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RAWS CDCs > 1C853A V2 > Flashcards

1C853A V2 Flashcards

1
Q

Radar stands for?

A

Radio Detection and Ranging

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2
Q

the _______ supplies the timing signals that time the transmitted pulses, the indicator, & other circuits

A

synchronizer

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3
Q

the ____________ generates electromagnetic energy in the form of short, powerful pulses

A

transmitter

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4
Q

the ______ allows the same antenna to be used for transmitting and receiving

A

duplexer

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5
Q

the _______ routes electromagnetic energy from the transmitter, radiates it, receives echoes, and routes the echoes to the receiver

A

antenna system

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6
Q

the ______ amplifies the weak, electromagnetic pulses returned & reproduces them as video pulses

A

receiver

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7
Q

the ______ produces a visual indication of the echo pulses furnishing range & azimuth info

A

indicator

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8
Q

______ purpose is to control friendly aircraft, detect hostile aircraft, and control interceptors

A

Air Control and Warning (AC&W) radar

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9
Q

______ assists a/c in making safe landings during poor wx conditions & is a key part of DATCALS

A

Precision Approach Radar (PAR)

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10
Q

What does the “T” in TPN-19 designate?

A

Ground/Transportable

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11
Q

What is used with proper receiving equipment to detect the presence of a distant object?

A

reflected energy

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12
Q

At what speed do radio waves travel?

A

speed of light

162k NM/s

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13
Q

How long does it take a radar pulse to travel one radar mile?

A

12.36 μs

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14
Q

The _______ supplies timing signals to coordinate the operation of the complete system

A

synchronizer

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15
Q

When a transmitter uses a high-power oscillator to produce the output pulse, what switches the oscillator on and off?

A

modulator high-voltage pulse

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16
Q

A ______ permits the use of a single antenna for both transmitting and receiving

A

duplexer

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17
Q

The two basic types of transmitters are _____ and _____

A

keyed-oscillator type; power-amplifier chain

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18
Q

In addition to a flat top, what characteristics must a modulator pulse have?

A

steep leading and trailing edges

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19
Q

The frequency range of magnetron oscillators of _________

A

600-30,000 MHz

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20
Q

The three types of storage elements are most often used in modulators are _______, ______, ________

A

capacitor, artificial transmission line, pulse formed network

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21
Q

What type of tube best meets the requirements of modulator switching element?

A

thyratron tube

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22
Q

The _________ controls the rate at which the storage element charges

A

charging impedance

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23
Q

The two forms of instability common in magnetrons are _______ and _________

A

mode skipping; mode shifting

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24
Q

What is the typical frequency range about the center frequency of a tunable magnetron?

A

+/- 5 percent

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25
Q

In the power amplifier, what two signals are mixed to produce the output?

A

local oscillator & coherent oscillator

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26
Q

A ________ klystron is used as the final stage of a power amplifier transmitter

A

multi-cavity

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27
Q

What is the result of pulsing a pulsed RF amplifier when no RF is present?

A

oscillations at an undesired frequency

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28
Q

The two general classes of antennas are _______ and ______

A

omnidirectional; directional

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29
Q

_________ determines the width of the antennas main lobe

A

The system’s purpose & degree of accuracy required

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30
Q

What is the directivity of a directional antenna?

A

the degree of sharpness of its beam

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31
Q

What are the two functions of a horn radiator?

A

impedance-matching & directional radiator

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32
Q

What are the functions of the antenna on transmit?

A

concentrate energy in predetermined beam shape, point in predetermined direction

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33
Q

What does it mean if an antenna is reciprocal?

A

transmit & receive patterns are identical

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34
Q

Why are reflector antennas extremely important and practical devices for use in radar systems?

A

economical method of distributing energy over large area, beams with high gain

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35
Q

Why is the paraboloid shape useful?

A

all rays leaving focal point & striking the reflector are reflected back along focal axis

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36
Q

What happens when you change the physical shape of the antenna?

A

gives fixed change to radiated beam pattern, but not continuous control or variation

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37
Q

How can you provide an amount of control over the received beam pattern?

A

two feedhorns, one active (low beam) & one passive (high beam)

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the passive feedhorn?

