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CompTIA 901 > 1st 901 Hardware Study Guide > Flashcards

1st 901 Hardware Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Where can you find information about your current version of BIOS?

A
  • system info utility

- typing “msinfo32” in cmd prompt

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2
Q

What is the procedure for updating or upgrading a BIOS called?

A
  • Flashing the BIOS
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3
Q

The _____ tells the BIOS where to look to load the operating system.

A
  • boot sequence
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4
Q

How can you secure access to the BIOS?

A
  • By adding passwords
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5
Q

What BIOS security measure offers tracking, remote shutdown, and keylogger functionality?

A
  • Lojack
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6
Q

The ____ is another BIOS security measure that can encrypt the contents of a storage device, or harden the encryption of BitLocker and SecureBoot.

A
  • Trusted Platform Module
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7
Q

What is the most common motherboard in today’s desktops?

A
  • The ATX aka Advanced Technology Extended
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8
Q

____ is a little bit smaller than the ATX and does not have as much expansion ability.

A
  • The micro-ATX
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9
Q

____ is a significantly smaller form factor board and was created by VIA Technologies.

A
  • The ITX
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10
Q

_____ is the largest of the three ITX form factors, with a size of 6.7 by 6.7 inches. It is also the most popular.

A
  • The Mini-ITX
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11
Q

_____ was introduced by Intel in the 1990s. It replaced older 8- and 16-bit expansion slots with a 32-bit slot.

A
  • The PCI or Peripheral Component Interconnect
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12
Q

____ incorporates a 64-bit data bus that was considerably faster than PCI slots, but because of the bus, it was difficult to incorporate onto the motherboard.

A
  • PCI-X (Extended)
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13
Q

_____ is the newest expansion slot being used in modern computers. It sends data over a serial stream at higher speeds than conventional PCI slots.

A
  • PCIe (Express)
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14
Q

What are the serial streams of a PCIe expansion slot referred to as?

A
  • Lanes
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15
Q

The ____ slots were those modified to be applied to laptops. They use low power and lie flat.

A
  • Mini-PCI
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16
Q

What type of RAM slot is used in desktops?

A
  • DIMM (dual inline memory module)
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17
Q

What type of RAM slot is used in laptops?

A
  • SO-DIMM (Small Outline)
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18
Q

What type of RAM slot is used in smaller mobile devices?

A
  • Micro-DIMM
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19
Q

The _____ interfaces directly with the CPU through the front-side bus, handles high-speed connections to memory and videos as well as creating the connection to the Southbridge.

A
  • Northbridge
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20
Q

The ____ handles I/O functions and all other slower devices such as the hard drive, PCI bus, and Audio.

A
  • Southbridge
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21
Q

The ____ is used to power the system’s real-time clock.

A
  • The CMOS battery
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22
Q

List four common power connector types.

A
  • SATA
  • Molex
  • ATX
  • EPS
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23
Q

Most fans will connect with ____ on the motherboard.

A
  • 3- or 4-pin Molex connector
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24
Q

_____ indicates how fast all of the components on your motherboard are able to communicate with each each other.

A
  • Bus Speed
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25
Q

_____ is the industry standard for RAM; 184-pin DIMM, and 200- or 172-pin SO-DIMM.

A

DDR (Double Data Rate)

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26
Q

_____ is faster than DDR and has less power consumption; comes in 240-pin DIMM and 240-pin SO-DIMM.

A
  • DDR2
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27
Q

_____ is faster than DDR2 and consumes 30% less power; it comes in 240-pin DIMM AND 204-pin SO-DIMM.

A
  • DDR3
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28
Q

is a RAM form factor found commonly in laptops; it comes in 100-, 144-, 200-, 204-, and 260-pin.

