17 - Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of fetal haemoglobin and how does it differ from adult haemoglobin?

A

Two alpha and two gamma subunits rather than two alpha, two beta

Greater affinity for oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does HbF get replaced by HbA?

A
  • From 32 to 36 weeks HbF production starts to decrease and HbA starts to increase
  • At birth around half of each
  • By 6 months all of HbF is gone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the relevance of HbF and sickle-cell disease?

A

HbF does not contain beta subunit which is the issue in sickle cell so disease not present/as severe at birth

Can give hydroxycarbamide to increase production of HbF, has a protective effect against sickle cell crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What Hb level is anaemia in children?

A

Varies depending on age but usually Hb<120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of anaemia in infants and what is the pathophysiology of this?

A

Physiologic Anaemia of Infancy

Dip in Hb around 6-9 weeks because there is high oxygen delivery to tissues at birth causing a negative feedback so EPO production by kidneys is suppressed so less Hb made by bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some other causes of anaemia in infants?

A
  • Anaemia of prematurity
  • Blood loss
  • Haemolysis
  • Twin to twin transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are premature babies more susceptible to anaemia?

A

Blood tests by doctors remove a large portion of their volume!

  • Less time in utero receiving iron from mother
  • Red cell creation cannot keep up with rapid growth in first few weeks
  • Reduced EPO levels

The more premature the infant the more likely they are to need transfusion for treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some haemolytic anaemias in infants?

A
  • Haemolytic disease of the new born (ABO or Rh Incompatibilty)
  • G6PD deficiency
  • Sickle Cell
  • Hereditary Spherocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What test can be done to confirm immune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Direct Coombs Test

plus a haemolytic screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some causes of anaemia in older children, highlighting the most common ones?

A
  • Iron deficiency anaemia due to dietary insufficiency or roundworms
  • Blood loss usually due to menstruation
  • Sickle cell
  • Thalassaemia
  • Leukaemia
  • Hereditary eliptocytosis
  • Sideroblastic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are cause of microcytic anaemia? (MCV<70)

A
  • Thalassemia
  • Anaemia of chronic disease
  • Iron Deficiency
  • Lead poisoning
  • Sideroblastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

3 A’s, 2 H’s

  • Acute blood loss
  • Anaemia of Chronic Disease
  • Aplastic Anaemia
  • Haemolytic
  • Hypothyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some causes of macrocytic anaemia? (MCV>100)

A

Megaloblastic

  • B12 Deficiency
  • Folate Deficiency

Normoblastic

  • Alcohol
  • Reticulocytosis (from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Liver disease
  • Azathioprine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some symptoms of anaemia?

A
  • Tired
  • SOB
  • Dizzy
  • Palpitations
  • Pica and Hair loss for Iron deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some signs of anaemia?

A
  • Pale skin
  • Conjunctival pallor
  • Tachycardia
  • Raised respiratory rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What investigations need to be done for anaemia in children?

A
  • FBC (for Hb and MCV)
  • ESR/CRP (for chronic disease)
  • Blood film
  • Reticulocyte count
  • Ferritin (low in iron deficiency)
  • B12 and Folate
  • Bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
  • Direct Coombs Test
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why do PPIs cause anaemia?

A

Need stomach acid to keep iron in soluble ferrous form (Fe2+)

When less acid in stomach like in PPIs gets converted to ferric (Fe3+) which is insoluble in duodenum and jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What blood tests are done for iron deficiency?

A
  • Serum iron not accurate as changes throughout day and after protein meal
  • TIBC is the total space on transferrin for molecules to bind so TIBC is directly related to amount of transferrin. Both TIBC and transferrin increase in iron deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is transferrin saturation and what does it tell us?

A

Transferrin Saturation = Serum Iron/TIBC

Tells us total iron in body, usually around 30% however if less iron in body less is saturation

Fasting sample is best as can increase shortly after each meal rich in iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why can ferritin be normal in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Ferritin is the stored version of iron

May not be able to get out of the cell!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the management of iron deficiency anaemia in children?

A
  • Supplementation with ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumerate. Warn can cause constipation and black stools. Aim for rise of 10 each month
  • Ensure adequate Vitamin C and Iron intake. Use fortified milk
  • Check for hookworms
  • Check for coeliac’s
  • Blood transfusions but rare because children can tolerate low Hb levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can you spot haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Evidence of RBC production? (Polychromasia, reticulocytosis.)
  • Decreased RBC survival? (Bilirubin raised)
  • Intravascular haemolysis? (Haemoglobinuria)
  • +ve Coombs’ test?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does hereditary spherocytosis present?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Anaemia
  • Gallstones
  • Splenomegaly

Aplastic crisis: increased anaemia, haemolysis and jaundice, without the normal response from the bone marrow of creating new red blood cells. No reticulocyte response. This is often triggered by infection with parvovirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is haemolytic anaemia caused by hereditary spherocytosis diagnosed and managed?

A

Ix

  • Flow cytometric analysis of eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) binding to red cells
  • Blood film and Reticulocyte count

Mx

  • Folate supplement
  • Splenectomy leads to increased RBC survival
  • Cholecystectomy for gallstones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is G6PD deficiency and the pathophysiology behind the presentation of this disease?

A
  • X linked recessive (usually affects males)
  • Haemolytic crises that are triggered by infections, medications or fava beans (broad beans)
  • G6PD enzyme is responsible for helping protect cells from damage by reactive oxygen species (ROS). A deficiency in G6PD makes RBCs more vulnerable to ROS, leading to haemolysis in red blood cells. Periods of increased stress, with a higher production of ROS, can lead to acute haemolytic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is G6PD deficiency diagnosed and managed?

