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Phlebotomy > 1st Test > Flashcards

1st Test Flashcards

1
Q

List the 8 job duties of a phlebotomist

A
  1. Obtain prescription from practitioner
  2. Get positive ID, ask patient to state name
  3. Choose appropriate equipment
  4. Select and prepare site for collection
  5. Collect sample, ensure patient comfort and safety
  6. Label sample with patient name, date and time of collection
  7. Transport sample carefully and in a timely manner
  8. Follow all safety and infection control regulations.
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2
Q

List the 8 Characteristics of a phlebotomist

A
  1. Dependability
  2. Honesty and Integrity
  3. Positive Attitude
  4. Empathy and Compassion
  5. Professional Detachment
  6. Professional Appearance
  7. Interpersonal Skills
  8. Telephone Skills
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3
Q

Programs that train phlebotomists receive ____ or ____ from a professional organization by meeting and documenting established requirements called ____.

A

Accreditation, approval

Standards

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4
Q

What are the specs of the ASCP?

A

They certify phlebotomists and offer CEU’s

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5
Q

What are the specs of the NAACLS?

A

They only accredit or approve training programs. No certification or CEU’s offered.

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6
Q

What are the specs of the NHA?

A

They certify phlebotomists and offer CEU’s

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7
Q

____ is evidence that an individual has demonstrated proficiency in a particular area of practice.

A

Certification

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8
Q

____ are earned from ____ to keep phlebotomists updated on new information regulations, and techniques to help educate on skills not frequently used.

A

Continuing education programs

CEU’s

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9
Q

____ means that a patient must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed.

A

Informed consent

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10
Q

All info regarding a patient’s condition is ____.

A

Confidential medical info

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11
Q

Under ____, medical institutions must have procedures in place to actively protect patients’ protected health information.

A

HIPAA

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12
Q

____ includes any info about the patient’s name, address, contact info, race, health status, treatment, or payment for health care.

A

Protected health info (PHI)

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13
Q

____ provide services at the request of licensed practitioners (including physicians and nurse practitioners) who aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients.

A

Professional services personnel

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14
Q

The ____ analyzes samples from patients at the request of physicians or other licensed health care personnel.

A

Clinical laboratory

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15
Q

The clinical laboratory is divided into two main areas: the ____ and the ____.

A

Anatomical and surgical pathology area

Clinical pathology area

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16
Q

The ____ analyzes the characteristics of cells and tissues.

A

Anatomical and surgical pathology area

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17
Q

The ____ analyzes blood an other body fluids.

A

Clinical pathology area

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18
Q

The phlebotomist works in the ____ of the ____.

A

Clinical pathology area

Clinical laboratory

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19
Q

The ____ dept. prepares tissues from autopsy, surgery, or biopsy for microscopic examination by a pathologist.

A

Histology

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20
Q

The ____ dept. examines chromosomes for evidence of genetic disease, such as Down Syndrome.

A

Cytogenetics

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21
Q

The ____ dept. processes and stains cells that are shed into body fluids or removed from tissue with a needle (aka ____) and examines them for the presence of cancer or other diseases. Most common test performed in this dept. is a ____.

A

Cytology
Aspiration
Pap smear

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22
Q

The ____ or ____ dept. deals with blood used for transfusions.

A

Blood bank

Immunohematology

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23
Q

____ is determined by the presence and type of particular antigens on the surface of RBC.

A

Blood type

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24
Q

Patients can donate their own blood for use later, called ____.

A

Autologous donation

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25
Q

Specimens for the blood bank dept. are drawn in a ____ or a special ____ containing ____. In this dept. strict attention must be paid to ____ and ____, or else a fatal transfusion reaction may occur if either is incorrect.

A

Plain red-top tube (has no additives)
Pink-top tube, EDTA
Patient ID, sample labeling

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26
Q

The ____ dept. performs a range of tests on the chemical components of blood.