A
  • SO-DIMM
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29
Q

_____ is configured in either 168- or 184-pins; both sides of the chip are used to provide connection to the socket.

A
  • DIMM
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30
Q

____ refers to the RAM chip’s ability to identify errors within the memory.

A
  • Parity vs Non-Parity
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31
Q

_____ refers to using multiple identical sticks of RAM in paired slots, which increases the memory throughput.

A
  • RAM configurations (single/double/triple channel)
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32
Q

______ refers to position of the memory chips on the memory module.

A

Single sided vs Double sided

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33
Q

____ also known as “registered” memory; buffers between the memory and the controller; used on high tier systems.

A
  • Buffered Memory
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34
Q

Check your _____ to find out which types of RAM are compatible with your system.

A
  • Motherboard Documentation
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35
Q

_____ add additional functionality to your PC.

A
  • Expansion Cards
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36
Q

_____ a read only memory Optical drive. It can store up to 700 MB of data per disk.

A

CD-ROM

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37
Q

_____ is an optical storage device like a CD-ROM, except the disk can be rewritten multiple times.

A

CD-RW

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38
Q

____ is a read only memory Optical Drive. It’s disk can store up to 4.7 GB of data.

A

DVD-ROM

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39
Q

____ is an optical storage device like a DVD-ROM, except the disk can be rewritten multiple times.

A

DVD-RW

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40
Q

_____ a dual-layer version of a DVD-RW. Its capacity is almost doubled at 8.5 GB per disk.

A

DVD-RW DL

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41
Q

_____ is a newer optical storage format, the disk can store up to 25GB of data.

A

Blu-ray

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42
Q

____ is a Blu-ray recordable format, it allows you to write data to the disk.

A

BD-R

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43
Q

____ is a Blu-ray recordable/erasable format that allows you to write data to the disk more than once.

A

BD-RE

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44
Q

_____ can be inserted or removed in real time, while the system is still powered on. A USB is a common type of this drive.

A

A Hot Swappable Drive

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45
Q

_____ is the largest in physical size of the card type memory hardware.

A

Compact Flash

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46
Q

______ or Secure Digital is a form of flash that is very popular today.

A

SD

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47
Q

_____ is a flash type memory card that is used in small mobile devices and can be inserted into MiniSD cards for modularity or multipurpose use

A

Micro SD

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48
Q

____ a flash type card that is used in small mobile devices similar to the Micro SD.

A

Mini SD

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49
Q

_____ is a flash card type typically found in older digital cameras.

A

an xD card

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50
Q

_____ is an alternative to a standard hard disk drive; far superior, in that it is a form of flash memory.

A

An SSD

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51
Q

_____ is a drive that combines a traditional hard drive with a solid state drive; the SSD is typically there just to make cacheing data easier; its more cost effective than a full SSD.

A

A Hybrid or a Solid-State Hybrid drive

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52
Q

____ is a flash memory type chip installed in mobile phones.

A

eMMC

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53
Q

____ is a RAID type that offers stripping of data only; it requires 2 drives; it offers no redundancy but good performance.

A

RAID 0

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54
Q

____ is a RAID type that offers mirroring of data only; requires at least 2 drives; requires more storage space to store full copies of data.

A

RAID 1

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55
Q

____ is a RAID type that offers stripping with parity; it requires at least 3 drives; it has the ability to calculate missing data and rebuild it; parity calculation may slow the system.

A

RAID 5

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56
Q

_____ is a RAID type that offers both stripping and mirroring for improved performance and full redundancy; it requires at least 4 drives.

A

RAID 10

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57
Q

A ______ is good for archiving data over extended periods of time at a low cost.

A

Tape Drive

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58
Q

The _____ functions as the brain of the computer; it comes in many different formats.

A

CPU

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59
Q

_____ is the unit of measurement for CPU speed in most modern processors.

A

Gigahertz

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60
Q

A ______ is extremely fast memory found near the core of a processor that enables the CPU to process a larger amount of information; its effectiveness depends on its size.

