1B - General-Purpose Financial Statements: For-Profit Business Entities Flashcards
Redwood Co.’s financial statements had the following information at year-end:
Cash $ 60,000
Accounts receivable 180,000
Allowance for uncollectible accounts 8,000
Inventory 240,000
Trading debt securities 90,000
Prepaid rent 18,000
Current liabilities 400,000
Long-term debt 220,000
What was Redwood’s quick ratio?
0.81 to 1
- 83 to 1
- 94 to 1
- 46 to 1
.81
Quick ratio = Current assets (excluding Inventories and Prepaid assets) ÷ Current liabilities:
(Cash + Net accounts receivable + Trading debt securities) ÷ Current liabilities
($60,000 + ($180,000 - $8,000) + $90,000) ÷ $400,000 = 0.81 (rounded)
All of the assets listed are current. Inventory and prepaid rent are excluded from the quick ratio.
Abbott Co. is preparing its statement of cash flows for the year. Abbott’s cash disbursements during the year included the following: Payment of interest on bonds payable $500,000
Payment of dividends to stockholders 300,000
Payment to acquire 1,000 shares of Marks Co. common stock 100,000
What should Abbott report as total cash outflows for financing activities in its statement of cash flows?
$0
$300,000
$900,000
$800,000
300,000
Interest payments are included in operating activities. Cash payments to acquire equity instruments are included in investing activities. Only payments of dividends to stockholders are included in financing activities.I
The statement of cash flows (SCF) is presented in three primary sections: cash flows from ___ activities, cash flows from ___ activities, and cash flows from ___ activities (in that order).
Operating, Investing, Financing
Cash flows from operating activities: Cash flows from operating activities include those cash flows resulting from transactions included in the determination of net income, unless specifically classified as financing or investing activities. ***TRUE OR FALSE?***
TRUE
Cash inflows from operating activities generally include the following:
(a) Cash receipts from sales of ___ or services
(b) Cash receipts from ___ and ___ on investments in another enterprise
(c) All other cash receipts that are not classified as either investing or financing activities. **T/F**
goods
Interest and Dividends
True
Cash outflows classified as operating activities include the following:
(a) Cash payments to acquire materials for manufacture or goods for resale
(b) Cash payments to other suppliers and employees for goods and services
(c) Cash payments to governments for taxes, duties, other fees, or penalties
(d) Cash payments to lenders and other creditors for interest
(e) All other cash payments that are not classified as investing or financing activities
T/F
True
A public entity sells steel for use in construction. One of its customers accounts for 43% of sales, and another customer accounts for 40% of sales. What should the entity disclose in its annual financial statements about these two customers?
The financial condition of the two customers
The payment terms of accounts receivable due from each of the two customers
The names of the two customers
The amount of the entity’s revenue from each of the two customers
The amount of the entity’s revenue from each of the two customers.
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to 10% or more of an entity’s revenues, the business must disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the segments reporting the revenues.
A major customer is a single customer, or a group of entities, known to a reporting enterprise to be under common control.
The identity, payment terms, and financial condition of the customers do not need to be disclosed.
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to __% or more of an entity’s revenues, the business must disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the segments reporting the revenues.
10%
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to 10% or more of an entity’s ___, the business must disclose that fact, the total ___of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the ___ _____the revenues.
Revenues
Amount
Segment Reporting
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to 10% or more of an entity’s ___, the business must disclose that fact, the total ___of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the ___ _____the revenues.
Revenues
Amount
Segment Reporting
A ___is a functional or responsibility area within a business that can be reported upon separately.
Segment
Fara Co. reported bonds payable of $47,000 on December 31, 20X1, and $50,000 on December 31, 20X2. During 20X2, Fara issued $20,000 of bonds payable in exchange for equipment. There was no amortization of bond premium or discount during the year. What amount should Fara report in its 20X2 statement of cash flows for redemption of bonds payable?
$20,000
$23,000
$3,000
$17,000
$17,000
Using the basic accounting equation, Beginning balance + Additions - Deletions = Ending balance:
Bonds payable on 12/31/X1 (beginning inventory) $47,000
Plus bonds issued in 20X2 20,000
Subtotal 67,000
Less bonds payable on 12/31/X2 (ending inventory) 50,000
Bonds redeemed in 20X2 (presumably for cash) $17,000
Cash flows from ___ activities involve asset transactions other than cash (and cash equivalents) and those assets related directly to the determination of operating results (e.g., inventories, receivables).
Investing
Specifically, the following are types of cash inflows from investing activities:
(a) Cash receipts from collections or sales of ___made by the enterprise and of other debt instruments that are purchased by the enterprise(b) Cash receipts from sales of ___securities of other enterprises(c) Cash receipts from the sales of ___ ___and other productive assets
Loans
Equity
fixed assets
Cash flows from ___ activities involve debt and equity financing.
Cash inflows from financing activities include the following:
(a) Cash proceeds from issuing ___ instruments
(b) Cash proceeds from issuing ___, ____, ___, and other short- and long-term debt instruments
Financing
equity
bonds, mortgages notes
Which of the following statements is correct regarding reporting comprehensive income?
Comprehensive income must include all changes in stockholders’ equity for the period.
Comprehensive income is reported in the year-end statements but not in the interim statements.
A separate statement of comprehensive income is required.
Accumulated other comprehensive income is reported in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet.
Accumulated other comprehensive income is reported in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet.
FASB ASC 220-10-45-14 requires that accumulated other comprehensive income be reported in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet:”
Accumulated other comprehensive income is be reported in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet. T/F
Accumulated other comprehensive income is be reported in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet COMBINED with retained earnings? T/F
component of equity.”
True
FALSE - It is to be reported separately
When computing the amount of the gain or loss from discontinued operations:
the gain or loss on the disposal of the discontinued operation is not included in the computation of the total gain or loss.
the operating results of the operation being discontinued are not included in the computation of the total gain or loss.
both the operating results and the gain or loss on disposal are included in the computation of the total gain or loss.
the gain or loss on disposal of the discontinued operation is reported net of tax but the operating results are not.
both the operating results and the gain or loss on disposal are included in the computation of the total gain or loss.
The computation of the total gain or loss from discontinued operations is computed by combining the operating results (income or loss) from the point in time when the disposal qualifies as a discontinued operation until the disposal is complete, with the gain or loss on disposal. The net amount of the two components is reported net of tax after “income from continuing operations” in the income statement.
The computation of the total gain or loss from ___ ___ is computed by combining the operating results (income or loss) from the point in time when the disposal qualifies as a discontinued operation until the disposal is complete, with the gain or loss on disposal.
The net amount of the two components is reported net of tax after “income from continuing operations” in the income statement.
discontinued operations
Discontinued operations are presented in a separate section of the income statement, just below income from ___ ___.
To be reported as discontinued operations, a disposal must represent a ___ ___ . A ___ ____must have a major effect on the entity’s operations and financial results
Continuing operations
Strategic shift – strategic shift
If a business or nonprofit activity is acquired to be held for sale, its disposal is considered a disposal of a discontinued operation. The initial criteria for classification as “held for sale” include:
- management has committed to a ___to sell the component;
- the entity is available for ___ sale;
- an active program to sell has been ___;
- the sale is expected to be complete within ___ ___;
- the entity is being actively ___; or
- it is unlikely the plan to sell will be ___.
Plan
immediate
initiated
one year
marketed
withdrawn
The entity must qualitatively assess whether a strategic shift has occurred for it to be considered a discontinued operation. Examples of a strategic shift include:
- a sale of a product line that represents __% of the entity’s total revenues;
- a sale of a geographical area that represents __% of the entity’s total assets;
15%
20%
A 70%-owned subsidiary company declares and pays a cash dividend. What effect does the dividend have on the retained earnings and noncontrolling (minority) interest balances in the parent company’s consolidated balance sheet?
