19.+20.+21. Mice genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is forward and reverse genetic analysis?

A

Forward genetics - phenotype driven:
random mutation -> phenotype -> gene identification -> interpretation of gene function => uncovers genetic basis of phenotype

Reverse genetics - gene driven:
gene identification -> targeted mutation -> phenotype -> interpretation of gene function => uncovers gene function by targeted mutations

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2
Q

What is gene trapping?

A

Gene trapping - an approach to study gene function using random insertional mutagenesis introducing a tag to identify (an intermediate between forward and reverse)
Random tag insertion -> gene identification -> phenotype -> interpretation of gene function

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3
Q

What are the three approaches for studying gene function in vivo?

A
  • Forward genetics: random mutation -> phenotype
  • Reverse genetics: trageted mutation -> phenotype
  • Gene trapping: random tag insertion -> following gene in phenotype
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4
Q

What is an example of a conserved gene in species development?

A

Pax6 for eye development with conserved am. a. across species

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5
Q

Explain what is a balancer chromosome

A

Balancer chromosome: engineered chromosome which prevents recombination during meiosis ensuring specific genotypes - because genes are inverted

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6
Q

How are recessive mutations studied?

A

Ex: Heidelbrg screen in Drosophila - forward genetics: crossing a fly with balancer chromosome + random mutation -> crossing until mutated recessive allele is segregated homozygous genotype -> can study recessive phenotypes

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7
Q

Explain the Heidelberg discovery

A

Heidelberg discovery - Hedgehog (Hh) pathway: Hh mutations in flies cause forebrain defects: decreased sonic hedgehog -> no separation of forebrain

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8
Q

What are the possible chemical mutagens?

A
  • ENU (ethylnitrosourea)
  • EMS (ethyl methane sulphonate)
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9
Q

How are zebrafish large scale screens performed?

A

Random mutation -> crossing until affected genotype observed as phenotype

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10
Q

Why are mice a suitable model for studying mammalian developmental processes?

A

Mice are suitable model species because:
- mammalian
- small size
- diet + environment
- reproductive efficiency (non-seasonal breeding) - av litter size 10, gestation 20 days
- long term record + DNA resources + sequenced genome
- tolerant to inbreeding
- embryos and sperm can be cryopreserved
- ES cells
- publically accepted for experiments

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11
Q

What are the apparent differences between mouse and human genomes?

A

Mouse genome: 19 autosomes, telocentric chromosomes, 37k CpG islands

Human genome: 22 autosomes, metacentric and submetacentris chromosomes, 45k CpG islands

=> 70-90% sequence homology - suitable to be used as models for human processes - syntenic genes (almost complete synteny on X chromosome)

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12
Q

Explain the way in which ENU functions

A

ENU - supermutagen:
- transfers ethyl group to oxygen + nitrogen radicals in DNA -> mispairing
- ex: single base pair substitutions in spermatogonial cells at high efficiency
- each F1 generation may carry up to 100 mutations (if one locus mutated - can impact many phenotypes)

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13
Q

Missense vs nonsense mutation

A

Missense mutation: am. a. substitution

Nonsense mutation: premature protein termination - stop codom

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14
Q

Hypomorph vs antimoprh vs neomorph alelles

A

Hypomorph: mutant allele retains some gene function, less severe than LOF

Antimorph: mutant allele that antagonises normal gene function

Neomorph: mutant allele acquired new function

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15
Q

What are the genotypes of inbred and outbred mouse strains? What are their features?

A

Outbred:
- approximates human population
- heterozygous vigour
- maintain mutants as heterozygous - don’t die

Inbred:
- unique strain
- brother x sister >20 generations
- fixed genetic background - high probability of homozygosity - every individual is identical for autosome genotypes (X and Y diff)
-> mutations can be studied because background is fixed - other genes won’t interfere

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16
Q

Explain what is genetic linkage?

A

Genetic linkage: association of alleles which influences them to get transmitted to offspring in parental combination more frequently

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17
Q

How is recombination frequency influenced by distance between genes?

A

The further apart - the higher rate of recombination on the chromosome

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18
Q

Explain what is serial backcrossing?