A

Chemistry

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27
Q

Chemistry tests may be performed as either ____ or as ____, called ____.

A

Single tests
Groups
Chemistry panels

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28
Q

____ tests use antibodies to detect a range of substances in the blood.

A

Immunochemistry

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29
Q

Chemistry tests are either performed on ____ or ____.

A

Serum

Plasma

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30
Q

____ is collected in a ____ without anticoagulants or in a ____.

A

Serum
Plain red-top tube
SST (Serum Separator Tube)

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31
Q

____ need ____ to ____ for full clot activation, and a ____ needs a minimum of ____.

A

Plain red-top tubes
45, 60 min
SST
30 min

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32
Q

A ____, or a short turnaround time requisition with ____ added to a tube is used if results are needed quickly.

A

Stat

Clot activators

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33
Q

A ____ spins the sample at high speeds to separate components based on density.

A

Centrifuge

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34
Q

____ is normally a clear, pale yellow fluid.

A

Serum

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35
Q

____ can increase the amount of bilirubin in the serum, making it appear a darker yellow, aka ____ serum.

A

Icteric

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36
Q

Recent ingestion of fats or other lipids can make the serum sample cloudy. This is known as ____ serum.

A

Lipemic

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37
Q

____, or the breakage of RBC’s, can give the serum a pink tinge. This is a ____ serum.

A

Hemolysis

Hemolyzed

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38
Q

____ refers to the process by which the body stops blood from leaking out of a wound.

A

Hemostasis

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39
Q

____ depends on the presence of clotting factors and platelets. The tests for this are performed on ____

A

Coagulation

Plasma

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40
Q

____ and ____ are part of the hematology dept.

A

Coagulation

Hemostasis

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41
Q

The most common hematology test is the ____. This automated test includes a ____ determination, ____, ____, ____, and ____, count. It may also include a ____, which determines the kinds of ____ present.

A 
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
Hemoglobin (Hb)
Hematocrit (Hct)
WBC 
RBC
Platelet
WBC differential
WBC
42
Q

____ is a special analytic technique that is used in hematology, immunology, and anatomic pathology. It identifies cellular markers on the surface of WBC’s.

A

Flow cytometry

43
Q

The ____ dept. isolates and identifies pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples and is responsible for ____ in the health care institution.

A

Microbiology

infection control

44
Q

The most common Microbiology tests are ____, which detect and identify microorganisms and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy.

A

Culture and sensitivity tests (C&S)

45
Q

____ testing is used to diagnose genetic disorders, analyze forensic evidence, track disease, and identify microbiological pathogens.

A

Molecular diagnostics

46
Q

The ____ or ____ dept. evaluates the patient’s immune response through the detection of antibodies.

A

Serology

Immunology

47
Q

____ are proteins that help fight infection by binding to surface molecules of the infective agent, called ____.

A

Antibodies

Antigens

48
Q

The ____ or ____ dept. handles and ships specimens for any tests not done by the laboratory.

A

Referrals

Send-outs

49
Q

Many ____ are performed with plastic dipsticks with pads embedded with ____ (test chemicals), that change color indicating results.

A

Urinalysis tests

Reagents

50
Q

Feces may be examined for blood - called ____ blood - as a screen for ____.

A

Occult

Colorectal cancer

51
Q

The clinical laboratory must meet rigorous performance standards to ensure the quality of its procedures and results. Congress passed the ____, which mandated the regulations for all facilities that perform patients testing. Standards and guidelines are set by the ____.

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988 (CLIA ‘88)

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)

52
Q

____ states that laboratories must be inspected and accredited every 2 years.

A

The Joint Commission

53
Q

____ does the accreditation and unannounced inspections every two years, within six months of accreditation renewal date.

A

College of American Pathologists (CAP)

54
Q

In places with their own licensure requirements, ____ require laboratories to participate in proficiency testing and inspections.