A decrease in retained earnings and no effect on noncontrolling interest
Decreases in both retained earnings and noncontrolling interest
No effect on retained earnings and a decrease in noncontrolling interest
No effect on either retained earnings or noncontrolling interest
No effect on retained earnings and a decrease in noncontrolling interest
The dividend will have no effect on consolidated retained earnings because consolidated retained earnings include only retained earnings of the parent company.
However, since the noncontrolling (minority) interest (in this case, 30%) is a percentage of the stockholder equity (including retained earnings) of the subsidiary, any reduction in subsidiary retained earnings (such as dividend declaration) will decrease noncontrolling (minority) interest.
A parent company may own less than 100% of the voting stock of a subsidiary. In such cases, there is a ___(minority) interest in the net assets of the subsidiary as well as a ___interest.
noncontrolling
controlling
The noncontrolling interest is reported in the ___statement of financial position within equity
consolidated
In its 20X7 income statement, Brinkley Company reported cost of goods sold of $625,000. Changes occurred in several balance sheet accounts as follows:
Inventory $79,000 increase
Accounts payable - suppliers 61,000 increase
What amount should Brinkley Company report as cash paid to suppliers in its 20X7 cash flow statement, prepared under the direct method?
$607,000
$485,000
$765,000
$643,000
Cost of goods sold $625,000
Inventory increase 79,000
Purchases $704,000
Accounts payable increase (61,000)
Cash paid to suppliers $643,000
.
An increase in inventory during the period indicates that purchases were more than the cost of goods sold. Therefore, the current period’s amount of purchases is determined by adding the increase in inventory to cost of goods sold.
The ending accounts payable represents what is still owed to suppliers at the end of the current period for purchases. An increase in accounts payable during the current period indicates that suppliers were paid an amount of cash less than the amount of the current period’s purchases.
Therefore, subtracting the increase in accounts payable from purchases of the period yields the cash paid to suppliers in the current period.
The SCF presents net cash flows from operating, investing, and financing activities to reconcile the change in ___(and cash equivalents) for the period.
cash
In reporting cash flows from operating activities, enterprises are encouraged to use the ___method,
direct
- Information about ___-___investing and/or financing activities must be disclosed outside the main body of the SCF.
- Cash-flow-per-share information is REQUIRED to be presented. T/F
- non-cash
- False - it shall NOT be presented
(1) Cash collected from customers(2) Interest and dividends received(3) Other operating cash receipts(4) Cash paid to employees and other suppliers of goods and services(5) Interest paid(6) Income taxes paid(7) Other operating cash payments
This is an example of the INDIRECT method … T/F
False - this is the DIRECT method
Regardless of whether the direct or indirect method is used to determine cash flows from operating activities, the following items are required to be disclosed in the SCF or related notes:
(1) Amount of ___ ___paid during the period(2) Amount of ___ paid during the period(3) Reconciliation of ___ ___ and net cash flows from operating activities
Income Taxes
Interest
Net Income
Bay Manufacturing Co. purchased a 3-month U.S. Treasury bill. In preparing Bay’s statement of cash flows, this purchase would:
have no effect.
be treated as an outflow from investing activities.
be treated as an outflow from operating activities.
be treated as an outflow from financing activities.
have no effect.
FASB ASC 230-10-20 focuses on cash and cash equivalents. The following explanation is offered: “Examples of items commonly considered to be cash equivalents are Treasury bills, commercial paper, money market funds, and federal funds sold (for an enterprise with banking operations).”
Thus, the purchase of U.S. Treasury bills would have no effect on the statement of cash flows.
Rowe, Inc., owns 80% of Cowan Co.’s outstanding capital stock. On November 1, Rowe advanced $100,000 in cash to Cowan. What amount should be reported related to the advance in Rowe’s consolidated balance sheet as of December 31?
$0
$80,000
$100,000
$20,000
$0
All intercompany liabilities are eliminated in the consolidation process. The amounts are not included as assets or liabilities on the consolidated balance sheet.consolidated balance sheet.
Another type of eliminating entry the candidate should look for is that relating to year-end reciprocal balance sheet accounts. The following are examples of such accounts:
a. Accounts receivable or accounts payableb. Notes receivable or notes payablec. Advance to sub (parent) or advance from parent (sub)
yep! Just understand this.
Albany Co. has net income of $39,000, $17,000 of prior service costs related to amendments implemented in their pension plan, a gain of $8,100 on the effective portion of a cash flow hedge, and an impairment loss of $6,000 on an intangible asset. What amount is Albany’s comprehensive income?
$13,900
$47,100
$22,000
$30,100
$30,100
Comprehensive income includes net income and other comprehensive income (OCI). OCI includes pension-related items like the implementation of prior service costs and gains and losses on the effective portion of cash flow hedges as well as unrealized holding gains or losses on available-for-sale debt securities. The impairment loss ($6,000) is already included in net income.
Net income $39,000
Prior service costs related to a pension plan (17,000)
Gain on effective portion of cash flow hedge 8,100
$30,100
=======
Note: Amortization of prior service costs would be recognized in pension expense and included in net income.
Comprehensive income is defined in SFAC 6 as “the change in equity (net assets) of a business enterprise during a period from transactions and other events and circumstances from ___sources.
Non-owner
___ ___ ___ is defined as revenues, expenses, gains, and losses that under GAAP are included in comprehensive income but excluded from net income.
Other Comprehensive Income
Other comprehensive income (OCI) is defined as revenues, expenses, gains, and losses that under GAAP are included in comprehensive income but excluded from net income.
Here are some examples:
- Foreign currency ___adjustments
- Gains and losses on ___currency transactions
- Gains and losses on ___instrument
- Unrealized holding gains and losses on ___-___-___debt securities
- Gains or losses associated with ___or other ___benefits
translation
foreign
derivative
unrealized – available for sale
pension – postretirement
Which of the following describes how comprehensive income should be reported?
May be reported in a combined statement of income and comprehensive income or disclosed within a statement of stockholders’ equity; separate statements of comprehensive income are not permitted
Should not be reported in the financial statements but should only be disclosed in the footnotes
May be reported in a separate statement or in a combined statement of income and comprehensive income
Must be reported in a separate statement, as part of a complete set of financial statements
May be reported in a separate statement or in a combined statement of income and comprehensive income
An entity reporting comprehensive income in a single continuous financial statement shall present its components in two sections, net income and other comprehensive income.”
The financial statement should include a total net income amount , total other comprehensive income amount, and total comprehensive income.
An entity reporting comprehensive income in a sA company reports the following information for year 1:
Sale of equipment $20,000
Issuance of the company’s bonds 10,000
Dividends paid 5,000
Purchase of stock of another company 2,000
Purchase of U.S. Treasury note 2,000
Income taxes paid 2,000
Interest income received 500
What is the company’s net cash flow from financing activities?ingle continuous financial statement shall present its components in
$5,000
($9,000)
$15,000
$5,500.
$5,000
Cash Flows from Financing Activities:
Issuance of the company’s bonds $10,000
Dividends paid (5,000)
Net Cash Flows from Financing Activities $ 5,000
The following information was taken from the current year financial statements of Planet Corp.:
Accounts receivable, January 1 $ 21,600
Accounts receivable, December 31 30,400
Sales on account and cash sales 438,000
Uncollectible accounts 1,000
No accounts receivable were written off or recovered during the year. If the direct method is used in the current-year statement of cash flows, Planet should report cash collected from customers as:
$429,200.