A

Serial backcrossing - allows to determine which gene is responsible for a specific phenotype:
cross with inbred strain -> introduced new trait into neutral background -> cross offspring with parent again -> congenic strain created

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19
Q

What are the two commonly used DNA components used as markers?

A

Microsatellite markers - dinucleotide repeats (ex (CA)n where n=10-60) distributed in the genome - repeats are varying between mouse strains

SNPs - specific shared between strains but also can vary - can be used for identification

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20
Q

How can DNA sequences be identified that stay with the trait after multiple rounds of backcrossing?

A

Identifying DNA sequences that stayed with the allele for specific trait:
1. Design primers for PCR
2. Amplify by PCR
3. Sequence PCR products
4. Compare sequences from control vs trait affected

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21
Q

How can functional gene identification be performed?

A

Functional identification:
- backcrossing - gene region of the trait identify with markers (microsatellites / SNPs)
- gene region cut into diff segments - diff segments inserted into diff BACs
- diff BACs transformed into diff mice
- identify which BAC produced the target phenotype - BAC complementation

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22
Q

Quiz 1

A
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23
Q

Quiz 2

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24
Q

Quiz 3

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25
Q

What are the stages of early development?

A

Fertilization -> morula -> blastocyst -> embryo

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26
Q

What is are the processes that lead fertilised egg development into implantation stage embryo?

A
  • Ovulation
  • Fertilization
  • Early cleavage
  • Compaction
  • Hatching
  • Implantation
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27
Q

Explain what is pronuclear transgenesis?

A

Pronuclear transgenesis:
- Collect fertilized eggs from mother I
- Inject male nucleolus of fertilized egg with purified target sequence from BAC/YAC (fragment amplification) - DNA inserts randomly
- Transfer into mother II - pseudopregnant (mated with sterile males)
- Observe phenotype in born pups

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28
Q

What tool is used for pronuclear transgenesis?

A

Inverted microscope with 400x magnification with micromanipulator: right - injection pipette, left - negative pressure holding pipette

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29
Q

What are the potential effects of new gene introduction via pronuclear transgenesis?

A
  • Position effect: integrates randomly - chromatin state determines if will get expressed / not expressed
  • Mutagenic: integration may disrupt a gene - mutation
  • Concatemers: injected DNA can recombine and form concatemers before integration (usually introduced as multicopy arrays)
  • Not intact: injected DNA may be partially degraded - not all sequence integrated - transgene insertion not intact
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30
Q

What are concatemers?

A

Concatemers: a continuous DNA molecule that contains multiple copies of the same DNA sequence linked in series

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31
Q

Why is each strain of pronuclear transgenesis unique?

A

Each strain of pronuclear transgenesis is unique:
- irandom integration - diff integration sites
- different copy numbers (may be degraded/ recombined - change lengths)
- integrity of transgene may vary because not all will be functional - can insert into heterochromatin / be mutagenic

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32
Q

What are the two most commons reporters in developmental biology?

A

LacZ and GFP

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33
Q

How can chimeric organisms be produced?

A

Plasticity in early embryos - can combined cells from 2 diff embryos - form chimera - develop into chimeric animal

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34
Q

Explain the structure of the blastocyst

A

Blastocyst:
- epiblast -> fetus
- hypoblast -> yolk sac
- trophoblast -> placenta

ICM = epiblast + hypoblast

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35
Q

Which structure are ES cells derived from?

A

ES cells taken from epiblast (develops into fetus) - pluripotent - capacity to differentiate into all germ layers: ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm

However, can ES cells can give rise to tumours - teratocarcinomas if injected into random locations (ex under skin)

36
Q

The schematic of embryo development

A
37
Q

How are ES cells derived and cultured in vitro?

A

ES derivation and culturing:
mice mated -> blastocysts taken out -> blastocysts cultured on feeder cells in vitro -> subculture by separating -> necessary signalling molecules to remain pluripotent / induce differentiation

38
Q

How are chimeric animals made with ES cells?

A
  1. Blastocysts isolated from mice strain 1 -> ES cells from strain 2 injected into blastocysts
  2. Implant chimeric blastocysts into pseudopregnant mice -> birth chimeric pups
    => but not all will be chimeric - not all transgenic because - not all ES will integrate
39
Q

What are endogenous genes?

