1C853A V3 Flashcards
The Digital Airport Surveillance Radar (DASR) is also known as the _________. The FAA refers to it as ______.
AN/GPN-30; ASR-11
The Primary Surveillance Radar group consists of ___-state, ____-amplifier module (Tx) with dual drivers, dual-channel receiver/exciters (REX), dual signal data processors (SDP), site control and data interfaces (SCDI), and a microwave assembly.
solid; eight
In the PSR, failures are automatically detected and reported to the site _____________________.
Control and Monitoring System (CMS)
The PSR has ____ cabinets
five
What is the frequency range of the PSR?
2700-2900 MHz
What is the target range for the PSR?
60 nm
Peak power for PSR long pulse is _______ kW minimum
18.0
What is the PSR target capacity?
700 tracks or 1,000 plots
The Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) operates _______ from the primary radar.
independently
The MSSR has ________ interrogators for __________ operation
two solid-state interrogators; dual-channel
What is the center frequency for the MSSR Tx?
1030 MHz
What is the center frequency for the MSSR Rx?
1090 MHz
What is the local oscillator (LO) frequency for the MSSR Rx?
1030 MHz
What is the intermediate frequency (IF) for the MSSR Rx?
60 MHz
ATC radar development for the _____________ happened during __________.
Army Air Corps; World War II
In 1948, the ground clutter return problem was corrected with the development of ___________ systems.
moving target indicator (MTI)
When an a/c travels at a certain speed & creates a Doppler shift, the same as the PRF of the radar, the aircraft becomes invisible to the radar; this is known as _________.
blind speed
An aircraft can produce a Doppler shift that produces little or not output from a phase detector and becomes invisible to the radar; this is called __________.
blind phase
The aircraft’s speed and angle in reference to the radar site determines its ___________.
radial velocity
__________ normally has zero radial velocity and is the determining factor for elimination
fixed clutter
Aircraft can have a radial velocity of _____ for a short period when they fly 90 degrees _________ to the radar.
zero; tangentially
In the 1970s, the FAA & MIT developed ___________.
moving target detection (MTD)
__________ will track a zero velocity target, compare it to known clutter, and declare it as a target
MTD
There are ____ Doppler filters in the PSR
5; one is zero velocity & the other four are varying velocities
The known dim speed for the MTD occur at ____ kts and ______ kts radial velocity.
80; 700
How does the PSR system eliminate second-time-around targets?
changing the PRT, staggering the CPIs (coherent processing intervals) 4 times & performing an M of N function
With the M of N function, commonly referred to as binary integration, means the target must be in the same range cell for _________.
two of four CPIs
The first radar Tx power tube was the ___________ during World War II; it’s an oscillator tube that generates its own RF frequency.
magnetron
Two solutions developed a solid-state Tx for radar: _________ and _________.
multiple amplifier nodules; pulse compression
The ________ is the normal radiation beam and is always used to transmit and receive
low beam
The _________ is tilted up and typically used for short range receive.
high beam
The PSR has two processing channels: ________ and __________.
weather & target
The purpose of the pedestal group is to _______________ the antennas and provide ______ information.
support & turn; azimuth
____________________ provide Ethernet connections from the MSSR to the site control and data interfaces (SCDIs) and provide for interface to the radar control panel (RCP) located at the radar site
Two Media Processing Systems (MPS-800) servers
The Rx consists of three modules: __________, ________, ___________
RF.TD.WD
RF assembly, target DCON, weather channel DCON
The stability monitor accepts samples from the _____,______,_______.
U.T.T
UCON, Tx driver, Tx
The _____________ injects test targets as a test for stability and fault isolation.
stability monitor
What two components make up the exciter?
Local oscillator (LO) & one-up convertor (UCON)
What signal is produced when the eight RF amplifier outputs are combined in a high power waveguide combiner?
18 kW minimum, high power RF signal
If one amplifier module fails or is on standby, the remaining seven amplifier modules will provide a minimum of _____ peak power for ____ coverage.
14 kW; 60 nm
_______________________ detects antenna/Tx group voltage standing wave radio (VSWR) and duty cycle faults and generates an EI signal that disables RF drivers when needed
Tx control circuit card assembly (CCA)
What does secondary radar provide that primary do not?