The cash collected is $429,200, calculated as follows:
Sales $438,000
Increase in accounts receivable
($30,400 – $21,600) 8,800
Cash collected from customers $429,200
On January 1, 20X1, Prim, Inc., acquired all the outstanding common shares of Scarp, Inc., for cash equal to the book value of the stock. The carrying amounts of Scarp’s assets and liabilities approximated their fair values, except that the carrying amount of its building was more than fair value. The combination is accounted for as an acquisition. In preparing Prim’s 20X1 consolidated income statement, which of the following adjustments would be made?
Depreciation expense would be decreased and goodwill impairment would be assessed.
Depreciation expense would be decreased and goodwill impairment would not be assessed.
Depreciation expense would be increased and goodwill impairment would not be assessed.
Depreciation expense would be increased and goodwill impairment would be assessed.
Depreciation expense would be decreased and goodwill impairment would be assessed.
Regardless of the depreciation issue, FASB ASC 350-20-35-28 requires goodwill to be tested for impairment at least annually, as well as in the year of acquisition. Therefore, goodwill impairment must be assessed in this case.
___is the excess of the fair value of the consideration given over the fair value of the net identifiable assets acquired
Goodwill
Duke Co. reported cost of goods sold of $270,000 for 20X1. Additional information is as follows:
December 31__January 1
Inventory $60,000 $45,000
Accounts payable 26,000 39,000
If Duke uses the direct method, what amount should Duke report as cash paid to suppliers in its 20X1 statement of cash flows?
$272,000
$298,000
$268,000
$242,000
$298,000
Duke should report $298,000, calculated as follows:
Reported cost of goods sold for 20X1 $270,000
Add increase in inventory ($60,000 − $45,000) 15,000
Decrease in accounts payable ($39,000 − $26,000) 13,000
Cash paid to suppliers in 20X1 $298,000
========
Universe Co. issued 500,000 shares of common stock in the current year. Universe declared a 30% stock dividend. The market value was $50 per share, the par value was $10, and the average issue price was $30 per share. By what amount will Universe decrease stockholders’ equity for the dividend?
$0
$1,500,000
$4,500,000
$7,500,000
$0
Stock dividends are accounted for by reclassifying a portion of retained earnings as contributed capital. They do not reduce assets or increase liabilities. Therefore, total stockholders’ equity is not changed.
Stock dividends constitute income to the investor. T/F
A stock dividend takes nothing from the property of the corporation and adds nothing to the interests of the stockholders; that is, the corporation’s property is not diminished and the interests of the stockholders are not increased. T/F
The proportional interest of each shareholder changes. T/F
False - it does NOT constitute income to the investor
TRUE
FALSE - the share stays the SAME
___stock dividends are usually accounted for on the basis of the par or stated value of the stock rather than on the basis of fair value
Large
During January of the previous year, Doe Corp. agreed to sell the assets and product line of its Hart division. The sale on January 15 of the current year resulted in a gain on disposal of $900,000. Not considering any impairment losses, Hart’s operating losses were $600,000 for the previous year and $50,000 for the current-year period January 1 through January 15. Disregarding income taxes, what amount of net gain (loss) should be reported in Doe’s comparative current and previous years’ income statements?
Current year, $250,000; Previous year, $0
Current year, $0; Previous year, $250,000
Current year, $900,000; Previous year, $(650,000)
Current year, $850,000; Previous year, $(600,000)
Current year, $850,000; Previous year, $(600,000)
The sale of a division would be a discontinued operation since its disposition represents a strategic shift. The discontinued operation would be recorded in the year the sale occurred.
Previous Current
Net loss from continuing operations $(600,000) $(50,000)
Gain on sale of discontinued operations 900,000
Net income $(600,000) $850,000
A discontinued operation must be presented separately, either on the balance sheet or in the footnotes, in the period it is classified as held for sale and for all prior periods presented. T/F
The assets and liabilities of a disposal group must be presented separately in the asset and liability sections, respectively. T/F
A gain or loss recognized for a long-lived asset classified as held for sale that is not a component of an entity must be included in income from continuing operations. T/F
True
True
True
Which of the following should be disclosed as supplemental information in the statement of cash flows?
Both cash flow per share and conversion of debt to equity
Cash flow per share
Conversion of debt to equity
Neither cash flow per share nor conversion of debt to equity
Conversion of debt to equity
Accounting guidance states very specifically that “financial statements shall not report an amount of cash flow per share.”
Also, “information about all investing and financing activities of an enterprise during a period that affects recognized assets or liabilities shall be reported in related disclosures.”
Converting debt to equity is cited as an example of affecting recognized liabilities
The following changes in Vel Corp.’s account balances occurred during 20X1:
Increase
Assets $89,000
Liabilities 27,000
Capital stock 60,000
Additional paid-in capital 6,000
Except for a $13,000 dividend payment and the year’s earnings, there were no changes in retained earnings for 20X1. What was Vel’s net income for 20X1?
$9,000
$13,000
$17,000
$4,000
$9,000
Increases in assets must equal increases in liabilities and equity (specifically increase in retained earnings in equity): Assets = Liabilities + Equity.
Increase in Assets $89,000
Increase in Liabilities (27,000)
Increase in stockholder’s equity $62,000
Add back: Dividend Payment 13,000
Increase in stockholders’ equity
BEFORE dividends $75,000
Less increase-new capital stock issued:
Capital Stock $60,000
Additional Paid-in Capital 6,000__66,000
20X1 Net Income $ 9,000
The following changes in Vel Corp.’s account balances occurred during 20X1:
Increase
Assets $89,000
Liabilities 27,000
Capital stock 60,000
Additional paid-in capital 6,000
Except for a $13,000 dividend payment and the year’s earnings, there were no changes in retained earnings for 20X1. What was Vel’s net income for 20X1?
$9,000
$13,000
$17,000
$4,000
$9,000
Increases in assets must equal increases in liabilities and equity (specifically increase in retained earnings in equity): Assets = Liabilities + Equity.
Increase in Assets $89,000
Increase in Liabilities (27,000)
Increase in stockholder’s equity $62,000
Add back: Dividend Payment 13,000
Increase in stockholders’ equity
BEFORE dividends $75,000
Less increase-new capital stock issued:
Capital Stock $60,000
Additional Paid-in Capital 6,000__66,000
20X1 Net Income $ 9,000
The income statement may be presented in either of two formats—single step or multiple step. T/F
True
The single-step income statement is a simple and relatively straightforward presentation whereby all revenues and gains are combined at the top of the statement. T/F
True
Under the multiple-step income statement, a distinction is made between operating and nonoperating items. T/F
Example: Operating revenues and non-operating revenues /// operating expenses and non-operating expenses
True
On September 29, 20X1, Wall Co. paid $860,000 for all the issued and outstanding common stock of Hart Corp. On that date, the carrying amounts of Hart’s recorded assets and liabilities were $800,000 and $180,000, respectively. Hart’s recorded assets and liabilities had fair values of $840,000 and $140,000, respectively. In Wall’s September 30, 20X1, balance sheet, what amount should be reported as goodwill?
$20,000
$160,000
$240,000
$180,000
$160,000
When, in the purchase of another company, the purchase price exceeds the fair value of all the assets the purchased company owns, then the excess is goodwill.