A

Endogenous gene: gene originating from within a living system - in contrast - exogenous - originate from outside (transgenic)

40
Q

How are founder transgenic mice strains obtained?

A

Chimeric pups from foreign ES transgenesis are bread with the original strain type (the strain that provided the blastocysts - genetic background) -> bread until chimeric genotype isolated

41
Q

How are ES cells genetically manipulated?

A
  1. DNA vector designed for HR with the target gene
  2. The vector can be integrated into ES cells by:
    - Gene targeting: via HR - only integrates if homolog sequence found - HSV-tk not integrated
    - Random integration: insertion into random location - HSV-tk integrated - will be screened and eliminated in the experiment - select against random integration
42
Q

What are the two types of genetic vector integration into mouse genome?

A

Vector integration can be:
- Gene targeted integration
- Random integration

43
Q

What are the parameters important for gene targeting in vector integration?

A

Parameters of vector for successful targeted integration:
- length of homology - the longer the higher freq of integration
- size of non-homologous sequence doesn’t make difference
- Isogenic DNA constructs increase integration freq -> using non-isogenic DNA causes mismatches

44
Q

Explain what is isogenic and non-isogenic DNA

A

Isogenic DNA: sequences that come from genetically identical / nearly identical organisms (ex from inbreeding) - very similar / identical sequences

Non-isogenic DNA: sequences that come from genetically different organisms within species - between species

45
Q

Explain the experimental approach of gene targeting

A

Gene targeting - specific integration of vector into ES cells

  1. Introduce vector into cells - adding selection markers - screen for cells based on introduced selector (ex ganciclovir)
  2. Replate resistant colonies - further culturing in well plates
  3. Identify inserted gene by Southern blot/ restriction enzymes + Southern blot
  4. Freeze other cells for later / use for chimera production
46
Q

What experimental technique is used to screen for targeted clones?

A

Southern blot: probes for specific target sequence hybridisation - see if integrated into cell genome

Restriction enzymes: will identify change in cut endogenous fragment size if integration occurred - confirmation that the specific target sequence integrated - by Southern blot hybridisation

PCR: primer designed within transgenic target sequence + primer for the sequence from other side ->
if targeting successful, PCR will amplify the sequence using the primers and produce specific length products
if random integration - the products will be longer than from gene targeting

47
Q

How can a specific gene expression pattern be investigated?

A

Inserting gene reporters into the target gene locus - LacZ / GFP - fused in frame to the upstream locus - integrated ino genome via HR
=> instead of exons 3, 4, 5, 6 - some parts deleted - the target vector inserted instead in recombination - could lead to problems if they are regulators / ORF -> target vectors can also be integrated without deletions

48
Q

What is a knock-in (KI) vector?

A

Knock-in (KI) vector: a cDNA fragment integrated into genome to be expressed under control of an endogenouse gene - ex reporters (LacZ, GFP) - controlled by promoter of an existing developmental gene

49
Q

What are multicistronic constructs?

A

Multicistronic constructs: genetic constructs/vectors that carry multiple genes within a single transcript - coding ORFs are linked and transcribed together as single mRNA - simultaneous expression of multiple proteins from one transcript

Consists of: shared regulatory elements, IRES, 2A peptide sequences

50
Q

What is the structure of multicistronic constructs and what are the roles of each component?

A
  • Shared regulatory elements: simultaneously controlled expression
  • IRES: allows CAP independent translation mRNA into proteins
  • 2A peptide sequences: regulates expression to be at equal levels of each cDNA
51
Q

Explain homozygous gene targeting

A

Homozygous gene targeting - 2 ways:
- using same vector as gene targeting but using different selection markers for same allele
- using resistant casette - increased levels of the first selection marker gives both target alleles

??? dont get

52
Q

How are heterozygous / homozygous gene targeting products selected?

A

Most integrations random - gene targeted integrations in ES can be selected using drug selection - which don’t die replated - purified colony obtained - targeted genetic integration checked in DNA analysis (Southern) - ES lines used for pronuclear transgenesis - backcross to obtain transgenic strains -> intercross to obtain homozygotes / heterozygotes

53
Q

How is gene targeting used for gene function analysis?