A

Cache

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61
Q

____ allows you to increase your CPU, typically gaining a 15-30% performance increase.

A

Hyperthreading

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62
Q

_____ allows for graphics processing to be directly embedded with the CPU.

A

An integrated GPU

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63
Q

The _____ allows for hardening of the CPU by segmenting areas where code is needed to run and, for protection, disallowing it to run anywhere else.

A

Non-eXecute Bit

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64
Q

_____ are positioned on top of components that get really hot.

A

Heat Sinks

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65
Q

_____ are attached to the top of heatsinks to create what is referred to as a cooler.

A

Fans

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66
Q

____ is a heat-conductive substance that is applied between the surface of the CPU and the bottom of the heat sink.

A

Thermal Paste

67
Q

______ uses liquid piped to devices such as the CPU, Northbridge, ect…. to cool the device.

A

Liquid cooling

68
Q

Fanless devices use ______ with heat sinks only. Typically these devices use minimal power.

A

Passive cooling

69
Q

____ was the first widely used version of USB; low speed of 1.5 Mbps and full speed of 12 Mbps.

A

USB 1.1

70
Q

_____ a version of USB with a speed is 480 Mbps; max cable length of 5 meters.

A

USB 2.0

71
Q

______ a type of USB with a speed of 5 Gbps; known as Superspeed USB; maximum cable length of 3 meters.

A

USB 3.0

72
Q

____ is a USB connector that attaches to a computer.

A

USB “A type” connector

73
Q

_____ is a USB connector that attaches to a peripheral, such as a printer.

A

USB “B type” connector

74
Q

____ and _____ are USB connectors that attach smaller mobile devices such as cell phones or tablets.

A

Mini and micro

75
Q

_____ is a standard popularized by Apple; comes in speeds of 100, 200, or 400 Mbps.

A

IEEE 1394a

aka

Firewire 400

76
Q

____ is a standard like the IEEE 1394a, its called “Beta Mode”, and it has a maximum speed of 800 Mbps

A

IEEE 1394b

aka

Firewire 800

77
Q

SATA1 has a maximum speed of _____; a maximum cable length of _____

A

1.5 Gbps

1 meter

78
Q

SATA2 maximum speed of ______; maximum length of ______.

A

3 Gbps

1 meter

79
Q

SATA3 maximum speed of ______; maximum length of ______.

A

6 Gbps

1 meter

80
Q

eSATA is an external SATA connection its maximum speed is ______ and it has a maximum length of _____.

A

the same as the SATA version being used

2 meters

81
Q

____ is a 15-pin blue connector used for videos; it sends analog signals.

A

VGA

aka

Female DB-15

82
Q

_____ is a digital connector that can send both audio and video

A

HDMI

83
Q

_____ is a connector capable of sending both analog or digital and supports single/dual links.

A

DVI

84
Q

_____ is a connector used for analog audio connections.

A

TRS

Tip Ring Sleeve

85
Q

____ is a connector used for digital audio connections.

A

TOSLINK

86
Q

_____ is a four-pin network cable used for ethernet application.

A

RJ-45

87
Q

_____ is a two-pair cable, typically used for phone lines and analog connections.

A

RJ-11

88
Q

_____ is a high-speed serial connection; sends data and power on the same cable.

A

Thunderbolt

89
Q

_____ is a wireless connection for industrial use. It has a maximum range of 100 meters.

A

Bluetooth class 1

90
Q

____ is a wireless connection for mobile use. It has a max distance of 10 meters.

A

Bluetooth class 2

91
Q

______ is a wireless connection for special usage. It has a max distance of 1 meter.

A

Bluetooth class 3

92
Q

_____ is encompassed into the 802.11 standards for wireless communications. It operates at varying frequency levels.

A

RF

93
Q

_____ is a short range wireless technology. Its speeds are 106, 212, or 424 Kbps, and its max distance is around 10 centimeters.

A

NFC

94
Q

_____ are typically lower frequency audio signals. They are prone to interference (noise) that distorts the signal.

A

Analog Signals

95
Q

_____ are sent using a binary signal of zeros and ones. They have the advantage of being able to eliminate noise. They can easily be compressed, and they use less storage.