Purchase price $860,000
Fair value of assets $840,000
Less fair value of liabilities 140,000
Net fair value of assets 700,000
Goodwill $160,000
========
Neely Co. disclosed in the notes to its financial statements that a significant number of its unsecured trade account receivables are with companies that operate in the same industry. This disclosure is required to inform financial statement users of the existence of:
off-balance sheet risk of accounting loss.
concentration of credit risk.
risk of measurement uncertainty.
concentration of market risk.
concentration of credit risk.
Credit risk is the potential loss from any party to an agreement failing to perform. Credit risk must be disclosed.
Off-balance sheet risk occurs when the amount of a loss exceeds the related asset. Market risk disclosure is encouraged, but not required
Disclosure of such risk must be made if, based on management’s information, the following criteria are met:
a. the concentration exists at the ___of the financial statements,b. the concentration make the entity ___to the risk of a near-term severe impact, andc. it is at least ___possible that the events that could cause the severe impact will occur in the near term.
Date
vulnerable
reasonably
A ___impact is defined as a significant financially disruptive effect on the normal functioning of an entity.
severe
Examples of categories of concentrations include:
a. concentrations in the ___of business transacted with a particular customer, supplier, lender, grantor, or contributor,
b. concentrations in ___from particular products, services, or fund-raising events,
c. concentrations in the available sources of supply of materials, labor, or services or of licenses or other rights used in the entity’s operations, andd. concentrations in the market or ___area in which an entity conducts its operations.
Volume
Revenue
geographic area
What percentage is required for a concentration to be present?
10%
Examples of categories of concentrations include:
a. concentrations in the volume of business transacted with a particular customer, supplier, lender, grantor, or contributor,
b. concentrations in revenues from particular products, services, or fund-raising events,
c. concentrations in the available sources of supply of materials, labor, or services or of licenses or other rights used in the entity’s operations, andd. concentrations in the market or geographic area in which an entity conducts its operations.
TGR Enterprises provided the following information from its statement of financial position for the year ended December 31:
January 1__December 31
Cash $ 10,000 $ 50,000
Accounts receivable 120,000 100,000
Inventories 200,000 160,000
Prepaid expenses 20,000 10,000
Accounts payable 175,000 120,000
Accrued liabilities 25,000 30,000
TGR’s sales and cost of sales for the year were $1,400,000 and $840,000, respectively. What is the accounts receivable turnover, in days?
- 1
- 7
- 3
- 7
You will be given a key for all ratios. You dont really need to memorize this.
Accounting receivable turnover = Net credit sales ÷ Average receivables:
- $1,400,000 ÷ (($120,000 + $100,000) ÷ 2) = 12.727 times in a year
Turnover in days = 365 days ÷ Turnover in a year:
- 365 ÷ 12.727 = 28.7 (rounded)
A company reported the following information for Year 1:
Net income $34,000
Owner contribution 9,000
Deferred gain on an effective cash-
flow hedge 8,000
Foreign currency translation gain 2,000
Prior service cost not recognized in
net periodic pension cost 5,000
What is the amount of other comprehensive income for Year 1?
$14,000
$15,000
$43,000
$5,000
$5,000
Other comprehensive income includes items such as gains and losses on foreign currency transactions designated as hedges, gains and losses on derivative instruments, and gains or losses associated with pension or other postretirement benefits.
Therefore, for this question the correct answer is $5,000:
- Deferred gain on an effective cash-flow hedge ($8,000) + Foreign currency translation gain ($2,000) − Prior service cost not recognized in net periodic pension cost ($5,000) = $5,000
According to the FASB conceptual framework, comprehensive income includes which of the following?
Neither loss on discontinued operations nor investment by owners
Investment by owners
Both loss on discontinued operations and investment by owners
Loss on discontinued operations
Loss on discontinued operations
SFAC 6 defines comprehensive income as: “Change in equity (net assets) of an entity during a period from transactions and other events and circumstances from nonowner sources. It includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by owners and distributions to owners.”
Loss on discontinued operations is part of net income which changes equity; therefore, it is part of comprehensive income. By definition, investments by owners are specifically excluded from comprehensive income.
Which of the following statements about the refinancing of short-term obligations is incorrect?
The intent to refinance the short-term obligations is a required criterion to reclassify current liabilities as long term.
The ability to refinance the short-term obligations is a required criterion to reclassify current liabilities as long term.
Short-term obligations that are paid with cash before the balance sheet is released to the public can be refinanced and reclassified as long term.
The amount that can be refinanced is limited to the amount actually refinanced or the amount specified in a refinancing agreement even though an actual refinancing did not occur.
Short-term obligations that are paid with cash before the balance sheet is released to the public can be refinanced and reclassified as long term.
Short-term obligations intended to be refinanced cannot be reclassified as noncurrent if they are paid with current assets prior to the actual refinancing or a new refinancing agreement being agreed upon. The payment of cash would represent a settlement of the short-term obligation, not a refinancing.
All of the other answer choices are correct statements about the refinancing of short-term obligations to be reclassified as noncurrent.
Short-Term Obligations Expected to Be Refinanced
Short-term obligations arising from transactions in the normal course of business that are due in customary terms must be classified as current liabilities. Other short-term obligations may be excluded from current liabilities, but only if the enterprise:
a. intends to ___the obligation on a long-term basis andb. demonstrates the ability to ____the refinancing.
Refinance
Consummate (idk what this means - just memorize it)
Refinancing a short-term obligation on a long-term basis means:
a. replacing it with a ___-term obligation or equity securities orb. renewing, extending, or replacing it with short-term obligations for an uninterrupted period extending beyond ___ year(s) (or the operating cycle, if applicable) from the date of an enterprise’s balance sheet.
long
one year
The ability to consummate the refinancing may be demonstrated in either of the following two ways:
- By actual ___of a long-term obligation or equity security after the balance sheet date, but before the balance sheet is issued, for the purpose of refinancing the short-term obligation2. By entering into a financing ___, before the balance sheet is issued, that clearly permits the enterprise to refinance the short-term obligation on a long-term basis on terms that are readily determinable
issuance
agreement
Papillon Corp. sold goods to its 90%-owned subsidiary, Trook Corp, during 20X6. At the end of 20X6, 1/4th of these goods were included in Trook’s ending inventory. In its income statement for 20X6, Papillon reported freight-out expenses of $790,000, none of which was paid on sales made to Trook. Trook reported $375,000 of freight-out expenses for the same period. Trook’s freight-out expenses included $103,000 in freight costs paid to ship goods to Papillon. What amount of selling expenses should be reported in Papillon’s 20X6 consolidated income statement?
$1,165,000
$1,072,300
$1,113,500
$1,062,000
$1,062,000
Since freight-out costs between Trook and Papillon are paid by the seller (Trook), they are not included in the value of inventory by the buyer (Papillon). Also, since they were paid on an intercompany sale, these costs should be eliminated from Papillon’s consolidated income statement. Thus, consolidated selling expenses for 20X6 are as follows:
- Papillon total + Trook’s total – Trook’s Intercompany
- ($790,000) + ($375,000 – $103,000)
- $790,000* + $272,000 = $1,062,000
Envoy Co. manufactures and sells household products. Envoy experienced losses associated with its small appliance group. Operations and cash flows for this group can be clearly distinguished from the rest of Envoy’s operations. In a strategic shift, Envoy plans to sell the small appliance group with its operations. What is the earliest point at which Envoy should report the small appliance group as a discontinued operation?
When Envoy classifies it as held for sale
When Envoy first sells any of the assets of the segment
When Envoy sells the majority of the assets of the segment
When Envoy receives an offer for the segment
When Envoy classifies it as held for sale
Discontinued operations are presented in a separate section of the income statement after income from continuing operations.
