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[MT 6321] Histopathology Lecture > [1S] UNIT 2 The Post-Mortem Examination (Autopsy) > Flashcards

[1S] UNIT 2 The Post-Mortem Examination (Autopsy) Flashcards

1
Q

Considered the ultimate medical audit, an _______ can be categorized by five different rulings for manner of death: natural (sickness, disease), accident, homicide (death due to another person), suicide (putting oseself to death), or undetermined

A

Autopsy / Post-Mortem Examination

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2
Q

T/F: In a case where suspicious circumstances surround the death, a medical examiner or coroner can order an autopsy without consent from next of kin

A

T

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2
Q

T/F: Not everyone receives an autopsy upon death

A

T

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2
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

The first recorded autopsy occurs when Antistius examines _______ _______’s body after his assassination, determining which of the 23 stab wounds proved fatal.

A

Julius Caesar

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3
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

T/F: It was one wound to the chest that ruptured Caesar’s aorta

A

T

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3
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

The assassination of Julius Caesar was the result of a conspiracy by approximately 60 Roman senators who called themselves ________.

A

Liberators

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4
Q
A
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5
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

They led the Liberators and stabbed Julius Caesar to death in a location adjacent to the Theatre of Pompey on the Ides of March (March 15), 44 BC.

A

Gaius Cassius Longinus and Marcus Junius Brutus

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6
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

He was the dictator of the Roman Republic at the time, having recently been declared dictator perpetuo by the Senate.

A

Julius Caesar

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7
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

An 1806 painting by Vincenzo Camuccini, originally commissioned in 1793 by Frederick Hervey, 4th Earl of Bristol, for
whom he had already produced a copy of Raphael’s Deposition

A

La mort de Cèsar or The Death of Julius Caesar

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8
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

In 1247, he wrote “Hsi Yüan Lu, or The Washing Away of Wrongs,” an instruction manual on how to conduct medico-legal investigations, examine corpses, and determine the time and cause of death. Other forward-thinking forensic issues were illustrated, such as poisoning, decomposition, wounds from various weapons, strangulation, and fake wounds.

A

Song Ci

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9
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

The manual contained details on how a human cadaver looks like

A

Hsi Yüan Lu, or The Washing Away of Wrongs

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10
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS (1302)

The investigation was requested by a magistrate in _______. Before the advent of the microscope, his observations were limited by the power of the human eye and his tools.

A

Bologna

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10
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS (1302)

Influenced by The Washing Away of Wrongs, ____________ ___ _________conducted the first-known legal autopsy where the death was investigated explicitly to determine if there was fault (what is referred to as a medico-legal autopsy)

A

Bartolomeo da Varignana

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11
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

T/F: Throughout the Renaissance, anatomy teachers and students in medical schools performed dissections themselves. They would congregate in an operating theater and watch as a cadaver was opened by a “lay dissector.”

A

F; did not perform

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12
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

Performed a number of “autopsies,”
dissecting corpses and observing the anatomy unseen by the naked eye.

A

Leonardo da Vinci and Michelangelo

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13
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

The father of modern pathology, he realized the importance of the microscope when conducting pathological research to uncover minute details.

A

Rudolf Virchow

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14
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: Wherever Scientific medicine of high quality is practiced, postmortem examinations are performed.

A

T

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15
Q

HISTORY OF POSTMORTEM EXAMINATIONS

Through his examinations, he characterized a case of leukemia, and his resulting report is one of the earliest
formal reports on this cancer.

A

Rudolf Virchow

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16
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: Whenever a conscientious physician knows why he “lost” his patient, a post mortem examination has been performed

A

T

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17
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

A physician who wants answers

A

Conscientious Physician

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17
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: Whenever criminal law is enforced

A

T

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18
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: Whenever a death certificate shows accurately the causes of death and confirmed medical diagnosis for the assembling of vital statistics a postmortem has been performed

A

T

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19
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: Whenever there is medical research on the causes and nature of diseases such as cancer, heart disease, and stroke, infectious diseases, neurodegenerative diseases, and transplantation medicine, the investigative method is the postmortem examination

A

T

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20
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: There is no need to perform an autopsy when criminal law is enforced

A

F; need to perform

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21
Q

WHY POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION? (PME)

T/F: An informed society requires a postmortem examination in human
death for the good of medical science,
for the public’s health and for the future care of the living patient.