Identity & altitude
In secondary radar, the use of two frequencies eliminates clutter caused by ____________.
direct reflections
Slaving a beacon system to a primary radar system allows display of __________ info on a common display & uses date from both to positively ID __________________.
radar & beacon; radar returns from a/c
In the GPN-30 MSSR, the Rx uses the ____ to compare the sum video to control video amplitudes
control beam
__________ happens when two radars range & azimuth agree
correlation
What is the biggest change that the MSSR upgraded from older beacon radars?
the ability to determine azimuth from one return of the transponder
______ is not necessary for digitized beacons & primary radar systems; the two systems are independent of each other
synchronization
The MSSR can store up to __ permanent false target zones in a file called _____________.
64; false target reflectors
Secondary radar ground/air equipment is composed of:
- ___________
- ___________
- ___________
- ___________
Transmitter
Receiver
Plot Processor
Tracker
The ___ port is the main beam of the antenna; the center of this beam is _______.
Sum; boresight
The ______ ports receive patterns on either side of the Sum beams; compares amplitudes to determine how far target is off boresight
Difference
The ______ pattern is almost omnidirectional; used for both transmitting & receiving
Control
The Tx generates distinctive RF transmissions called _________.
interrogations
The Tx produces RF bursts (code pulses) up to ______ W peak power
2,000
The transmit codes are developed in the __________
transmitter
The __________ generates SSR mode interrogation pulses & ISLS control pulses, triggers
mode generator
The _______ modulates the interrogation pulses at 1030 MHz, provides 1030 MHz LO to the Rx
driver
The _________ develops RF sample video for monitoring, senses over-current conditions/air temp
low duty power amplifier
The __________ separates P2 pulses from P1/P3, injects self-test pulse into each Rx
transmitter interface
The ___________ divides the 1030 MHz LO from the driver & sends it to Sum/Control/Difference, automatic phase adjustment, detects sum and difference IF
receiver interface
The RF Rx mix the _____ MHz replies with the LO from the Rx interface to create a ____ MHz IF
1090; 60
The ________________ contains a/c azimuth range, Mode 3/A code, altitude of the entire beam dwell.
plot processor report
The ________ examines plots, or reports, and correlates them to existing tracks or histories
tracker
The large vertical array (LVA) antenna generates what three patterns?
Sum, Control, Difference
The _________ is basically a transponder used to check the accuracy of the interrogator
MSSR remote site monitor (MRSM)
What is the frequency range of the PAR?
9.0 - 9.2 GHz
How many aircraft can the PAR track simultaneously?
Six a/c plus reference reflector
The entire air space is scanned electronically for ____ for the 20-mile range & ___ for the shorter ranges
2x each second; 2.4x each second
PAR display is divided into two sections, _______________ & ______________.
azimuth & range; elevation & range
Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) is capable of tracking ______ aircraft simultaneously in the terminal area
1,350
The STARS consists of three basic site elements: ________, ________, _________
STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC)
Operational Support Facility (OSF)
STARS Operational Site (SOS)
The ____________ provides centralized control of field support, hardware/software development
STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC)
The _____________ support the Air Force
Navy OSF
The ______________ accepts & processes radar and flight data necessary for a/c tracking
STARS System Operational Site (SOS)
How many amplifiers are in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) transmitter?
8
Where are Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) failures reported?
Control and Monitoring System (CMS)
What is the frequency range of the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?
2700–2900 MHz
In the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR), when the operational on-line
channel fails, what happens to the system?
Standby channel comes on-line and the faulted channel goes off-line not to exceed 4 seconds
What does an aircraft’s speed and angle in reference to a radar site determine?
Radial velocity
What term describes the condition of an aircraft becoming invisible to radar when it travels at
a certain speed and creates a Doppler shift, the same as the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of the
radar?
Blind speed
What type of system can look at zero Doppler returns, compare them to a clutter map, and
then determine whether the video return is ground clutter or a target?
Moving target detection (MTD)
How many Doppler filters are in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)
5
What eliminates second-time-around targets in the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?
Staggering the coherent processing interval (CPI) and performing an M of N function
Which ASR–11 beam is the normal radiation beam and is always used to transmit and
receive?