The discontinued operations section reflects the results of operations of an entity that is classified for sale or has actually been disposed of.
At the end of the accounting period, the components of other comprehensive income are transferred to which of the following stockholders’ equity accounts?
Retained earnings
Treasury stock
Additional paid-in capital (common stock)
Accumulated other comprehensive income
Accumulated other comprehensive income
The total of other comprehensive income for a period is transferred to a component of equity that is presented in the statement of financial position separately from retained earnings and additional paid-in capital.
This element of stockholders’ equity should carry an appropriate title, such as accumulated other comprehensive income.
The accumulated balances of each separate classification of that component of stockholders’ equity is required, either in the statement of financial position or in notes to the financial statements.
The classifications of other comprehensive income must be consistent throughout the financial statements.
Strut Co. has a payable to its parent, Plane Co. In which of the following balance sheets should this payable be reported separately?
Neither Strut’s balance sheet nor Plane’s consolidated balance sheet
Plane’s consolidated balance sheet
Both Strut’s balance sheet and Plane’s consolidated balance sheet
Strut’s balance sheet
Strut’s balance sheet
The payable to Plane Co. from Strut Co. would only appear on Strut Co.’s balance sheet. Payable and receivable amounts that are due to and due from subsidiaries of a consolidated business entity are not reported on the consolidated balance sheet of the consolidated company.
The payable would be eliminated during the consolidation process and would not appear on the balance sheet of the consolidated entity or the standalone balance sheet of the parent.
Which of the following would be reported as an investing activity in a company’s statement of cash flows?
Collection of proceeds from a note payable
Collection of a note receivable from a related party
Collection of an overdue account receivable from a customer
Collection of a tax refund from the government
Collection of a note receivable from a related party
Investing activities involve asset transactions other than those related to operating results (e.g., accounts receivables from sales and taxes).
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of noncontrolling interest on the income statement?
None of the answer choices are appropriate disclosure of the noncontrolling interest on the income statement.
Revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income are reported in the consolidated financial statements as the amounts attributable to the owners of the parent, followed by a separate disclosure of the revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income attributable to the noncontrolling interest.
Revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income are reported in the consolidated financial statements at the owners’ amounts with disclosure of the noncontrolling interest only in the footnotes.
Revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income are reported in the consolidated financial statements at the consolidated amounts, which include the amounts attributable to the owners of the parent and the noncontrolling interest.
Revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income are reported in the consolidated financial statements at the consolidated amounts, which include the amounts attributable to the owners of the parent and the noncontrolling interest.
FASB ASC 810-10-45-19 requires that the consolidated amounts of these items (revenues, expenses, gains, losses, net income or loss, and other comprehensive income) be reported on the income statement.
The amount of consolidated net income attributable to the parent and to the noncontrolling interest must be clearly identified and presented on the face of the consolidated statement of income.
A holder of a variable interest that is not the primary beneficiary acquired additional variable interests in the variable interest entity (VIE). What action, if any, should follow?
No action is necessary because the primary beneficiary of a VIE does not change subsequent to the initial assessment.
The holder of the variable interest should use the voting-interest model to determine whether the VIE should be consolidated.
The primary beneficiary should discontinue consolidation of the VIE because the election to consolidate is no longer allowed.
The holder of the variable interest should reconsider whether it is now the primary beneficiary.
The holder of the variable interest should reconsider whether it is now the primary beneficiary.
When the holder of a variable interest that is not the primary beneficiary increases the level of interest the holder has in the variable interest entity, it must assess if the increased interest has now made the holder the primary beneficiary and therefore possibly subject to consolidation procedures. The primary beneficiary is subject to change as facts change, making a reassessment necessary.
Without evidence to the contrary, the primary beneficiary should continue to consolidate the entity. No information is given that would cause the primary beneficiary to believe they are not the primary beneficiary. We are given no information about voting or ownership percentages, making the voting-interest model not applicable.
An entity is known as a variable interest entity and is subject to consolidation if, by design, either of the following conditions (a. or b.) exists:
a. The total equity investment at risk is not sufficient to permit the entity to finance its activities without additional subordinated financial support from other parties.
b. As a group the holders of the equity investment at risk lack any one or more of the following three characteristics of a controlling financial interest:
(1) The power, through voting rights or similar rights, to direct the activities of an entity that most significantly impact the entity’s economic performance
(2) The obligation to absorb the expected losses of the entity if they occur
(3) The right to receive the expected residual returns of the entity if they occur
Yep
An entity is known as a variable interest entity and is subject to consolidation if, by design, either of the following conditions (a. or b.) exists:
a. The total equity investment at risk is not sufficient to permit the entity to finance its activities without additional subordinated financial ___from other parties.
b. As a group the holders of the equity investment at risk lack any one or more of the following three characteristics of a controlling financial interest:
(1) The power, through ___rights or similar rights, to direct the activities of an entity that most significantly impact the entity’s economic performance
(2) The obligation to absorb the expected ___of the entity if they occur
(3) The right to receive the expected residual ___of the entity if they occur
support
voting
losses
returns
Where in its financial statements should a company disclose information about its concentration of credit risks?
No disclosure is required.
Management’s report to shareholders
The notes to the financial statements
Supplementary information to the financial statements
FASB ASC 825-10-50-20 requires note disclosures regarding a company’s concentrations of credit risks.
Whitt Co. prepares its statement of cash flows using the indirect method. Whitt’s unamortized bond premium account decreased by $18,500 during the year. How should Whitt report the change in unamortized bond premium in its statement of cash flows?
As a subtraction from net income in the operating activities section
As a financing cash outflow
As a financing cash inflow
As an addition to net income in the operating activities section
As a subtraction from net income in the operating activities section
The amortization of a bond premium is the difference between cash interest and interest expense. Cash paid for interest is reported in operating activities. Under the indirect method, interest expense is already included in net income. Amortization of a premium on bonds payable results in the interest expense amount being less than cash paid.
Because less expense has been deducted in computing income than the amount of cash paid for interest, the difference (captured in the change in the bond discount account) must be subtracted from income to reconcile to the cash provided or used for operating activities.
Which of the following should be disclosed in a summary of significant accounting policies?
Future lease payments in the aggregate and for each of the five succeeding fiscal years
Depreciation expense
Composition of sales by segment
Basis of profit recognition on long-term construction contracts
Basis of profit recognition on long-term construction contracts
Only basis of profit recognition on long-term construction contracts is disclosure related to an accounting method.
The other answer choices might be included in disclosure related to those specific expenses, but are not accounting methods that would be included in the significant accounting policies footnote.
Contract balances: An entity should disclose all of the following:
- The opening and closing ___of receivables, contract assets, and contract liabilities from contracts with customers, if not otherwise separately presented or disclosed
- Revenue ____ in the reporting period that was included in the contract liability balance at the beginning of the period
- Revenue recognized in the reporting period from ____ ____ satisfied or partially satisfied in previous periods; for example, changes in transaction price
balances
recognized
performance obligations
FASB ASC 235-10-05-3 requires disclosure of significant___ policies.
The accounting policies of an entity are the specific accounting principles and the methods of applying those principles that are judged by the management of the entity to be the most appropriate in the circumstances to present fair ___ ___
accounting
financial reporting
Baler Co. prepared its statement of cash flows at year-end using the direct method. The following amounts were used in the computation of cash flows from operating activities:
Beginning inventory $ 200,000
Ending inventory 150,000
Cost of goods sold 1,200,000
Beginning accounts payable 300,000
Ending accounts payable 200,000
What amount should Baler report as cash paid to suppliers for inventory purchases?
