2/10 UWORLD test # 11 Flashcards

1
Q
Q 1. Describe B cell development
 : somatic hypermutation, class switching, affinity maturation, VJ/VDJ recombination: what are they? where do they exactly occur?
A

VJ/VDJ recombination: happens during B cell maturation in bone marrow, generation of variable antigen binding sites

somatic hypermutation: after antigen presentation in secondary lymphoid structure (germinal center), production of slightly different antibodies, best fit antibody will be selected (affinity maturation)

class switching: after antigen presentation in secondary lymphoid structure (germinal center), class switching happens depending on cytokine signals
IL-4: IgM -> IgG/ IgE
IL-5: IgM -> IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q 1. Difference between primary lymphoid organ and secondary lymphoid organ?

A

primary lymphoid organ: no antigen presentation, maturation of B/T cells, but not activated yet ( bone marrow- B cell, Thymus- T cell)

secondary lymphoid organ: antigen presentation -> activated B/T cell: spleen or lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q 2. What are three congenital heart abnormalities that are not cyanotic (That is L->R shunt)? What happens if these diseases are not corrected? What is it called? (hint: some syndrome)

A
  • PDA
  • VSD
  • ASD

With uncorrected L->R shunt, right ventricular hypertrophy-> R->L shunt and cyanosis.

This is called Eisenmenger syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q 2. What is total anomalous pulmonary venous return? Is it cyanotic?

A

pulmonary vein returning back to SVC.

“TOTAL” : all oxygenated blood from pulmonary vein go back to SVC. Thus, cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q 5. Loss of what gene on X chromosome gives short stature in Turner’s?

A

SHOX gene

SHOX is required for long bone growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q 6. Why do you worry when patient eats Rat poison (rodenticides)? How to reverse it?

A

Rat poison contains warfarin.

Reversed by FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q 9. What structures are derived from neural crest? (remember mnemonic?)

A
M- melanocyte
O- odontoblasts
T- trachea cartilage
E- enterochromaffin cell (histamine release for gastric acid secretion)
L- laryngeal cartilage
P- parafollicular cells of thyroid
A- adrenal medulla
S- schwann cells
S- spiral membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q 10. orotic aciduria and hyperammonemia: what enzyme deficiency? Explain how these two build up with this enzyme deficiency

A

ornithrin transcarbamylase deficiency

  • > build up of carbamoyl phosphate (which normally reacts with ornithin by ornithin transcarbamylase for urea cycle)
  • > excess prymidine synthesis (megaloblastic anemia not seen as orotic aciduria due to defect in UMP synthase)
  • > excess orotic acid synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q 10. What are signs of hyperammonemia? (6)

A
  • asterixis (tremor)
  • cerebral edema
  • slurred speech
  • blurred vision
  • vomiting
  • drowsiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q 11. How to distinguish between schizophrenia vs. major depressive episodes with psychotic features?

A
  • Schizophrenia:

: Psychotic features: positive symptoms/ negative symtpoms, without prevalence of depressive features

  • Major depressive episodes with psychotic features

: positive psychotic features (delusion, hallucination. disorganized speech) may also be noticed. But depression features (SIGECAPS) will be predominant and exclusively present. That is when mood symptoms kick in, psychotic features will not present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q 12. What is the most common pathogen of community acquired pneumonia for immunocompetent host?
what about atypical pnuemonia? atypical pneumonia in infants? secondary pneumonia?

A
  • community acquired pneumonia
    Strep. pneumoniae
  • atypical pneumonia
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • atypical pneumonia in infants
    RSV
  • secondary pneumonia (pre-existing URI)
    Staph. Aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q 13. Difference between aneroxia nervosa vs. avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder?

A

aneroxia nervosa
: severely thin, distorted view to body shaped

avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
: no disturbance in body image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q 13. What is BMI in aneroxia nervosa?

A

less than 18.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q 16. FAD is derived from what vitamin?

A

Riboflavin, B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q 16. What is the only one enzyme in TCA cycle that uses FAD as a cofactor? which reaction is this?

A

Succinate -> Fumarate
Succinate dehydrogenase

Fumarate, FAD: starts with F
dehydrogenase: FAD -> FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q 17. Corneal reflex: which CN is associated for sensory and motor? What about pupillary light reflex?

A

Corneal reflex

  • sensory: CN 5-V1
  • motor: CN 7

Pupillary reflex

  • sensory: CN 2
  • motor: CN 3
17
Q

Q 17. Which CNs and arteries are housed by each structure

  • Cribriform plate
  • Optic canal
  • Superior optic fissure
  • Foramen Rotundum
  • Foramen Ovale
  • Foramen Spinosum
  • Internal auditory meatus
  • Jugular foramen
  • Hypoglossal canal
A
  • Cribriform plate: CN1
  • Optic canal: CN2, opthalmic artery
  • Superior optic fissure: CN3, CN4, CN5-V1, CN6
  • Foramen Rotundem: CN5-V2
  • Foramen Ovale: CN5-V3
  • Foramen Spinosum: middle meningial artery
  • Internal auditory meatus: CN7, CN8
  • Jugular foramen: CN9, 10, 11
  • Hypoglossal canal: CN12
18
Q

Q 18. Define each study- What is basis for sample selection?