A

State agencies

55
Q

____, ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____ (molecules of ____) are all types of pathogens

A 
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungi
Protist
Helminthes
Prions, infectious proteins
56
Q

____ an invasion and growth of a microorganism in the human body that causes disease.

A

Infection

57
Q

Infections contracted by patients during a hospital stay are termed ____.

A

Health care-associated infections (HAI’s)

58
Q

____ are infectious agents carried in the blood, certain body fluids, and unpreserved tissues.

A

Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP)

59
Q

Exposure to blood and thus potentially BBP’s can occur in what 7 ways?

A
  1. Percutaneous injury via needle stick
  2. Contact of mucous membranes (eyes, nose and mouth)
  3. Contact of non-intact skin (injuries) via splashes or contact with contaminated gloves or hands.
  4. Human bite
  5. Contact with contaminated instruments or equipment
  6. Nail biting, smoking, eating, or manipulating contact lenses
  7. Droplet transmission
60
Q

Name two BBP pathogens and their symptoms

A

Babesiosis - carried by ticks, symptoms are much like that of Lyme’s Disease, starts with a high fever and chills. Fatigue, headache, drenching sweats, muscle aches, chest pain, hip pain and shortness of breath.

HTLV I & II (Human T-Cell Lymphotropic Virus I & II) - Symptoms are an inflammation of nerves in the spinal cord that causes stiffness and weakness of the legs, backache, a ‘weak’ bladder and constipation.

61
Q

The ____ requires a continuous link through three primary elements: the ____, the ____, and the ____.

A

Chain of infection
Reservoir
Means of transmission
Susceptible host

62
Q

The ____ is the source of the infection.

A

Reservoir

63
Q

____ is when a patient is a carrier for a disease or infection but shows no symptoms.

A

Asymptomatic

64
Q

____ is when a patient is a carrier for a disease or infection and shows symptoms.

A

Symptomatic

65
Q

The source of an infection may be a contaminated object, or a ____, i.e. equipment or supplies, food, water etc.

A

Fomite

66
Q

Infectious agents can be transmitted in these 5 ways

A
  1. Contact, both direct and indirect
  2. Droplet
  3. Airborne
  4. Common Vehicle
  5. Vector
67
Q

____ is the most frequent and important transmission route for health-care associated infections.

A

Contact transmission

68
Q

____ involves the transfer of microorganisms from an infected or colonized person directly to a susceptible host by physical touch between the source and the susceptible host.

A

Direct contact

69
Q

____ involves touch between a susceptible host and a fomite (equipment, bed rails, dressing, needle etc).

A

Indirect contact

70
Q

____ are particles that generated from the source by coughing, sneezing, sneezing, or talking. This route can also by accessed by infections from ____ or ____ formed by uncapping a blood collection tube or ____ from a syringe to a tube.

A

Droplets
Liquid splashes
Aerosols
Transferring blood

71
Q

____ involves either ____ or dust particles that contain the infectious microorganism.

A

Airborne transmission

Airborne droplet nuclei

72
Q

____ are particles smaller than 5µm that can remain suspended in the air for long periods.

A

Droplet nuclei

73
Q

Bleach solutions for cleaning should be made fresh ____.

A

Once a week

74
Q

Name three examples of microbes spread by airborne transmission

A 
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis)
Rubeola Virus (measles)
Varicella-zoster virus (chicken pox)
75
Q

A _____ is special ventilation and air-handling piece of equipment designed to prevent airborne transmission

A

High-efficiency particulate air filter (HEPA filter)

76
Q

____ involves a common source that causes multiple cases of disease. Caused by fomites. Give two disease examples.

A

Common vehicle transmission
Salmonella
Listeria

77
Q

Some infectious agents are carried by agents such as insects and ticks that are not harmed by their presence, these are called ____. Two disease examples carried this way are ____ and ____.

A

Vectors
Malaria
Rocky Mountain spotted fever

78
Q

The chain of infection is broken by ____.