$1,350,000
$1,200,000
$1,250,000
$1,300,000
$1,250,000
Yellow Co. received a large worker’s compensation claim of $90,000 in the third quarter for an injury occurring in the third quarter. How should Yellow account for the transaction in its interim financial report?
Recognize $90,000 in the third quarter
Recognize $30,000 for each of the first three quarters
Recognize $22,500 ratably over the four quarters of the year
Disclose the $90,000 in the third quarter and recognize it at year-end
Recognize $90,000 in the third quarter
In general, interim financial reports should be based on the principles, practices, and policies used in the preparation of the last annual report.
Deferrals, accruals, and estimations at the end of each interim period are determined on the same basis as the same judgments would be made for an annual period; hence Yellow would recognize the entire $90,000 in the third quarter.
During the year, Verity Co. purchased $200,000 of Otra Co. bonds at par and $50,000 of U.S. Treasury bills. Verity classified the Otra bonds as available-for-sale securities and the Treasury bills as cash equivalents. In Verity’s statement of cash flows, what amount should it report as net cash used in investing activities?
$0
$200,000
$250,000
$150,000
$200,000
Cash payments to acquire debt instruments of other entities are classified as cash outflows from investing activities on the statement of cash flows. The purchase of Otra Co. bonds would represent a net cash used of $200,000.
Cash paid for items classified as cash and cash equivalents are not reported on the statement of cash flows because they are merely a transfer of one type of cash for another type of cash.
Cash equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that:
- are readily ___to known amounts of cash and
- are so near maturity that they represent insignificant risk of changes in value due to changes in interest rates. (Generally, only investments with original maturities of ___ months or less qualify as cash equivalents, such as Treasury bills, commercial paper, money market funds, and federal funds sold.)
convertible
three months
Treasury bills, commercial paper, money market funds, and federal funds sold.
These are examples of what?
Cash equivalents
During 20X2, Solomon Co. purchased equipment for cash of $128,000, and sold equipment with a $38,000 carrying value for a loss of $14,000. How should these transactions be reported in Solomon’s 20X2 statement of cash flows?
Cash inflow of $24,000 and cash outflow of $128,000
Cash outflow of $142,000
Cash outflow of $104,000
Cash outflow of $152,000
Cash inflow of $24,000 and cash outflow of $128,000
According to FASB ASC 230-10-45-13, cash flows associated with transactions involving long-term assets are classified as cash flows from investing activities.
Cash inflows are not to be netted against cash outflows.
There is a cash outflow of $128,000 to purchase equipment given directly in the problem. The cash inflow must be determined from the facts as given. A loss on disposal indicates that the cash received is lower than the carrying value.
Carrying value $38,000
Loss on disposal (14,000)
Cash selling price $24,000
=======
On January 2 of the current year, Peace Co. paid $310,000 to purchase 75% of the voting shares of Surge Co. Peace reported retained earnings of $80,000, and Surge reported contributed capital of $300,000 and retained earnings of $100,000.
The purchase differential was attributed to depreciable assets with a remaining useful life of 10 years. Peace used the equity method in accounting for its investment in Surge.
Surge reported net income of $20,000 and paid dividends of $8,000 during the current year. Peace reported income, exclusive of its income from Surge, of $30,000 and paid dividends of $15,000 during the current year.
What amount will Peace report as dividends declared and paid in its current year’s consolidated statement of retained earnings?
$23,000
$21,000
$8,000
$15,000
$15,000
Only dividends paid to Peace shareholders will be reported as dividends paid. Dividends paid to Peace by Surge will be eliminated in consolidation.
Dividends paid to shareholders other than Peace will be reported as an adjustment to the noncontrolling interest account.
Green Co. had the following equity transactions at December 31:
Cash proceeds from sale of investment in Blue Co.
(carrying value $60,000) $75,000
Dividends received on Grey Co. stock 10,500
Common stock purchased from Brown Co. 38,000
What amount should Green recognize as net cash from investing activities in its statement of cash flows at December 31?
$47,500
$75,000
$37,000
$85,500
$37,000
Cash proceeds from the sale of an investment are a cash inflow and cash paid to purchase stock is a cash outflow. Both are investing activities.
- $75,000 - $38,000 = $37,000
Karr, Inc., reported net income of $300,000 for 20X1. Changes occurred in several balance sheet accounts as follows:
Equipment $25,000 increase
Accumulated depreciation 40,000 increase
Note payable 30,000 increase
Additional Information
- During 20X1, Karr sold equipment costing $25,000, with accumulated depreciation of $12,000, for a gain of $5,000.
- In December 20X1, Karr purchased equipment costing $50,000 with $20,000 cash and a 12% note payable of $30,000.
- Depreciation expense for the year was $52,000.
In Karr’s 20X1 statement of cash flows, net cash used in investing activities should be:
$35,000.
$12,000.
$2,000.
$22,000.
A company is preparing its year-end cash flow statement using the indirect method. During the year, the following transactions occurred:
Dividends paid $300
Proceeds from the issuance of common stock 250
Borrowings under a line of credit 200
Proceeds from the issuance of convertible bonds 100
Proceeds from the sale of a building 150
What is the company’s increase in cash flows provided by financing activities for the year?
$250
$50
$350
$150
$250
The company’s increase in cash flows is $250, calculated as follows:
Dividends paid $(300)
Proceeds from the issuance of common stock 250
Borrowings under a line of credit 200
Proceeds from the issuance of convertible bond 100
Net increase from financing activities $250
The proceeds from the sale of a building are included in investing activities.
Which of the following statements about reporting discontinued operations in the balance sheet is incorrect?
The assets and liabilities of the component of the entity can be reported as a single or net amount.
If the discontinued operation includes both assets and liabilities, they must be presented separately in the respective asset and liability sections of the entity’s balance sheet.
The discontinued operation must be reported separately in the balance sheet in the period in which it is classified as held for sale.
If prior periods are presented, the assets and liabilities classified as held for sale must be separated out in prior periods as well as in the period in which the assets are initially classified as held for sale.
The assets and liabilities of the component of the entity can be reported as a single or net amount.
The assets and liabilities of a component that qualify as discontinued operations need to be reported separately from assets in use on the balance sheet.
When such reporting occurs, the assets need to be separated in a similar manner in any prior periods presented.
When a component has both assets and liabilities, they are not to be “netted,” but rather the assets should be reported in the asset section of the balance sheet and the liabilities should be reported in the liability section of the balance sheet.
*
A company had the following transactions during the year:
Principal payments on notes payable $48,000
Interest payments on notes payable 8,000
Cash payment to purchase 100 shares of
another company’s common stock 25,000
What amount is classified as cash outflow for financing activities in the company’s statement of cash flows?
$48,000
$81,000
$56,000
$73,000
$48,000
Financing activities are those activities that provide financing or use financing. They include the issuance and repurchase of a company’s own stock, cash dividend payments to shareholders, and the issuance and repurchase of debt. Interest on debt is an operating activity while purchase of another company’s stock is an investing activity.
The only answer choice that meets the definition of financing is principal payments on notes payable for $48,000, which is a form of debt repayment.
Sanni Co. had $150,000 in cash-basis pretax income for the year. At the current year-end, accounts receivable decreased by $20,000 and accounts payable increased by $16,000 from their previous year-end balances. Compared to the accrual-basis method of accounting, Sanni’s cash-basis pretax income is:
higher by $4,000.
higher by $36,000.
lower by $36,000.
lower by $4,000.
higher by $36,000.
Relative to accrual basis, a decrease in accounts receivable is an increase in cash because cash must be received to decrease accounts receivable.