A

T

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21
Q

PREPARATIONS BEFORE THE POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION

● This is the most important step in the autopsy procedure
● Identifiers on the body must be confirmed and matched with the autopsy consent form
● Also confirm any limitations or restrictions to the autopsy at this time

A

Step 3: Confirmation of Decedent Identity

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22
Q

PREPARATIONS BEFORE THE POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION

● Obtain and confirm consent for autopsy
● Obtain and review clinical records
● Contact clinical team and staff pathologist

A

Step 1: Administrative Preparations

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22
Q

PREPARATIONS BEFORE THE POSTMORTEM EXAMINATION

● Set up of dissection instruments and tools
● Lay out swabs, media, etc. for any ancillary studies to be performed
● Prepare photographic equipment
● Assemble personal protective equipment

A

Step 2: Preparation of the Autopsy Room

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23
Q

4 Preliminaries for Post-Mortem Exam

A
  1. Written consent from the next of kin-abide by the extent or restrictions allowed
  2. Death certificate (blue /pink white forms)
  3. Medical abstract / Clinical data
  4. Medicolegal clearance
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23
Q

Consent for Autopsy (in order)

A
  1. Spouse
  2. Adult Children
  3. Adult grandchildren
  4. Parent
  5. Brother/Sister
  6. Nephew
  7. Grandparent Uncle/Aunt
  8. Cousin
  9. Stepchildren
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24
Q

PREPARING FOR THE AUTOPSY

T/F: If autopsy is not required by law, it can be done without permission

A

F; If autopsy is not required by law, it cannot be done until the next of kin gives permission

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25
Q

THREE LEVELS OF PME

In which all body cavities are examined (including the head / brain)

A

Complete

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25
Q

PREPARING FOR THE AUTOPSY

T/F: Consent form must be signed in the presence of a witness or a third party

A

T

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26
Q

THREE LEVELS OF PME

Which may exclude the head / brain

A

Limited (Partial)

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26
Q

THREE LEVELS OF PME

Where specific organs only are examined usually (focused on 1 part only)

A

Selective

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27
Q

PME is permitted without consent in the following circumstance

T/F: When it is ordered by the police or coroner

A

T

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28
Q

PME is permitted without consent in the following circumstance

T/F: When it is necessary to complete the death certificate

A

T

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29
Q

PME is permitted without consent in the following circumstance

T/F: When the deceased himself has given consent before he died (advanced directive)

A

T

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30
Q

Autopsy that is ordered by the state coroner

A

Coronial autopsies

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30
Q

T/F: An autopsy can be hospital-based (non-coronial) or coronial

A

T

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31
Q

PME is permitted without consent in the following circumstance

T/F: Deceased military personnel who dies in active duty/training in the military service

A

T

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32
Q

An autopsy is usually carried out within ___ hrs after the death of a person

A

48 hrs

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33
Q

Autopsy that may be performed at the request of the family of the deceased

A

Hospital-based autopsy

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34
Q

AUTOPSY: Selective, partial, complete

A

Extent

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35
Q

AUTOPSY: Gross findings (provisional anatomic diagnosis)

A

Death certificate

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36
Q

AUTOPSY: Forensic

A

Medico legal

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37
Q

AUTOPSY: Gross and microscopic findings (Final Anatomic diagnosis)

A

Final diagnosis

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38
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Deaths in which autopsy may help to explain unknown and unanticipated medical complications to the attending physician.