A

Digital signals

96
Q

_____ deals with how much information you can send through the communication medium at a given time. Its typically measured in bytes or bits, depending on the technology.

A

Transfer speed

97
Q

Transfer Speed is commonly called _____.

A

Throughput

98
Q

When choosing connection characteristics _____ is the ability to faithfully reproduce a signal, typically an attribute of voice communication.

A

Quality

99
Q

_______ is the number of samples of audio carried per second. It should be considered when determining Quality.

A

Sample Rate

100
Q

(True/False) Lower frequency transmissions have the advantage of range over higher frequencies.

A

True

101
Q

(True/False) Higher frequency transmissions have the advantage of greater bandwidth.

A

True

102
Q

_____ connectors can provide 3.3V, 5V and 12V for general specifications.

A

Molex

103
Q

_____ connectors are called ATX 12V or EPS 12V.

A

4/8-pin 12V

104
Q

The _____ connector provides 12V as 75 watts through 6 pins or 150 watts through 8 pins.

A

PCIe 6/8-pin

105
Q

The _____ is likely the largest power connector for your computer; it provides 3.3V 5V or 12V specifications.

A

20-pin : 20/24-pin connector

106
Q

The ______ is designed to be backwards compatible with the 20-pin connector; it provides 3.3V, 5V or 12V specifications.

A

24-pin connector

107
Q

______ is a power rating like horsepower. It is the ability to do work. It is the product of current multiplied by voltage.

A

Wattage

108
Q

The _____ specification indicates the power supply has two 12V rails inside it for connections on independent circuits.

A

Dual rail

109
Q

A ______ is able to switch between 100V and 240V either manually or automatically.

A

Dual voltage power supply

110
Q

When building a Graphic/CAD/CAM workstation what components should be considered a priority?

A

Multicore processor
High End Video Card
Maximum RAM

111
Q

What components should be prioritized when building an Audio/Video editing workstation?

A

HighEnd Audio Card
HighEnd Video Card
A Large/Fast Hard drive
Dual Monitors

112
Q

What components are recommended for a Virtualization Machine?

A

Maximum RAM

Multicore CPU

113
Q

What components should be prioritized for a gaming PC?

A

Multicore CPU
HighEnd Video Card
HighEnd Audio Card
HighEnd Cooling

114
Q

What components are recommended for a home theater PC?

A

Surround Sound Audio
HDMI output
HTPC compact form
TV tuner

115
Q

What components are recommended for a Standard Thick Client?

A

Desktop Applications

OS requirements

116
Q

What components are recommended for a Thin Client PC?

A

Basic Applications
OS requirements
Network Connection

117
Q

What components are recommended for a Home Server?

A 
Media Streaming
File Sharing
Print Sharing
Gigabit NIC
RAID array
118
Q

_____ is a display device technology where light shines through liquid crystals to create images; it uses a colored filter.

A

An LCD

119
Q

____ or Twisted Nematic LCD; has fast response times.

A

LCD TN

120
Q

_____ is an In Plane Switching LCD; good for mobile devices; its more expensive than other LCDs.

A

LCD IPS

121
Q

_____ is an older display device technology; it uses more power than a LED backlighting LCD.

A

LCD fluorescent backlighting

122
Q

_____ is a modern display device technology; its useful in complex lighting designs

A

LED backlighting

123
Q

_____ is an older display device technology that uses extremely bright lamps to project images onto a wall; it commonly uses LCD technology; replacement bulbs are expensive.

A

A projector

124
Q

_____ is a display device technology that uses organic diode material to create the display; it doesn’t use a backlight.

A

OLED (Organic LED)

125
Q

_____ refers to how many times a screen can be updated in a second.

A

Refresh rate

Or

Frame rate

126
Q

______ refers to the number of pixels that can be used on the display; aka aspect ratio.

A

Resolution

127
Q

______ happens when the number of pixels match up as intended for the resolution or aspect ratio; manually setting to an odd resolution can result in distortion.