Relative to accrual basis, an increase in accounts payable is an increase in cash because accounts payable was increased instead of making cash purchases.
Decrease in accounts receivable $20,000
Increase in accounts payable 16,000
Total increase in cash-basis income $36,000
Financial statement line item explanations include which of the following?
Degree of credit or nonperformance risk
Segment reporting
Potential litigation
Inability to maintain a qualified workforce
Degree of credit or nonperformance risk
Many financial statement line item explanations, such as local denomination demand deposits, do not require further explanatory information. However, other line items require varying degrees of disclosure. A summary of potential additional disclosures is as follows:
- For assets: the nature, quality, and location; future cash flows; relation to other line items; and significant contractual, statutory, regulatory, or judicial restrictions.
- For assets and liabilities resulting from financial instruments or other contracts: contractual or legal terms (e.g., timing of receipts and disbursements), degree of credit or nonperformance risk, potential effect related to inability to pay or perform, and method used to determine the cash flows.
- Other disclosures could include equity instrument terms or conditions, potential effects of changing accounting methods, breakdown of aggregated line items, alternative measurements, and the line item’s relation to other line items.
When entities face risk due to a lack of diversification, they must include disclosures in the notes to the financial statements about “vulnerability to concentrations.” Which of the following is not an example of a concentration to which an entity may be considered vulnerable?
An entity relies on certain available sources of raw materials, labor, services, or licenses.
An entity manufactures products that are used in a wide variety of industries.
An entity operates primarily in the specific market or geographic region in which an entity conducts its operations.
An entity has a large volume of business with one customer, supplier, lender, or contributor.
An entity manufactures products that are used in a wide variety of industries.
Categories of concentrations include a large volume of business with one customer, supplier, lender, contributor, or grantor. Categories also include when an entity operates primarily in the specific market or geographic region in which an entity conducts its operations and when an entity relies heavily on certain available sources of raw materials, labor, services, licenses, or other rights.
Finally, a category exists when an entity has a concentration in revenue form particular products, services, or fundraising events.
An entity that manufactures products that are used in a wide variety of industries would have a lower, not higher, vulnerability to concentrations.
Mirr, Inc., was incorporated on January 1, 20X0, with proceeds from the issuance of $750,000 in stock and borrowed funds of $110,000. During the first year of operations, revenues from sales and consulting amounted to $82,000, and operating costs and expenses totaled $64,000. On December 15, 20X0, Mirr declared a $3,000 cash dividend, payable to stockholders on January 15, 20X1. No additional activities affected owners’ equity in 20X0. Mirr’s liabilities increased to $120,000 by December 31, 20X0. On Mirr’s December 31, 20X0, balance sheet (statement of financial position), total assets should be reported at:
$875,000.
$882,000.
$885,000.
$878,000.
___: Probable future economic benefits obtained or controlled by a particular entity as a result of past transactions or events
___: probable future sacrifices of economic benefits arising from present obligations to transfer assets or provide services to other entities as a result of past transactions
___: The residual interest in the assets of an entity that remains after deducting its liabilities. For a corporation, equity is the ownership interest
Assets
Liabilities
Equtiy
A general principle of accounting is that the offsetting of assets and liabilities in the balance sheet is improper except where a right of ___exists.
setoff
A debtor with a payable to an entity MAY offset a receivable from that same entity and display only the difference as a net payable or receivable T/F
False – they MAY NOT
For example, a debtor with a payable to an entity may not offset a receivable from that same entity and display only the difference as a net payable or receivable unless the following specified conditions are met for the right of setoff to exist:
a. Each of the two parties owes the other ___amounts.
b. The reporting party has the right to set off the amount owed with the amount owed by the other party. T/F
c. The reporting entity ___ to set off.
d. The right of setoff is enforceable at ___
determinable
True
Intends
law
A public entity sells steel for use in construction. One of its customers accounts for 43% of sales, and another customer accounts for 40% of sales. What should the entity disclose in its annual financial statements about these two customers?
The financial condition of the two customers
The amount of the entity’s revenue from each of the two customers
The names of the two customers
The payment terms of accounts receivable due from each of the two customers
The amount of the entity’s revenue from each of the two customers
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to 10% or more of an entity’s revenues, the business must disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the segments reporting the revenues.
A major customer is a single customer, or a group of entities, known to a reporting enterprise to be under common control.
The identity, payment terms, and financial condition of the customers do not need to be disclosed.
If revenues from transactions with a single external customer amount to __% or more of an enterprise’s revenues, the enterprise must disclose that fact, the total amount of revenues from each such customer, and the identity of the segments reporting the revenues.
10%
Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts 8 (SFAC 8), Chapter 8, lists four limitations/constraints to consider related to disclosure requirements. They are:
representational faithfulness, materiality, future-oriented information, and predictive value.
cost constraint, materiality, potential adverse consequences, and historical cost.
cost constraint, potential adverse consequences, future-oriented information, and relevance.
relevance, representational faithfulness, materiality, and predictive value.
cost constraint, potential adverse consequences, future-oriented information, and relevance.
- Relevance: Disclosure is based upon relevance, not entity-specific materiality.
- Cost constraint: The FASB has an expectation that financial statement users have awareness of accounting rules, policies, and regulations; thus, common knowledge can be excluded from the notes. Disclosure should include details of measurement if alternatives exist, methods not obvious to the user, or methods if changed since prior reporting.
- Potential adverse consequences: The FASB will consider potential adverse consequences. Disclosure can have both beneficial and adverse consequences.
- Future-oriented information: The FASB does not require entities to disclose predictions of future outcomes that could result in negative consequences. However, two types of forward-looking information are useful and should be provided: (1) estimates and assumptions, and (2) management’s existing plans and strategies for management-controlled matters.
- ___: Disclosure is based upon relevance, not entity-specific materiality.
- ___ ___: The FASB has an expectation that financial statement users have awareness of accounting rules, policies, and regulations; thus, common knowledge can be excluded from the notes. Disclosure should include details of measurement if alternatives exist, methods not obvious to the user, or methods if changed since prior reporting.
- ___ ___ ___: The FASB will consider potential adverse consequences. Disclosure can have both beneficial and adverse consequences.
- ___-___ ___: The FASB does not require entities to disclose predictions of future outcomes that could result in negative consequences. However, two types of forward-looking information are useful and should be provided: (1) estimates and assumptions, and (2) management’s existing plans and strategies for management-controlled matters.
Relevance
Cost Constraint
Potential Adverse Consequences
Future-oriented information
For purposes of consolidating financial interests, a majority voting interest is deemed to be:
greater than 50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding voting shares of another entity.
50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding voting shares of another entity.
50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding voting shares and at least 50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding nonvoting shares of another entity.
greater than 50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding voting shares and at least 50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding nonvoting shares of another entity.
greater than 50% of the directly or indirectly owned outstanding voting shares of another entity.
GAAP requires that consolidated financial statements be prepared when one of the entities in the group directly or indirectly has a controlling financial interest in the other entities.
FASB ASC 810 specifies that, in general, the usual condition for consolidated financial statements is ownership (direct or indirect) of a majority voting interest (i.e., at least one share in excess of 50%).
During 20X1, Beck Co. purchased equipment for cash of $47,000, and sold equipment with a $10,000 carrying value for a gain of $5,000. How should these transactions be reported in Beck’s 20X1 statement of cash flows?