A
  1. Reporter incorporated into target gene
  2. Pronuclear transgenesis
  3. Observe reporter in offspring - lineage tracing + localization
54
Q

What are KO phenotypes?

A

Knock-out phenotypes - gene function disrupted/altered - effects observed in offspring using reporters for that gene + others (to visualize structures that will be affected)

55
Q

What is gene redundancy?

A

Gene redundancy: in gene KO other genes can take over and compensate for the knock-out function

56
Q

How can experiments be modified if gene knock-outs don’t work because of gene redundancy?

A

In gene redudancy loss of gene function is compensated - instead of knock-out edit for gene overexpression - observe effects

57
Q

What are the transgenesis applications in mice?

A
58
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61
Q

What is the modern approach to transgenesis that ensures gene targeting?

A

Generation of ES cells by HR - a lot of work + time consuming -> CRISPR-Cas9 used
- Cas9 endonuclease
- guide RNA (gRNA)
- target sequence
- protospacer adjacent motif (PAM “NGG”)

62
Q

How does CRISPR-Cas9 cut and what are the components?

A

Components:
- Cas9 endonuclease
- guide RNA (gRNA) - contains 20nt protospacer (target seq) - designed upstream of protospacer adjacent motif (PAM) - Cas9 recognises PAM - cuts both strands 3nt upstream of PAM

Protospacer adjacent motif (PAM “NGG”)

63
Q

How is a sequence integrated into genome after CRISPR-Cas9 cut?

A

CRISPR-Cas9 cuts both strands 3nt upstream of PAM - cut repaired by:

  • non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) - for gene knock-outs - unpredictable result
  • homology directed recombination (HDR) - introduce specific mutations, reporter genes - precise insertion/modification - cell repairs using insert as template
  • two gRNAs target sites chosen - will delete a larger genomic region
64
Q

How can CRIPR-Cas9 be used for pronuclear transgenesis?

A

Cas9 and gRNA injected into male pronucleus - repair via HDR integrating target sequence - blastocysts transferred into pseudopregnant mother II

However, off target effects possible - Cas9/guideRNA cleavage not always precise - need to choose target sequences with minimal homology to other genes / regulatory sequences

65
Q

What can be used to reduce off-targets effects of Cas9 and guideRNAs?

A
  • Choose target sequences with minimal homology to other genes / regulatory sequences
  • Mutant Cas9 nuclease (Cas9D10A) - cleaves only one strand -> using two gRNAs specific for each strand in the double strand cleavage + Cas9D10A generates an overhang -> reduces off-target integration

Unlikely that there is another site with 2 specific sequences that create exact overhangs - reducing the chance of ds breaks leading to incorrect integration

66
Q

What is conditional gene knockout?

A

Conditional gene knockout - technique that introduces KO in a specific organ/ tissue/ cell at a specific time

To investigate diff gene expression properties controling:
- time of KO (ex for KO not to be lethal / to investigate gene role in developmental stage)
- specific cell (localization) KO
- permanent tag (reporter gene - track lineage)
- mutation (activate mutationn at given time/tissue)

67
Q

How to induce a deletion in conditional genetics experiment?

A

Site-specific recombination (SSR)
In-vivo - inducing mutation (deletion):
- insert loxP sites by gene targeting to flank target sequence
- insert Cre-recombinase expressing transgene -> recombines the sequence flanked by loxP -> DNA excised

68
Q

How to induce a deletion at a specific time in conditional genetics experiment?

A

If deletion required at specific stage in development or adult -> use inducable deletor

ex: Cre-ERT2 and tamoxifen: Cre-receptor construct Cre-ERT2: Cre fused to mutant estrogen receptor ERT2 - responds to synthetic analogue of estrogen - tamoxifen -> upon addition of tamoxifen Cre moves to the nucleus - causes recombintation -> gene excision (deletion)

Time when tamoxifen added - chosen freely

69
Q

Exlpain the experiment how was lineage tracing of Lgr5 cells in intestine lining crypts investigated?