A

used only for receiving

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39
Q

What is an advantage of using MTI?

moving target indicator

A

can be used to reduce clutter

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40
Q

How is range gating adjusted in the 12-feedhorn system?

A

individually adjustable by 45 degrees in four azimuth quadrants, relative to north

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41
Q

Why is stacked-beam a good technique?

A

uses simultaneous pencil-beam radiation patterns to cover angles of interest

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42
Q

How many receivers are used for the pencil beam?

A

separate receiver for each pencil beam

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43
Q

How does the gain of the individual pencil beams compare to the fan-beam antenna?

A

provides a larger number of hits, higher data rate = higher gain

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44
Q

What phase-array ability is an important advantage if the required antenna is large?

A

steer a beam without needing to move a large mech structure

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45
Q

How does the two-dimensional planer array work in rectangular form; in circular aperture form?

A

rectangular; fan beams

circular; pencil beams

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46
Q

________ is the greatest limiting factor in a receiver’s detectable range

A

noise

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47
Q

What type of receiver is “almost, always” in radar systems?

A

superheterodyne

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48
Q

Which component of the receiver produces the signal that is mixed with the received signal to produce the IF signal?

A

local oscillator

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49
Q

What is the one major disadvantage of the unbalanced crystal mixer?

A

unable to cancel local oscillator noise

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50
Q

Which receiver component converts the IF pulses to video pulses?

A

the detector

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51
Q

Why is AGC (automatic gain control) not used as frequently as other types of gain control?

A

widely varying amplitudes of radar return signals

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52
Q

How does FTC affect receiver gain, if at all?

A

no effect, greatly reduces effect of jamming

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53
Q

What type of target has a fixed phase relationship from one receiving period to the next?

A

stationary objects

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54
Q

What signal is used to synchronize the coherent oscillator to a fixed phase relationship with the transmitted pulse?

A

COHO locked pulse

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55
Q

What is the phase relationship between the delayed and undelayed video?

A

pulses will arrive at exactly the same time; opposite

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56
Q

When a large signal and a small signal are applied to a LIN-LOG amplifier at the same time, what is the effect on the small signal?

A

reduces amplification of small signal

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57
Q

The overall gain of a LIN-LOG amplifier _______ as each stage saturates

A

decreases

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58
Q

If a target is on the azimuth axis of the radiated beam, what is the input to the azimuth IF channel?

A

zero

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59
Q

What functions does the ASDP (advanced signal/data processor) provide for the radar?

S.REX.PC.T.WX

A

syncing, receiver/exciter (REX) control, pulse compression, target & wx processing

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60
Q

What does target processing in the ASDP consist of?

A

Doppler filtering, constant false alarm rate (CFAR) detection, sliding dwell binary integration, plot extraction, scan-to-scan

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61
Q

The _______ used to suppress large in-band interference returns produced by other radar sources

A

radar interference suppressor

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62
Q

What is the purpose of pulse compression in the ASDP?

A

recover radar range resolution w/ long pulse transmissions

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the CFAR function?

A

controls false alarms from fixed/moving clutter & system noise

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64
Q

When does the binary integrator output a detection?

A

2+ detections at same range in four processing intervals

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65
Q

What are permanent echoes used for?

A

monitoring primary surveillance radar performance

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66
Q

How does the weather processor remove second time around returns?

A

after 6 scans, maps are merged & data averaged

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67
Q

A___________ is used to coordinate timing events within the ASDP and REX

golf

A

field programmable gate array (FPGA)

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68
Q

What information does a plot consist of?

A

range & azimuth of target, quality measure

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69
Q

The ___________ collects the weather data for all 256 radials and assembles a weather map

A

plot processor

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70
Q

The primary radar can detect and process _______ aircraft in a single 360° scan

A

at least 700

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71
Q

4 reasons why it is important that minor lobes of radar antennas be small compared to the main lobe

A

High directivity
Reduce susceptibility to signal interference
Reduce detecting target in minor lobe
Reduce interference w/ other systems

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72
Q

How is the fictitious surface used?

A

aids in computing antenna performance; immediate front plane where radiation passes

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73
Q

How is the pattern of the antenna determined?