A

Native Resolution

128
Q

______ the amount of light given off that we can detect; depends on the size of the room and the amount of light in the area.

A

Brightness/lumens

129
Q

_____ is sent as a continuos signal and can appear distorted; _____ is simply a numerical value.

A

Analog

Digital

130
Q

_____ makes a display only viewable only when you are right in front of it.

A

A privacy filter

131
Q

_____ reduces the glare coming off a bright screen.

A

Antiglare filter

132
Q

_____ improves the efficiency when working on a computer; common for business environments.

A

Multiple displays

133
Q

______ 1920 pixels width by 1200 height.

A

16:10 ratio

134
Q

______ 1600 pixels width by 1200 height.

A

4:3 ratio

135
Q

_____ allows printers to use both sides of the paper for printing.

A

Duplex Printing

136
Q

_____ allow you to print multiple copies of information and have the printer send these copies out in the correct order.

A

Collate Settings

137
Q

_____ refers to printing in a landscape fashion verses a portrait fashion.

A

Orientation settings

138
Q

When considering printers _____ can refer to printing in color verses black and white, or simply adjusting resolution settings.

A

Quality

139
Q

Printers usually connect to a computer _____.

A

Via USB

140
Q

Older printer models may connect via a serial connection, utilizing a _____.

A

DB-25 connector

141
Q

Windows devices will allow access to a ______ port number that is mapped to the printer.

A

TCP

142
Q

Apple devices will use a different protocol to print, commonly called ______.

A

Bonjour

143
Q

Most Apple mobile devices will use _____ protocol.

A

Airprint

144
Q

______ is a rotating drum that the laser beams the image onto; it also picks up toner.

A

Imaging drum

145
Q

_____ applies pressure and heat to allow the toner to bond with the paper.

A

Fuser assembly

146
Q

_____ works in tandem with the roller to transfer the image onto the paper.

A

Transfer belt

147
Q

_____ works in tandem with the belt to assist with moving the paper along the transfer process.

A

Transfer roller

148
Q

_____ moves paper throughout the printer.

A

Pickup rollers

149
Q

_____ pulls single sheets of paper into the printer.

A

Separate pads

150
Q

_____ allows printing on both sides of the paper; flips over the paper inside of the printer.

A

Duplex assembly

151
Q

____ processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing and cleaning.

A

The imaging process

152
Q

_____ is an inkjet part that stores ink used for printing.

A

Ink cartridge

153
Q

_____ is an inkjet part that is often integrated with the ink cartridge.

A

Printhead

154
Q

_____ is an inkjet part that pulls paper throughout the printer.

A

Roller

155
Q

______ is an inkjet part that brings paper into the printer to start a print job.

A

Feeder

156
Q

_____ is an inkjet part that allows printing on both sides of the paper by flipping paper over during the printing process.

A

Duplexing assembly

157
Q

_____ Is an inkjet part that allows print heads to move back and forth, printing to paper.

A

Carriage and belt

158
Q

_____ is a process that aligns the printhead nozzles with the paper to ensure print jobs are optimal.

A

Calibration

159
Q

_____ is a type of printer that only needs heat to complete a print job.

A

Thermal printer

160
Q

_____ is a special kind of paper that is required to print with a thermal printer. This paper is covered with a special chemical that reacts to heat.

A

Thermal paper

161
Q

The _____ or _____ printer creates output by pushing a pin through a ribbon several times. It is used when printing numerous copies or when using thick paper.

A

Impact

Dot Matrix

162
Q

_____ is a dot matrix printer part that contains the pins used to punch through the ribbon onto the paper.

A

Printhead

163
Q

_____ is a dot matrix printer part that holds the ink needed to make the print impressions.

A

Ribbon

CompTIA 901 (4 decks)

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