A

2 transgenes - LacZ and CreERT2/tamoxifen - allowed to compare expression in different time points of development - expression of LacZ induced by tamoxifen addition time point

Lgr5 expressing cells - stem cells - the stem cells also inserted with LacZ - when differentiated - no longer stem cells - can be traced by turning on LacZ reporter

  • Tamoxifen addded day 1
  • Tamoxifen added 6 months
    -> previously Lgr5 expressing cells occupied the whole crypt
70
Q

How can conditional genetics be used to activate and repress gene expression?

A

For conditional activation / repression: mutated Cas9 (dCas - ‘dead’) - dCas9 with fused activation /supression machinery - when activator/supressor added - induces activation / supression machinery action

71
Q

What technique is used in animal cloning?

A

Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT): metaphase II oocyte enucleated- adult differentiated cell nucleus transferred into enucleated oocyte - grown in vitro to blastocyst - transferred into mother -> offspring

However, very inefficient procedure - chromatin structure (epigenetic marks) in differentiated cells different to embryonic

Nuclear donor cells: fibroblasts, T lymphocytes

72
Q

What are the application of somatic cell nuclear transfer?

A
  • Reproductive cloning - generating genetically identical animals
  • Therapeutic cloning - generating ES cells/ tissue / organs for regenerative medicine (genetically compatible organs - no rejection)
73
Q

Compare two method used in generating ES cells?

A

Reprogramming by:

  • IVF: oocyte fertilized with sperm -> blastocyst -> ES cells taken from epiblast => 99% survive to generate ES cells
  • SCNT: oocyte enucleated -> somatic nucleus injected -> ES cells from epiblast => 5% survive to generate ES cells
    —> due to abnormal epigenetic regulation (chromatin structure in differentiated cells different compared to embryo) - inheritance independent of DNA sequence
74
Q

Are maternal and paternal pronuclei different? What confirms it?

A

Yes, different

In pronuclear transfer - if paternal pronucleus X exchanged with maternal pronucleus - no embryo development => maternal and paternal are different pronuclei - both required for normal development => gene imprinting in gametes

75
Q

What is parental gene imprinting?

A

Parental gene imprinting: some genes activated / repressed depending on parental origin -> monoallelic uniparental expression

Imprinting occurs in gametogenesis exclusively in eggs / sperm -> different imprinting marks -> persist into the zygote

Both maternal and paternal needed because gene expression must be complementary

76
Q

Explain how sex specific genomic imprinting occurs

A
  1. Supression/activation erasure in primordial germ cells
  2. Imprint establishment depending on embryo sex (birth-> puberty)
  3. In reproduction both gametes with different imprints form zygote -> blastocyst
  4. Monoallelic expression but genetic imprinting compatibility between males and females - expression of needed genes ensures normal development
77
Q

How are the imprinted genes organised?

A

Maternally/paternally imprinted genes are usually clusterred in chromosome regions - imprinting controlled by same mechanisms in the region

78
Q

How are imprinted genes studied?

A

Imprinted genes can be revealed by mutation: mutating gene which supposed ot be expressed maternally/paternally -> gene not functional in both (full mutation)

Studying a gene on paternal X:
if abnormal phenotype => mutated gene is paternally expressed

if normal phenotype => mutated gene is maternally expressed

79
Q

What are the major roles of maternally/paternally expressed genes and what is the main mechanism of imprinting?

A

~80 imprinted genes identified - expected more - have major effects on fetal/placenta growth, postnatal behaviour

Maternally expressed genes - supress fetal growth
Paternally expressed genes - enhance fetal growth

DNA methylation - main mechanism but also epigenetic modifications also used

80
Q

How differentiated cells can be reprogrammed into pluripotent cells?

A

iPSCs:
24 TFs identified to reverse differentiation - only 4 TFs needed for in-vitro de-differentiation: Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc sufficient to turn mouse fibroblasts into iPSCs - use retroviruses to infect embryonic fibroblasts with the needed de-differentiation genes - re-differentiation using specific signalling molecules

81
Q

What is the potential of iPSCs for therapeutic use?

A

iPSCs can be generated from patient’s cells and re-differentiated into needed cell type - genetically compatible no rejection

82
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Quiz 6

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