  • Cohort study (retrospective vs. prospective)
  • Cross sectional study
  • Case control study
  • Randomized clinical trial
A
  • Cohort study: intervention based
  • cross sectional study: random sampling
  • case control study: outcome based
  • randomized clinical trial: random sampling
19
Q

Q 19. Hypothalamus nucleus- function?

  • Ventromedial
  • Lateral
  • Anterior
  • Posterior
  • Suprachiasmatic
  • supraoptic
A

hypothalamus: think food, temperature, sleep, and hormone
- ventromedial: VML, leptin- satiety
- lateral: LG, gherlin- hunger
- anterior: AC, cooling
- posterior: heating
- suprachiasmatic: circadian rhythm, wake arousal
- supraoptic: ADH/ oxytocin

20
Q

Q 20. Patient taking antiarrhythmatic shows more prolonged QRS complex during exercise than during rest. What antiarrythmatic is this? Why is this?

A

Class 1 antiarrythmatic

use dependent Na+ channel blocker

21
Q

Q 22. Disclosure rule? What if the error does not affect patient’s health outcome?

A

still disclose everything

22
Q

Q 25. What is clinical presentations of type 1 diabetes? (6) What is pathophysiology for each presentation?

A
  • polyuria: osmotic diuresis
  • polydipsia: due to loss of water
  • polyphasia: excessive hunger
  • weight loss
  • blurred vision
  • ketoacidosis
23
Q

Q 27. Right sided infraction: what will be PCWP?

A

decreased

24
Q

Q 29. painless genital warts- what infection?

A

painless genital warts- HPV 6, 11 or syphilis

25
Q

Q 29. What kind of epithelium does HPV have predilection (preference)? Which part of respiratory tract is composed of that epithelium? vs. other parts of upper respiratory tract?

A

stratified squamous epithelium- true vocal cord

other parts of respiratory tract ( nasal cavity, upper larynx , trachea, bronchi) are pseudostratified columnar

26
Q

Q 31. What is lacunar infarct?
What is pathophysiology of lacunar infarct?
what is similarity and difference between lacunar infarct and Charcot-Bouchard infarct?

A

lacunar infarct is small vessel infarct that usually involves lenticulostriate artery (basal ganglia, internal capsule).
Normally caused by hypertensive sclerosis (thickening of wall)
-> small lesion on CT

vs. Charcot-Bouchard infarct is also small vessel infarction in deep brain structure (basal ganglia, hypothalamus) but it shows big lesion on CT

27
Q

Q 32. rifaximin is indicated to treat what? mechanism of action?

A

hyperammonemia

It works as antibiotics that kill gut bacteria that generates ammonia

28
Q

Q 32. What is hepatic encephalopathy? How cirrhosis causes encephalopathy?

A

cirrhosis impairs livers function of conversion of ammonia to urea (urea cycle), which results in accumulation of ammonia -> cerebral edema, altered mental status

29
Q

Q 33. Which enzyme in arachidonic acid pathway is induced by inflammatory mediators? (IL-1, TNF-alpha)

A

COX-2

30
Q

Q 36. What are two types of cardiac amyloidosis? What amyloid is deposited in each type?

A
  • senile: accumulation of normal transthyretin

- familial amyloid cardiac myopathy : accumulation of mutated transthyretin

31
Q

Q 38. Compare extrapulmonary symtoms of Kartagener syndrome and cystic fibrosis

A
  • Kartagener syndrome: bronchiectesis, recurrent pulmonary infection, infertility, situs inversus
  • Cystic fibrosis: bronchiectesis, recurrent pulmonary infection (pseudomona), pancreatic insufficiency, also infertility in men (absence of vas deferens)
32
Q

Q 39. What is suprapubic cystostomy? When is it indicated? What two anatomical structures needed to be penetrated?

A

suprapubic (catheter on superficial pubic area) cystostomy (incision on bladder) = catheter insertion on bladder to drain urine

catheter passes through aponeurosis of abdominal wall

33
Q

Q 40. Ventricular wall vs. atrial wall: which one has faster electrical conductance?

A

atrial wall is faster

  • think like this: it is thinner, so less ion conduction is required!
34
Q

Q 25. What are three diagnostic criteria for diabetes?

A
  • HbA1C >6.5%
  • 2 hr glucose (75g) tolerance test >200
  • fasting (8rs) glucose >126