A

T

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39
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: All deaths in which the cause of death or a major diagnosis is known with reasonable certainty on clinical grounds.

A

F; not known

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40
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Cases in which autopsy may help to allay concerns of the family and/or the public regarding the death, and to provide
reassurance to them regarding the same.

A

T

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41
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Unexpected or unexplained deaths occurring during or following any dental, medical or surgical diagnostic procedures and/or therapies.

A

T

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42
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Deaths of patients who have participated in clinical trials (protocols) without approval from the institutional review boards.

A

F; approved by institutional review boards.

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43
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Unexpected or unexplained deaths which are apparently natural and not subject to a forensic medical jurisdiction.

A

T

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44
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Natural deaths which are subject to, but waived by, a forensic medical jurisdiction such as (a) persons dead on arrival at hospitals (b) deaths occurring in hospitals within 24 hours of admission, and (c) deaths in which the patient sustained or apparently sustained an injury while hospitalized.

A

T

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45
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Deaths resulting from low-risk infectious and contagious diseases.

A

F; high-risk

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46
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Deaths known or suspected to have resulted from environmental or occupational hazards.

A

T

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46
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: All obstetric, perinatal and pediatric deaths.

A

T

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47
Q

CRITERIA FOR AUTOPSIES

T/F: Deaths at any age in which it is believed that autopsy would disclose a known or suspected illness which also
may have a bearing on survivors or recipients of transplant organs.

A

T

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48
Q

Has jurisdiction in medicolegal cases, and may authorize the pathologist to proceed with an autopsy.

A

medicolegal examiner or the coroner

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49
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All natural deaths occurring in the hospital within 48 hrs of admission, unless the case was attended by a private physician within 36 hours of death

A

F; within 24 hrs of admission

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50
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: Newborns in the first 24 hrs of life

A

T

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51
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All deaths due to known cases

A

F; unknown

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51
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All injury cases, old or recent

A

T

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52
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All deaths due to suspicious cases

A

T

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53
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All abortion cases, whether self induced or otherwise

A

T

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54
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All cases without medical attendance within 72 hours prior to the hour of death

A

F; 36 hrs

54
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All violent, accidental, and sudden deaths

A

T

55
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All deaths due to drowning, hanging or
strangulation

A

T

56
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All deaths due to shooting, stab wounds, burns, electricity, lightning, tetanus, etc.

A

T

57
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All homicides & suicides

A

T

58
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: All cases in which there is suspicion of
poisoning

A

T

59
Q

JURISDICTION OF THE MEDICO-LEGAL AUTOPSY

T/F: Stillborns & Prematures

A

T

60
Q

Criteria for the pronouncement of death

A

Somatic Death

60
Q
  • Death of an organism
  • Cessation of circulation and respiration (1960s)
A

Somatic Death

61
Q

CRITERIA FOR PRONOUNCEMENT DEATH

T/F: Redefinition from cessation to reversible cessation of cardiorespiratory functions after resuscitation attempts

A

F; irreversible

61
Q

CRITERIA FOR PRONOUNCEMENT DEATH

T/F: Advances in resuscitation techniques that are capable of reviving effectively cases of clinical death

A
62
Q

CRITERIA FOR PRONOUNCEMENT DEATH

T/F: Advanced life-sustaining equipment capable of maintaining cardiovascular and respiratory functions despite severe brain injury

A

T

63
Q

CRITERIA FOR BRAIN DEATH

T/F: Present cephalic (brainstem) reflexes

A

F; absent

63
Q

CRITERIA FOR PRONOUNCEMENT DEATH

T/F: Brain Death - National Institute of Neurological Diseases and Stroke in the United States (1977)

A

T

64
Q

CRITERIA FOR BRAIN DEATH

T/F: Coma and Cerebral unresponsiveness

A

T

64
Q

CRITERIA FOR BRAIN DEATH

T/F: Dyspnea

A

F; Apnea

65
Q

CRITERIA FOR BRAIN DEATH

T/F: Electrocerebral silence

A

T

65
Q

T/F: Criteria for brain death should be present for 30 minutes at least 6 hour after onset of coma and apnea