A

distribution of electromagnetic energy from antenna over aperture

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74
Q

3 primary performance parameters for an antenna?

A

gain
beamwidth
side-lobe level

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75
Q

Name two basic functions of the radar antenna.

A

launch & receive electromagnetic energy efficiently, direct the energy into appropriate beam shape

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76
Q

The ____________ determines the shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern

A

purpose of the radar

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77
Q

In the search radar, we need to measure _____ & ______, not ______.

A

range & azimuth; not height

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78
Q

A practical beamwidth is ______ degrees and vertical height is about ________ degrees

A

1 to 2; 30 to 35

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79
Q

A ___________ is used to shape the radar beam

A

parabolic reflector

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80
Q

The ___________ refers to the motion of the antenna axis (of the beam) as the radar looks for an aircraft

A

scanning method

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81
Q

When using a conical scan, what component of the return signal modulation is used by the radar system to maintain track in both azimuth and elevation?

A

the phase

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82
Q

_____________ is identified at the ECM receiver by its regular intervals between illuminations

A

circular

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83
Q

A scan in which a thin beam covers a rectangular area by sweeping it horizontally with the angle of elevation being incrementally stepped up or down with each horizontal sweep of the sector is a ____________

A

raster scan

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84
Q

The ___________ radar gets its name from the fact that each echo pulse from the aircraft being tracked yields a new azimuth and elevation correction signal

A

monopulse

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85
Q

A ______ scan is one in which the antenna rotates on an azimuth sweep, while the elevation angle rises slowly from 0° to 90°

A

helical

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86
Q

What happens to the speed of electromagnetic energy traveling through air as the altitude increases?

A

small, uniform increase

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87
Q

What effects can ducting have on radar coverage?

A

extend coverage or create holes

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88
Q

Name 4 types of propagation anomalies?

A

ducting
subrefraction
superrefraction
multipathing

89
Q

__________ is the propagation of a wave from one point to another by more than one path

A

Multipathing

90
Q

When multipath occurs in radar, of what does it consist?

A

a direct path & one or more indirect paths reflecting from earth surface or large man-made structures

91
Q

When may a multipath also include more than one path through the ionosphere?

A

frequencies below 40MHz

92
Q

What can near-simultaneous reception of “pulse-type” information cause?

A

delayed but separate pulses

93
Q

When a low-altitude target is illuminated by a radar system, or for higher-angle situations involving appreciable antenna sidelobes, by what two paths can energy enter the tracking antenna?

A

direct path from target

indirect path from energy reflection of earth surface

94
Q

What attempts are made to reduce multipath effects on radar tracking accuracy?

A

freq & polarization agility
high res antennas
clutter fences
angle-processing techniques

95
Q

___________ provides critical information to provide ample time to prepare or evacuate in response to natural disturbances

A

Weather radar

96
Q

The “P” in GPN–30 designates _______

A

Radar

97
Q

It takes radio frequency (RF) _______ microseconds to travel one radar mile

A

12.36

98
Q

The time from one pulse to the next that the radar sends out is called ______________

A

pulse recurrence time (PRT).

99
Q

___________ amplifies the weak, electromagnetic (EM) pulses returned from the reflecting object and reproduces them as video pulses

A

Receiver

100
Q

____________ controls the radar pulse width (PW) by means of a rectangular direct current (DC)

A

Modulator

101
Q

In addition to a flat top, what characteristics must a modulator pulse have?

think mesa

A

Very steep leading edge and trailing edge

102
Q

What type of modulator is most commonly used in modern radar systems?

A

Line-pulsed

103
Q

What type of tube best meets the requirements of a modulator-switching element?

A

Thyratron

104
Q

If the magnetic field strength is too high on the magnetron, the magnetron will

A

not oscillate

105
Q

The power gain of an antenna is the ratio of its radiated power to

A

reference dipole

106
Q

Which pattern is usually specified and measured for a reciprocal antenna?

A

Transmit

107
Q

What is the most common reflector shape?

A

Paraboloid

108
Q

What do you call the use of contiguous beams stacked in elevation?

A

Stacked beam radars

109
Q

What is an advantage of the individual pencil beams when handling rain clutter or chaff?

A

Limits the volume of space observed

110
Q

Which array is particularly useful in radar applications?