A

Disrupting the continuous chain from source to host

79
Q

____ is the most important and effective means of preventing the spread of infection and antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.

A

Hand hygiene

80
Q

Transmission is prevented by what three ways?

A

Hand hygiene
Wearing PPE
Using standard precautions practices

81
Q

OSHA requires all facilities to have ____ that describes all the elements for preventing spread of infection.

A

An exposure control plan (ECP)

82
Q

What two things are necessary for hand hygiene?

A

Washing with antimicrobial soap

Rubbing hands with an alcohol-based hand agent

83
Q

You should perform hand hygiene during these times. List 7

A
  1. Before and after patient care
  2. Before donning and after removing gloves
  3. Before procedures
  4. After PPE removal
  5. After using equipment
  6. Before and after break
  7. Before leaving after your shift
84
Q

____ consists of barriers and respirators used alone or in combination to protect skin, mucous membranes, and clothing from contact with infectious agents.

A

Personal protective equipment (PPE)

85
Q

Hands should be washed for a minimum of ____.

A

15 seconds

86
Q

Always activate the ____ before disposing a needle and never ____.

A

Safety device

Recap it

87
Q

____ refer to infection control measures that use barrier protection and work practice controls to prevent contact between skin or mucous membranes and blood, other bloody fluids and tissues from all people.

A

Standard precautions

88
Q

If your gloves become soiled or come in contact with a potentially infectious material you must ____.

A

Remove gloves, perform hand hygiene and put on a new pair

89
Q

____ means the separation of an infection source from susceptible hosts, thereby breaking the chain of infection.

A

Isolation

90
Q

Immnocompromised patients may have their own isolation unit which is called a(n) ____.

A

protective environment

91
Q

____ includes precautions used for all patients in the hospital without regard to their diagnosis or infection status.

A

Tier 1 isolation

92
Q

____ is targeted at patients known to be or suspected of being infected with a highly transmissible pathogen.

A

Tier 2 isolation

93
Q

____ start with ____ and add additional ones based on the potential means of transmission of the suspected or identified disease or condition.

A

Expanded precautions

Standard precautions

94
Q

____ infections are treated with antibiotics, which are the types of medicines normally used to kill bacteria. These infections are more difficult to treat, because fewer antibiotics can kill the bacteria.

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

95
Q

____ is a bacterium that causes infections in different parts of the body. It’s tougher to treat because it’s resistant to some commonly used antibiotics.

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

96
Q

____ is used as a general metabolic screen and tests for these 5 things.

A

Basic Metabolic Test (BMP)

  1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
  2. Calcium
  3. Creatinine
  4. Electrolytes
  5. Glucose
97
Q

An aPTT test monitors ____ and ____.

A

Heparin therapy

Coagulation factor deficiency

98
Q

Airborne precautions include____. List 3

Give 3 examples of diseases requiring airborne precautions

A
  1. Patient in a special air handling and ventilation room
  2. Anyone entering room performs hand hygiene
  3. An N95 respirator must be worn and have a fit check performed

Measles, chicken pox, tuberculosis

99
Q

Droplet precautions include ____. List 2

Give 4 examples of diseases requiring droplet precautions

A
  1. Perform hand hygiene
  2. Wear mask when 3 feet from patient donned before entering

Pneumonic plague, diphtheria (bacterial)
Influenza, mumps (viral)

100
Q

Contact precautions include ____. List 3

Give 3 examples of diseases requiring contact precautions.

A
  1. Perform hand hygiene
  2. Donning gloves
  3. Wearing a gown

Scabies, Impetigo, Herpes simplex virus

101
Q

Mask or respirator should be removed ____.

A

Outside of the patient’s room

102
Q

The purpose of a PE for a highly immunosuppressed patients is to ____.

A

Prevent transmission of infection to the patient

Phlebotomy (6 decks)

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