A

T

66
Q

AMERICAN BAR ASSOCIATION AND THE NATIONAL CONFERENCE OF COMMISSIONERS OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS LEGISLATIVE DEFINITION OF DEATH: (1980)

T/F: Irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem is dead

A

T

66
Q

AMERICAN BAR ASSOCIATION AND THE NATIONAL CONFERENCE OF COMMISSIONERS OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS LEGISLATIVE DEFINITION OF DEATH: (1980)

T/F: Reversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions

A

F; irreversible

67
Q

Somatic Death by the American Academy of Neurology

A
  1. Coma
  2. Absence of motor response, pupillary response to light and pupils at mid-position, corneal reflexes, gag reflex, coughing in response to tracheal suctioning, sucking & rooting reflexes
67
Q

Medical Certification of Death

A
  1. Immediate cause of Death
  2. Antecedent cause of Death
  3. Underlying cause of Death
68
Q

As amended by Republic Act No. 7885, organ and tissue donations from donors who have been declared brain dead have been allowed.

A

Republic Act 7170 or Organ Donation Act of 1991

69
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

Is the final disease, injury, or complication directly causing death

A

Immediate Cause of Death

70
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

In the case of sudden or traumatic death, the violent act or accident is the antecedent to an injury entered, although these two events are often almost simultaneous.

A

Immediate Cause of Death

70
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

It precedes death as a consequence of an underlying cause or causes.

A

Immediate Cause of Death

70
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

Other intervening cause (or causes) of death occurring between the underlying
and immediate causes is called the antecedent cause.

A

Antecedent Cause of Death

71
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

The condition(s) that led to or precipitated the immediate cause of death, as
recorded on a death certificate.

A

Antecedent Cause of Death

72
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

Defined for public health and legal purposes as “the disease or injury that initiated the train of events leading to death.”

A

Underlying (proximate) cause of death

73
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

Or the circumstances of the accident or violence which produced the fatal injury

A

Underlying (proximate) cause of death

74
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

Without an underlying cause, the death would not have happened

A

Underlying (proximate) cause of death

74
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

coronary arterial atherosclerosis

A

Underlying COD

74
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH

It is the most important entry in the certificate since mortality statistics is based on this underlying cause. All certification of death must include an underlying cause.

A

Underlying (proximate) cause of death

74
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH EXAMPLE

Congestive heart failure

A

Immediate COD

74
Q

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION OF DEATH EXAMPLE

Myocardial Ischaemia caused by coronary
artery disease

A

Antecedent COD

75
Q

DESCRIPTIONS OF VARIOUS MANNERS OF DEATH

Death resulting from disease

A

Natural

76
Q

DESCRIPTIONS OF VARIOUS MANNERS OF DEATH

Death as a result of environmental influence

A

Accidental

76
Q

DESCRIPTIONS OF VARIOUS MANNERS OF DEATH

Death intentionally self-inflicted

A

Suicide

77
Q

DESCRIPTIONS OF VARIOUS MANNERS OF DEATH

Death resulting from the deliberate action of another person

A

Homicide

78
Q

DESCRIPTIONS OF VARIOUS MANNERS OF DEATH

Unknown cause

A

Indeterminate or Undetermined

79
Q

Can be used to determine the approximate time of death of the patient

A

Post-Mortem Changes

79
Q

These changes include livor mortis, rigor mortis, decomposition and taphonomy (processes that would occur on a deceased body until it fossilizes).