Low beam
What provides Ethernet connection from the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) into the site control and data interfaces (SCDI) to provide an interface to the radar control panel (RCP) at the radar site?
Two MPS–800 servers
In the Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR), if one transmitter amplifier module fails or is in
standby, the remaining seven amplifier modules will provide a minimum of 14kW peak power.
This is enough power to cover how many nautical miles (nm)?
60
Originally, secondary radar technology was created while developing the radar to
identify a radar aircraft target as friend or foe
What does a secondary radar system provide that a primary does not?
Identity and altitude
What does the use of two frequencies in secondary radar transactions eliminate?
Clutter caused by direct reflections
What process is not necessary with digitized beacon and primary radar systems like the
ASR–11?
Synchronization
The biggest upgrade Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radars (MSSR) have over older
beacon radars is they
can determine azimuth from one return of a transponder
The Sum port is the main beam of the antenna; the center of this main radar beam is known
as the
boresight
The Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) transmitter produces coded pulses
up to what power level?
2,000 watts peak
Which Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) subassembly develops the radio
frequency (RF) sample video for monitoring?
Low duty power amplifier
Which Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) subassembly injects the self-test
pulse into each receiver?
Transmitter interface
What signal is created when the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) receiver
mixes the 1090 MHz replies with the local oscillator (LO) from the receiver interface?
60 MHz intermediate frequency (IF)
What does the Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) plot processor do?
Groups replies from the same aircraft and produces a digitized report
How many columns are in the large vertical array (LVA) antenna?
35
What Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR) terminal is used for maintenance,
troubleshooting, and optimization?
Control and Monitoring System (CMS)
What is the frequency range of the Precision Approach Radar (PAR)?
9.0 – 9.2 GHz
How many aircraft can the Precision Approach Radar (PAR) track simultaneously?
Up to 6
In the Precision Approach Radar (PAR), the display is divided into what two sections?
Azimuth and range data; elevation and range data
How many airborne aircraft is the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System
(STARS) capable of tracking simultaneously within a terminal area?
Up to 1350
How many miles is the area of coverage for the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)?
400 by 400
How many Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) geographic
regions are there in the United States?
9
Which is not a basic element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System
(STARS)?
STARS Central Operational Site (SCOS)
What element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)
provides for centralized control of field support and hardware/software development?
STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC)
What element of the Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS)
performs hardware and software maintenance, including site adaptation and site support for
multiple sites?
Operational Support Facility (OSF)
Which is not an element of surveillance radar data?
National Airspace System (NAS) information
The Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS) consists of
what two subsystems?
Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS), Site Support Subsystem (SSS)
What workstation provides status monitoring, system control, and establishes the computerhuman
interface (CHI)?
Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW)
What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) service level provides
a reliable, minimal function, air traffic control functionality in the event the STARS primary
service level is unavailable?
Emergency Service Level (ESL)
What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS)
subsystem provides software support for the site and site-to-site data communication for software
distribution?
Site Support Subsystem (SSS)
What Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System Operational Site (SOS)
subsystem has a server that retains and distributes software for a site?
Site Support Subsystem (SSS)
The Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW) SYS 1 processor is capable of accessing
which local area networks (LAN)?
FS LAN A and FS LAN B
What provides the Monitor and Control Workstation (MCW) operator with an X-Windows
terminal displayed at the MCW?
Control and monitor display (CMD) computer software configuration item (CSCI)
If the System Monitor Control (SMC) manager fails to receive the periodic “heartbeats”
from the SMC agents, what has happened?
The non-reporting subsystem has failed catastrophically
Which Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) workstation is the
“Radar Scope” that permits an operator to track aircraft and provide directions to pilots of aircraft
entering, flying within, and exiting the terminal area?
Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW)
You normally see the Terminal Controller Workstation (TCW) located in the
Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facility
How many terminal display workstations (TDW) can the local tower local area network
(LAN) switch support by 1000TBX connections?
16
Where is the terminal display workstation (TDW) monitor’s brightness controlled?
Remote bright control box
What is the major difference between the local terminal display workstation (LTDW) and
the remote terminal display workstation (RTDW)?
The RTDW requires a Layer 3 switch that can function as a router.