A

Two-dimensional planar

111
Q

Which waveguide antenna is more suited for one-dimensional scanning than scanning in two coordinates?

A

Waveguide slot array

112
Q

What intermediate frequencies are usually used in radar receivers?

A

30 MHz or 60 MHz

113
Q

What receiver circuit/stage actually produces the intermediate frequency (IF)?

A

Mixer

114
Q

Which stage of the intermediate frequency (IF) section is the most critical?

A

Input (1st stage)

115
Q

Immediately after the transmitter fires, sensitivity time control (STC) reduces the receiver gain to what level?

A

Zero

116
Q

What signal is used to synchronize the coherent oscillator (COHO) to a fixed phase relationship with the transmitted pulse?

A

Coherent oscillator lock pulse

117
Q

What is the phase relationship between the delayed and non-delayed video?

A

Opposite polarity

118
Q

What happens to the overall gain of a linear logarithmic (LIN-LOG) amplifier as each stage saturates?

A

Gain decreases

119
Q

How many separate channels does a monopulse receiver have?

A

Three

120
Q

What is used to interface target and weather channel signals to the signal processor?

A

Azimuth beam/sensitivity time control (STC) interface

121
Q

What unit’s primary function is to accept the output of the receiver/exciter (REX), and decide, for every range and azimuth cell in the radar coverage area, whether a moving target is present or not?

A

Target processor

122
Q

How many permanent echoes are permitted by the advanced signal data processor (ASDP)?

A

25

123
Q

What processor function attempts to correlate plots to existing tracks?

A

Track processor

124
Q

What type of reflector is used to shape the radar beam?

A

Parabolic

125
Q

What refers to the orientation of the electromagnetic (EM) wave as it travels through space?

A

Polarization

126
Q

What refers to the motion of the antenna axis (of the beam) as the radar looks for an aircraft?

A

Scanning method

127
Q

What precision radar system uses continuous rotation of a pencil beam (narrow angle in both dimensions) around the aircraft and uses the phase of the return signal modulation to maintain track in both azimuth and elevation?

A

Conical scan

128
Q

When using a conical scan, what component of the return signal modulation is used by the radar system to maintain track in both azimuth and elevation?

A

Phase

129
Q

What scanning method is identified at the electronic countermeasure (ECM) receiver by its regular intervals between illuminations?

A

Circular

130
Q

Which radar gets its name from the fact that each echo pulse from the aircraft being tracked yields a new azimuth and elevation correction angle?

A

Monopulse scan

131
Q

What happens to the speed of electromagnetic (EM) energy traveling through air as the altitude increases?

A

Signal speed increases

132
Q

The bending of electromagnetic (EM) waves caused by a change in the density of the medium through which the waves are passing is referred to as

A

refraction

133
Q

What is it called when temperature first increases with height and then begins to decrease?

A

Temperature inversion

134
Q

What do you call propagation of a wave from one point to another by more than one path?

A

Multipathing

135
Q

When would you use an electrostatic instead of an electromagnetic CRT?..

A

requirements for lightweight, compact equipment

136
Q

How is information presented on an A-scan indicator?

A

vertical deflection from horizontal baseline

137
Q

How is time represented on an A-scan indicator?

A

horizontal distance between start trigger & input signal

138
Q

How is the video presented on a B-scan indicator?

A

electron beam presents target as bright spot on the screen

139
Q

What type of radar uses the B-scan indicator?

A

precision approach radar for azimuth & elevation

140
Q

What target information does a PPI scan present?

A

range & azimuth in polar coordinates

141
Q

What type of pattern does a Raster scan indicator use to scan the CRT?

A

electron beam scans CRT screen left to right and top to bottom

142
Q

What components do all indicators have regardless of type?

A 
Power supplies
Data processing circuits
Video circuits
Deflection circuits
CRT (cathode ray tube)
Front panel controls
143
Q

What furnishes the operating voltages for the CRT?

A

high voltage power supply

144
Q

List the three functions performed by the data processing circuits.

A

control ops & data calcs
interface
data distribution

145
Q

How do the video circuits protect the CRT during certain malfunctions?

A

disabling CRT high voltage power supply

146
Q

How do the data processing circuits specify beam position?

