: if those are positive, confirm with FTA-ABS, MHA-TP
47
tests ordered for suspected infection with HIV
HIV-1/ HIV-2 antibody and P24 antigen tests (combination assay)
48
Miliary TB
found in children under age 5 and the elderly seen on x-ray with milia seed patterns
49
Reactivated TB noted on XR by
lesions, nodules, and cavitation
50
Latent TB
when bacteria is in the lymph nodes and is not infectious. | XR shows calcification and fibrosis.
51
Pleural TB
in the pleural space and is very contagious it is indicated by a mass with obtuse angles on x-ray
52
ventricular gallop
S3 heart sound
53
S3 heart sound is heard
during early diastole
54
At what age should healthy full-term infants be screened for anemia?
9 to 12 months infants have enough iron stores to last 4 to 6 months after birth
55
It is important to monitor _______________ when administering theophylline (Theo-Dur).
serum concentration
56
Scoliosis spinal curvature of >40 degrees requires
surgical intervention with a Harrington rod
57
Scoliosis spinal curvature between 5 and 20 degrees should
be monitored for changes
58
Scoliosis spinal curvature between between 20 and 40 degrees need
Bracing
59
Healthy women (age 18–65 years) dx with UTI may be treated with a ___-day treatment plan
3
60
Hydrochlorothiazide can cause __________ suppression, leading to __________
bone marrow neutropenia
61
Uncomplicated acute diverticulitis can be treated on an outpatient basis if the provider educates the patient on the treatment plan:
take Augmentin as ordered and report fever to HCP immediately so that the patient can be evaluated for abscesses, peritonitis, or sepsis
62
Once the acute diverticulitis episode resolves, the patient should
maintain a high-fiber diet with supplemental psyllium fiber avoid laxatives long term stool softener can be added to the regime, if necessary
63
groups of papules and vesicles (not bullae) on a red base that rupture and become crusted; along dermatome
typical shingles rash
64
Pityriasis versicolor, formerly known as tinea versicolor,
Dx by clinical appearance and a sample of the skin scrapings placed on a KOH wet mount, which reveal short hyphae and budding cells oral fluconazole (Diflucan) is the primary prescribed treatment for widespread infection
65
Why do infants have an increased risk of CNS toxicity and sensitivity to pharmacologic agents that act on the brain?
infant’s blood–brain barrier is not fully developed for several months
66
AV nicking and copper wire/ silver wire arterioles are signs of
hypertensive retinopathy ventricular hypertrophy affects the heart stroke damages the brain.
67
noncommunicating hydrocele
occurs when the sac closes normally around the testicle during development, but the body does not absorb the fluid inside it. common in newborns and usually disappears without treatment by 1 year of age.
68
Surgery is recommended for a _________hydrocele (when the sac ___________)
communicating does not seal
69
Zollinger–Ellison syndrome is a
neuroendocrine tumor that leads to gastrin hypersecretion and multiple peptic ulcer formation
70
ADA A1C goal for most pregnant pts
< 6%
71
ADA A1C goal for most adults with T2DM
< 7%
72
ADA A1C goal for older patients
< 8%