Cash inflow of $5,000 and cash outflow of $47,000
Cash inflow of $15,000 and cash outflow of $47,000
Cash outflow of $32,000
Cash outflow of $42,000
Cash inflow of $15,000 and cash outflow of $47,000
In its 20X1 income statement, Kilm Co. reported cost of goods sold of $450,000. Changes occurred in several balance sheet accounts as follows:
Inventory $160,000 decrease
Accounts payable—suppliers 40,000 decrease
What amount should Kilm report as cash paid to suppliers in its 20X1 cash flow statement, prepared under the direct method?
$570,000
$250,000
$650,000
$330,000
$330,000
A company has the following liabilities at year-end:
Mortgage note payable; $16,000 due within 12 months $355,000
Short-term debt that the company is refinancing
with long-term debt 175,000
Deferred tax liability arising from depreciation 25,000
What amount should the company include in the current liability section of the balance sheet (statement of financial position)?
$41,000
$191,000
$0
$16,000
$16,000
Only the current portion of the mortgage is included in current liabilities.
All deferred tax liabilities and deferred tax assets are classified as noncurrent. The refinanced loan is not included in current liabilities. The FASB states that a short-term obligation should be excluded from current liabilities if the entity intends to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis, and that intent is supported by an ability to consummate the refinancing.
Current liabilities represent obligations whose liquidation is expected to require the use of current assets or the creation of other current liabilities, and include the following:
a. Obligations for items that have entered into the ___ ___
b. Collections received in ___of the delivery of goods or performance of services
c. Debts arising from operations directly related to the operating cycle (e.g., accruals for wages, salaries, commissions, rentals, royalties, and income and other taxes) T/F
d. Other liabilities whose regular and ordinary liquidation is expected to occur within ___ ___ or less (e.g., dividends payable, warranty payable, interest payable)
Operating Cycle (operating cycle is within 1 year)
advance (unearned revenue)
True
one year
On December 31, 20X1, Date Co. awaits judgment on a lawsuit for a competitor’s infringement of Date’s patent. Legal counsel believes it is probable that Date will win the suit and indicated the most likely award together with a range of possible awards. How should the lawsuit be reported in Date’s 20X1 financial statements?
By accrual for the lowest amount of the range of possible awards
In note disclosure only
Neither in note disclosure nor by accrual
By accrual for the most likely award
In note disclosure only
If Date Co. wins the lawsuit, the award paid to Date will be a gain.
FASB ASC 450-30-50-1 provides that gain contingencies should not be reflected in the accounts (i.e., accrued) but that adequate disclosure should be made in notes to the financial statements.
A loss contingency would be reported by accrual for the most likely award or for the lowest amount of the range of possible awards if no amount can be considered most likely. (FASB ASC 450-20-25-4)
An important element of the topic of risks and uncertainties is selectivity. Selectivity involves the specified criteria that serve to screen the ___and ___encountered by every entity
The types of risks and uncertainties discussed in this section are:
a. the nature of the entity’s ___,
b. the use of ___in the preparation of the entity’s financial statements, and
c. significant ___in certain aspects of the entity’s operations.
risks and uncertainties
a. Operations
b. estimates
c. concentrations
Which of the following information should be included in Gold Corporation’s 20X7 summary of significant accounting policies?
The specific amounts of the components of pension expense
The specific amounts of raw material inventory, work-in-process inventory, and finished goods shown in aggregate on the balance sheet
The policies regarding inventory valuation and the methods used for inventory cost determination
The valuation model used to determine the value of stock options granted to upper-level managers
The policies regarding inventory valuation and the methods used for inventory cost determination
FASB ASC 235-10-50-4 requires a description of all significant accounting policies when financial statements are issued. A listing of required policy disclosures by this pronouncement includes basis of consolidation, depreciation methods, amortization of intangibles, inventory pricing, and several other items.
Gold should include information concerning how inventory is valued and the inventory cost flow assumptions used in its summary of significant accounting policies.
Note: While the other three information items in the answer choices should be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements, they should not be included in the summary of significant accounting policies.
Examples of accounting principles and methods for which disclosure of policy is frequently made include, but are not limited to, the following:
a. Depreciation methods
b. Consolidation basis
c. Interperiod tax allocation
d. Inventory pricing
e. Revenue recognition methods
Yep!
General purpose external financial reporting of a corporation focuses primarily on the needs of which of the following users?
Investors and creditors and their advisors
The board of directors of the corporation
Regulatory and taxing authorities
The management of the corporation
Investors and creditors and their advisors
General purpose financial statements are designed to provide information to the primary users since information cannot be provided directly to these users.
The primary users are existing and potential investors, lenders, and other creditors. These users make decisions about buying, selling, or holding equity and debt instruments or providing credit by evaluating the expected returns from their investment. These parties need information about the prospects of future net cash inflows to the entity.
They also need information about the entity’s resources, claims against those resources, and how efficiently the entity’s management and governing board have used the entity’s resources.
Regulatory and taxing authorities, the board of directors, and management of the corporation are also users of general purpose financial statements; however, they are not the primary users.
General purpose financial statements are designed to provide information to the ___users since information cannot be provided directly to these users.
The primary users are ___and ___investors, lenders, and other creditors. These users make decisions about buying, selling, or providing credit by evaluating the expected returns from their investment. These parties need information about the prospects of future net cash inflows to the entity.
They also need information about the entity’s resources, claims against those resources, and how efficiently the entity’s management and governing board have used the entity’s resources. T/F
Regulatory and taxing authorities, the board of directors, and management of the corporation are also users of general purpose financial statements. These are primary users also. T/F
primary
existing and potential
True
False. Regulatory and taxing authorities, the board of directors, and management of the corporation are NOT primary users. They’re secondary users.
Which of the following does not represent an element of other comprehensive income under current generally accepted accounting principles?
Amortization of unrecognized prior service costs related to a pension plan
Cumulative effect of a change in accounting estimate
Accumulated gains and losses on available-for-sale debt investments
Foreign currency adjustments
Cumulative effect of a change in accounting estimate
The components of other comprehensive income are to be presented based on their nature. Under current authoritative accounting literature, three categories of elements of other comprehensive income exist:
Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale debt investments
Foreign currency items
Changes in unrecognized prior service costs, unrecognized gains and losses, and unrecognized transition assets or obligations related to defined benefit pension plans and defined benefit other postretirement plans
The components of other comprehensive income are to be presented based on their nature. Under current authoritative accounting literature, three categories of elements of other comprehensive income exist:
Unrealized gains and losses on ___-___-__ debt investments
Foreign _____items
Changes in unrecognized prior ___ ___, unrecognized gains and losses, and unrecognized transition assets or obligations related to defined benefit pension plans and defined benefit other postretirement plans
available for sale
Currency
service costs
Which of the following is included on a statement of changes in equity?
Events changing stockholders’ equity accounts are listed chronologically to the left.
All of the items listed are included on a statement of changes in equity.
The impact of the transactions on the number of shares of stock, if any, is presented in the descriptions to the left.
Column headings identify individual stockholders’ equity accounts.
All of the items listed are included on a statement of changes in equity.
A statement of changes in stockholders’ equity includes the following:
- Column headings that identify individual stockholders’ equity accounts
- Events changing stockholders’ equity accounts
- The body of the statement presented in terms of the dollar impact of various transactions and events
- The impact of the transactions on the number of shares of stock, if any
- Ending balances that tie to the items presented in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet on the same dates
A statement of changes in stockholders’ equity includes the following:
- ___headings that identify individual stockholders’ equity accounts
- ___changing stockholders’ equity accounts
- The body of the statement presented in terms of the dollar impact of various transactions and events T/F
- The impact of the transactions on the number of shares of ___, if any
- ___balances that tie to the items presented in the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet on the same dates
Column
Events
True
Stock
ending