A

using X & Y coordinates, with origin at center of CRT screen

147
Q

List the two types of CRTs.

A

electrostatic, electromagnetic

148
Q

What part of a CRT shields the electron beam from unwanted electric fields?

A

aquadag

149
Q

What is the primary hazard involved with high-vacuum CRTs?

A

dangerous implosions

150
Q

What do indicator front panel controls allow the operator to do?

A

select input signals/messages, enter op parameters, adjust indicator format

151
Q

What are the SIF modes used to interrogate an aircraft?

A

Modes 1, 2, 3/A, C

152
Q

What is the spacing between P1 and P3 pulses for the four SIF modes?

A

Mode 1 - 3 μs
Mode 2 - 5 μs
Mode 3 - 8 μs
Mode C - 21 μs

153
Q

Explain the contents of the mode 4 preamble.

A

four pulses & a blank space

each pulse 0.5 μs wide, 2 μs apart

154
Q

What is the transmitted frequency of interrogation pulses?

A

Interrogator to a/c - 1030 MHz

A/C to interrogator - 1090 MHz

155
Q

What is the purpose of transmitting a P2 pulse?

A

To eliminate sidelobe reception

156
Q

What is the limit of total possible codes in mode 1?

A

32

157
Q

What is the largest single digit for any SIF modes 1, 2, and 3/A reply?

A

7

158
Q

What type of code and what are the increments of the altitude information received in mode C?

A

Gray Code; 100’ altitude increments

159
Q

What terms are used for the first and last pulse present in a SIF?

A

bracket/framing pulses

160
Q

What is the bracket pulse spacing on a normal SIF code train?

A

20.3 μs apart, width of 0.45 μs

161
Q

What signifies that the SIF reply has been transmitted by a missile or drone?

A

X pulse in reply code train

162
Q

What is the purpose of a reply pulse that is 4.35 μs after the last bracket pulse of a SIF code train?

A

I/P (id position) response by a/c requested by operator

163
Q

What is the only IFF/SIF mode that can decode civilian emergencies?

A

Mode 3/A

164
Q

How is a communications failure emergency received by the ground station?

A

7600 emergency code

165
Q

Which modes will decode military emergencies?

A

Any SIF mode (1,2,3,C)

166
Q

What type of aircraft can present a single-arc IFF reply on the scope?

A

US military aircraft

167
Q

What are the seven functions within the AN/UPM–155 test set?

CI.I.M.I.F.O.P

A 
Control and interface
IFF simulator
measurement system
interface
front panel
oscilloscope
power distribution
168
Q

AN/UPM–155: Used for automatic testing

A

Interface

169
Q

AN/UPM–155: Used to view signals under test

A

Oscilloscope

170
Q

AN/UPM–155: Provides overall control

A

Control and Interface

171
Q

AN/UPM–155: Measure VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio)

A

Measurement

172
Q

AN/UPM–155: Simulates interrogations

A

IFF Simulator

173
Q

AN/UPM–155: Provides all required voltages

A

Power Distribution

174
Q

AN/UPM–155: Contains keyboard and display

A

Front Panel

175
Q

What is used to couple the components between waveguide sections to prevent RF leakage?

A

Waveguide choke joints

176
Q

What process is used on waveguides to prevent arcing?

A

air compressors supply dry air to waveguide components to pressurize

177
Q

How are waveguides pressurized in fixed environments?

A

with air or inert gases

178
Q

Explain how a rotary joint works.

A

allows one waveguide section to remain stationary while other rotates, suppress unwanted RF signals

179
Q

What component allows the waveguide system to be connected to both transmitter and receiver, while allowing them to share a common antenna?

A

duplexer

180
Q

After the majority of the RF energy enters one port of a circulator, where will it exit?

A

next highest # port of circulator

181
Q

What is the purpose of the TR (transmit-receive) tube?

A

closes RF system to receiver during transmission to protect the receiver from high-power transmitter pulses

182
Q

When a radar set uses dual transmitting channels, what is needed to properly route the RF signals between the waveguide, antenna, and dummy load?

A

RF switch

183
Q

Explain the differences between a low-power and high-power diplexer.