What is the storage capability for the site support subsystem (SSS) digital audio tapes
(DAT)?
36 GB (native) or 72 GB (compressed) per tape
What site support subsystem (SSS) device maintains a replica of all application specific and
commercially available software required for restoration of any system processor?
Toolhost site support subsystem (SSS) external hard drive
What site support subsystem (SSS) system works in conjunction with the automation
subsystem to provide artificially generated radar and inter-facility message data for test,
certification, and training?
Testing and Training Simulator Equipment/Simulation (TTSE/SIM)
As a Testing and Training Simulator Equipment/Simulation (TTSE/SIM) exercise
progresses, what schedules and coordinates scenario events as well as dynamic events such as
aircraft clearances issued by a trainee controller?
Event engine
The three types of data that the SOS receives from the ARTCC are: __________, __________, ___________
N.E.IN
NAS Info
ETMS data
interfacility flight data necessary for accurate tracking
The two SOS subsystems are _______ and ________
TAS; site support
STARS receives radar data and flight plan information for ATCs at more than ______ radar control facilities and hundreds of airport control towers.
255
The _________________ provides research for upgrading existing hardware and
maintains the software; and when necessary generates updates to the software programs.
STARS Central Support Complex (SCSC)
Radar data display flight data interface & display operator interaction data recording status monitoring & system control
are the five roles accomplished by the ____________.
Terminal Automation Subsystem (TAS)
__________ provides the radar and track data processing, situation display, monitoring, and CHI functions required for ATC. ____ also provides site and system
monitoring, ATC data recording, and network access functions required to support ATC operations.
Full Service Level (FSL)
The ______ provides a reliable, minimal function, ATC functionality in the event the STARS FSL is unavailable at
the SOSs.
Emergency Service Level (ESL)
Both Full & Emergency service levels provide three functions: _______, ________, _________
R.M.C.
radar data processing (RDP), monitoring, computer-human interface (CHI)
The ____________ provides software support, site-to-site data communication for software distribution
site support subsystem (SSS)
The four types of STARS workstations are: _________, ________, ________, _________
Monitor & Control (MCW), Terminal Control (TCW), Tower Display (TDW), General-Purpose (GPW)
The _______ uses maintenance, control, and display portions of the software to provide automation
subsystem (AS) configuration control and status monitoring in an X-Windows environment.
Monitor & Control Workstation (MCW)
The SYS 1 processor is capable of accessing both _____ & ________
FS LAN A, FS LAN B
The SYS 2 processor is capable of accessing both ______&________
EFS LAN A, EFS LAN B
The ____________ provides the MCW operator with an XWindows terminal displayed at the MCW.
CMD computer software configuration item (CSCI)
If the SMC manager fails to receive heartbeats for a specified length of time, _________________________________________.
the nonreporting subsystem has catastrophically failed.
The _________________ is the “Radar Scope” that permits an operator to track aircraft and provide directions to
pilots of aircraft entering, flying within, and exiting the terminal area.
Terminal Control Workstation (TCW)
The _______________ provides the capacity for controlling up to three keyboards and
trackballs and interfaces these devices into a single serial interface at the rear of each processor.
Data Entry Contoller (DEC)
__________________ access the LANs to display processed radar data at the TDW monitors in the tower cab
Tower Display Workstation (TDW)
The TDW display fan turns on once the temperature reaches ____ degrees Farenheit.
95
In order to handle the T1 modem input in RS–232 format and can convert the output to Ethernet for the processor, the RTDW needs ___________
a fast Layer 3 switch router
_________ provide flexible general purpose processing to support SOS operations and maintenance as required.
General-Purpose Workstation (GPW)
The __________ provides off-line support functions needed to maintain the STARS
site (software maintenance, testing, and training).
site support subsystem (SSS)
Each Toolhost SSS DAT tape has a storage capability of ____ gigabytes (GB) (native) or _____ GB (compressed) per tape.
36; 72
____________________, resident at the processor and operating in a Solaris environment, provides the flight data simulation required for test and training exercises.
ATCoach software
Intro/movement of a/c, wx activity, pre-programmed events are examples of ________ and ____
simulations exercise actions; events