A

Post-Mortem Changes

79
Q

Refers to a continuum of changes that occur in a dead body following death

A

Post-Mortem Changes

80
Q

Decomposition of the body

A

Post-Mortem Changes

81
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

● First demonstrate change after death is cooling of the body
● No drastic change
● Decrease in temperature per hour

A

Algor Mortis

82
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Means temperature

A

Algor

83
Q

ALGOR MORTIS

T/F: As a rule the body cools at 1.5°F/hr (50% of cases)

A

T

83
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

At room temp, the body cools down at 2°F/hr to 2.5°F/hr for the 1st hour

A

Algor Mortis

83
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

T/F: Algor mortis is a reliable indicator as to the time of death

A

F; not reliable

83
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

At room temp, the body cools down at 1.5°F/hr to 2°F/hr in the next 12 hours

A

Algor Mortis

83
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

At room temp, the body cools down at 1°F/hr in the next 12 to18 hours

A

Algor Mortis

84
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Rigidity of the body due to hardening of the skeletal muscles caused by a series of physiochemical events after death

A

Rigor Mortis

85
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Lack of ATP regeneration and increased acidity result in the formation of locking-chemical bridges between actin & myosin

A

Rigor Mortis

86
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Due to depletion of ATP and accumulation of lactic acid (lactic acidosis); in a dead body, the glycogen stores are rapidly depleted, preventing the energy dependent breakage of sarcomere contraction

A

Rigor Mortis

87
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

This interlocking is fixed and produces rigor mortis without shortening of the muscle

A

Rigor Mortis

87
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Sets within 2 hrs after death (head & neck) initially notable in the small muscles (i.e. head region – jaw) followed by larger muscle groups (i.e. legs) (Forensic Sci Int 1978; 12:97)

A

Rigor Mortis

88
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Blood supply gravitates to the skin vessels which becomes toneless and dilate
after circulation ceases. Evident as deep purple-red discoloration in the skin
and internal organs

A

Livor Mortis or Postmortem (Lividity) Hypostasis

88
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Fixed rigor mortis of the upper extremities wherein the arms are suspended against gravity indicating they were previously held in that position while rigor was fixing.

A

Antigravitational rigor mortis

88
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES: LIVOR MORTIS

Occurs in gravity dependent areas of the body that come into contact with firm surfaces (i.e. floor, tight clothing); livor mortis is spared in these areas due to localized pressure preventing blood from entering the skin

A

Blanching

88
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES: RIGOR MORTIS

● Complete and fully fixed after approx. _____ hours
● Dissipates after approximately ____ hours

A

6-12
36-48

89
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Becomes evident as early as 20 min after death

A

Livor Mortis or Postmortem (Lividity) Hypostasis

90
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES: LIVOR MORTIS

Fully evident within 4 hrs and fixed in approx. _____ hrs

A

8 - 12

91
Q

POSTMORTEM CHANGES

Tardien spots aka Tardieu petechiae, Tardieu spots

A

Livor Mortis or Postmortem (Lividity) Hypostasis

92
Q

Tardieu’s ecchymoses, subpleural spots of ecchymosis that follow the death
of a newborn child by strangulation or suffocation, were first described by
______ in 1859, and were so named in his honor.

A

Tardieu

93
Q

Is pink to purple discoloration of the skin from blood pooling in dependent areas of the body

A

Lividity

94
Q

Are purple to black spots on the
skin that can develop along with lividity, from the rupture of capillaries

A

Tardieu spots

95
Q

Other postmortem changes

A
  • Postmortem clotting of blood
  • Discoloration of tissues
  • Autolysis and Putrefaction
  • Dessication (Tache Noir)
96
Q

POST-MORTEM CHANGES

After death, the skin and mucosal membranes may desiccate resulting in a change in color and character of these tissues

A

Post-Mortem Drying / Dessication

97
Q

POST-MORTEM CHANGES

Horizontal linear scleral blackening along the equator of the globe of the eye; the sclera is exposed to drying when the eyelids are incompletely shut; tache noir is often initially red in appearance and over time becomes black

A

Tache noir de la sclérotique

98
Q

POST-MORTEM CHANGES

Lips, tip of tongue and scrotum darken

A

Post-Mortem Drying / Dessication

99
Q

TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Refers to a cut or dissection on the skin