A

high-power – sulfur hexafluoride

low-power – no pressure windows/gas fittings/normal air

184
Q

The RF filters will filter out all frequencies except what frequency?

A

the desired frequency of the circuit

185
Q

State the purpose of the directional coupler.

A

enable mx to monitor signals, inject test signals into waveguide system

186
Q

What important factor must you consider when making directional coupler measurements?

A

loss of signal strength when sampling/injecting, indicated on coupler

187
Q

What component reduces precipitation and clutter to nearly zero?

A

polarizer

188
Q

Explain the differences in radar returns from raindrops and aircraft.

A

Rain drops will return constant amplitude/same energy; a/c will show wide/irregular variations as polarization changes

189
Q

Name the two most commonly used mediums to remote radar equipment.

A

cable/land lines & radio microwave links (RML)

190
Q

What is the distance restriction when remoting radar systems with coaxial cable?

A

12,000’

191
Q

What two things can assist a technician in determining the operational usability and troubleshooting of a radar system?

A

performance monitors or buit-in test equipment (BITE)

192
Q

What radar unit displays corresponding radar information on a cathode ray tube (CRT)?

A

Indicator

193
Q

What type of cathode ray tube (CRT) is mostly used in ground radar equipment?

A

Electromagnetic (EM)

194
Q

The most basic type of scanning indicator is the

A

A-scan

195
Q

The scanning indicator that plots target range and azimuth information in polar coordinates is the

A

plan-position indicator (PPI)

196
Q

What type of scanning indicator do surveillance radars primarily use?

A

plan-position indicator (PPI)

197
Q

What type of scanning indicator completes two vertical scan periods to produce one complete picture called a frame?

A

Raster

198
Q

Which indicator power supply furnishes the cathode ray tube (CRT) operating voltages?

A

high voltage

199
Q

Along with determining the overall operation of the indicator, the data processing circuits

A

provide data distribution and interface with the radar

200
Q

What indicator circuit converts digital display data from the data processing circuits into analog drive signals?

A

Deflection

201
Q

What part of the cathode ray tube (CRT) is tapered and lined with a conductive graphite coating?

A

Aquadag

202
Q

The high vacuum and large surface area of the cathode ray tube (CRT) make it especially vulnerable to

A

implosions

203
Q

Which is not an advantage of identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) equipment?

A

Only one mode is used for simplicity

204
Q

An aircraft transponder answers an interrogation by transmitting a reply pulse train signal back to the ground station at a frequency of

A

1090 MHz

205
Q

To eliminate interrogator side-lobe suppression (ISLS), the ground radar site transmits the P2 signal in what type of radiating pattern?

A

omnidirectional

206
Q

What selective identification feature (SIF) mode has a limit of 32 codes?

A

Mode 1

207
Q

What generates an identification of position (I/P) response?

A

aircraft pilot

208
Q

A 7600 emergency reply signifies an aircraft

A

communications failure

209
Q

What is the only type of aircraft that can present a single-arc identification friend or foe (IFF) reply on a scope?

A

Military

210
Q

What function of the AN/UPM–155 test set provides overall control of the other functions?

A

Control and interface

211
Q

What function of the AN/UPM–155 test set provides signal conditioning required for testing transponders and interrogators?

A

Interface

212
Q

What are used to couple waveguide components and sections to prevent radio frequency (RF) leakage?

A

Choke joints

213
Q

What do most radars use in their waveguide system to prevent arcing?

A

Air compressors

214
Q

What waveguide compressor subsystem controls operation of airflow and indicates normal or malfunction conditions?

A

Electrical

215
Q

What duplexer sub-component accepts radio frequency (RF) transmit power from the transmitter and directs it through the waveguide to the antenna assembly?

A

circulator

216
Q

What waveguide component has a mechanical stop mounted on its base to limit movement to each extremity of travel?

A

Radio frequency (RF) switch

217
Q

What antenna device reduces precipitation display to nearly zero on an indicator?

A

polarizer

218
Q

The two most often used radar remoting configurations are

A

cable/land lines and radio microwave links

219
Q

Due to high signal loss, about how many feet are coaxial cable remoting systems limited to?

A

12,000

RAWS CDCs (2 decks)

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