A

Primary autopsy incision

100
Q

TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Primary autopsy incision for scalp

A

Mastoid-to-Mastoid incision

101
Q

TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Primary autopsy incision for trunk

A

I-shaped, Y-shaped or Modified Y-shaped

102
Q

TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

2 Secondary Autopsy Incisions

A
  1. Sawing of the skull
  2. Cutting of the sternal plate
103
Q

TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Cutting of bones to expose the cavities
○ Cranial cavity
○ Thoracic cavity
○ Abdominal cavity
○ Pelvic cavity

A

Secondary Autopsy Incisions

104
Q

T/F: For a woman, the Y-incision is curved around the bottom of the breasts before meeting at the breast bone.

A

T

104
Q

SKIN INCISIONS

It is a straight line incision extending from the chin to the symphysis pubis

A

I-shaped

105
Q

SKIN INCISIONS

This type of incision starts near the acromian process and progresses downwards towards the xiphoid process

A

Y-shaped

106
Q

SKIN INCISIONS

○ ‘Y’ shaped incision is made from the suprasternal notch to symphysis pubis
○ It extends from the suprasternal notch over the clavicle to its center on both sides and passes upwards over the neck, behind the ear

A

Modified Y-shaped

107
Q

● To expose the chambers of the Heart
● To expose the inner lungs

A

Quaternary Autopsy Incisions

108
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

● Organs removed and dissected individually
● Order of Examination

A

Techniques of Virchow

108
Q

● To expose the inner liver
● To open the urinary bladder cavity
● To expose the GIT lumen

A

Quaternary Autopsy Incisions

109
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

In-situ dissection in part combined with en-bloc technique

A

Technique of Rokitansky

110
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Technique of Virchow

A
  1. Head
  2. Thoracic
  3. Abdominal Organs
111
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

En bloc technique

A

Technique of Ghon

112
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

En masse technique

A

Technique of Letulle

112
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

The simplified minimally invasive autopsy, which consists of histological and microbiological analyses of blood samples, cerebrospinal fluid samples, and tissue samples from solid organs using biopsy needles or core needles biopsy techniques, could be an alternative method to the complete autopsy

A

MINIMALLY INVASIVE: Needle Autopsy

113
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

A generic term for a postmortem examination in which there is minimal to no disruption of major body cavities. (e.g., by using CT scan, MRI, laparoscopy, and needle biopsies)

A

MINIMALLY INVASIVE: Needle Autopsy

114
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Aspiration of blood, urine, cytology, etc., for analysis

A

Minimally Invasive

114
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Multiple percutaneous needle biopsies after death (“blind biopsies”)

A

Minimally Invasive

115
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Laparoscopic and thorascopic investigation with tissue sampling

A

Minimally Invasive

116
Q

NON-FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Wet tissue retention

A

3 months after final report

116
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

Extensive organ sampling or removal via a limited incision (e.g., a 15-cm upper abdominal wall incision)

A

MINIMALLY INVASIVE: “Mini-autopsy”

116
Q

NON-FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Gross tissues retention

A

3 months or up to 6 months after the final report has been released

117
Q

CONVENTIONAL TECHNIQUES OF AUTOPSY

This is like taking a picture of the internal structures without opening the system.

A

Imaging Autopsies

118
Q

FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Paraffin blocks, slides, reports, gross photographs / negatives, dried blood stain / frozen tissue for DNA retention

A

Indefinitely

118
Q

NON-FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Reports retention

A

10 yrs (archival material)

118
Q

NON-FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Slides retention

A

10 yrs

118
Q

FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Wet tissue retention

A

3 yrs

118
Q

NON-FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Paraffin blocks retention

A

10 yrs

119
Q

FORENSIC AUTOPSY RECORDS

Body Fluids and Tissues for Toxicology retention

A

1 yr

[MT 6321] Histopathology Lecture (10 decks)

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