A

Ix

  • Blood film: Heinz Bodies (inclusions of denatured bodies)
  • G6PD enzyme assay

Mx

  • Avoid triggers, e.g broad beans, antimalarials, and this will stop jaundice and other symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Thalassemia?

(image important for chromosomes)

A

Autosomal recessive

Defect in the protein chains that make up haemoglobin, can be alpha or beta

FBC are more fragile and break down more easily so splenomegaly.

Bone marrow expands to produce extra red blood cells to compensate for the chronic anaemia. This causes susceptibility to fractures and pronounced forehead and cheekbones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of thalassemia?

A
  • Microcytic anaemia
  • Fatigue
  • Pallor
  • Jaundice
  • Gallstones
  • Splenomegaly
  • Poor growth and development
  • Pronounced forehead and malar eminences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is Thalassemia diagnosed?

A
  • FBC: microcytic anaemia.
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis
  • DNA testing to look for the genetic abnormality

Pregnant women offered a screening test for thalassaemia at booking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why do children with Thalassemia develop iron overload and how does this present?

A

Due to recurrent transfusions and increased absorption of iron in the gut in response to anaemia

  • Fatigue
  • Liver cirrhosis
  • Infertility
  • Impotence
  • Heart failure
  • Arthritis
  • Diabetes
  • Osteoporosis and joint pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is iron overload managed in thalassemia?

A
  • Serum ferritin monitored to check for iron overload
  • Limit transfusions
  • Iron chelation with Desferroxamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What chromosome is the gene that codes for the faulty protein in alpha-thalassemia on and how is this managed?

A

Chromosome 16

  • Monitor FBC
  • Monitoring for complications
  • Blood transfusions
  • Splenectomy
  • Bone marrow transplant can be curative
33
Q

What chromosome is the gene that codes for the faulty protein in beta-thalassemia on?

A

Chromosome 11

Gene defect can either consist of abnormal copies that retain some function or deletion genes where there is no function in the beta globin protein at all

  • Thalassaemia minor
  • Thalassaemia intermedia
  • Thalassaemia major
34
Q

How is beta thalassemia minor and thalassemia intermedia managed?

A

Thalassaemia Minor

  • One abnormal and one normal gene
  • Mild microcytic anaemia
  • Only require monitoring and no active treatment

Thalassaemia Intermedia

  • Two abnormal copies of the beta globin gene. Two defective genes or one defective gene and one deletion gene
  • Monitoring and occasional blood transfusions
  • iron chelation if more blood transfusions needed
35
Q

How is beta-thalassemia major managed?

A

Homozygous for the deletion genes, no functioning beta globin genes at all

  • Severe microcytic anaemia
  • Splenomegaly
  • Bone deformities
  • Failure to thrive

Management involves regular transfusions, iron chelation and splenectomy. Bone marrow transplant can potentially be curative

36
Q

What is the epidemiology of sickle cell disease?

A

NHS sickle cell and thalassaemia (SCT) screening programme found the incidence of sickle cell disease is 1 in 2,449 in the UK with a carrier risk of 1 in 89

Usually people of Western African origin

Having HbS provides immunity against Plasmodium Falciparum

37
Q

What is the epidemiology of sickle cell disease?

A

NHS sickle cell and thalassaemia (SCT) screening programme found the incidence of sickle cell disease is 1 in 2,449 in the UK with a carrier risk of 1 in 89

Usually people of Western African origin

Having HbS provides immunity against Plasmodium Falciparum

38
Q

What is the pathophysiology of sickle cell disease?

A

Autosomal Recessive affecting beta globin gene

HbS allele due to substitution from GAG to GTG causing glutamic acid to be substituted with valine.

Cam one HbS allele and a different faulty beta globin allele other than HbS (HbSβ-thalassaemia)

HbS prone to ‘sickling’.. In the deoxygenated state the HbS tetramers bind to each other and begin to polymerise, which distort the shape of the red blood cell. These sickle cells prone to haemolysis and can cause vast-occlusion

39
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of sickle cell anaemia?

A

History

  • Acute pain symptoms from vaso-occlusion – hallmark of sickle cell disease. May be precipitated by hypoxia, infection, strenuous exercise, dehydration. Usually back, legs, knees, arms, chest and abdomen
  • Dactylitis – painful inflammation of a digit (finger or toe)
  • Family history

Examination

  • Pallor, lethargy due to anaemia
  • Jaundice due to haemolysis
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia, tachypnoea
  • Digital redness, swelling and pain
  • Splenomegaly
40
Q

What are the complications of sickle cell anaemia?

(both acute and chronic)

A
  • Anaemia
  • Increased risk of infection
  • Stroke
  • Avascular necrosis consider if vasoocclusive crisis lasting more than 7/7
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Priapism
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Sickle cell crises
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Retinopathy
41
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose sickle cell disease?

A

Blood Tests

  • All pregnant women are offered antenatal screening
  • Newborn Heel Prick Test
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis
  • Blood film Howell-Jolly bodies, sickle-shaped red blood cells
  • FBC and reticulocyte count
  • Iron studies

Imaging

  • X-ray of long bones: look for bone infarctions
  • Chest X-ray: infiltrates may indicate acute chest syndrome
42
Q

How is sickle cell disease managed in general?

A
  • Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises
  • Ensure vaccines are up to date
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis usually with penicillin V (phenoxymethypenicillin)
  • Hydroxycarbamide to protect against crises and acute chest syndrome as this stimulates HbF which doesn’t sickle
  • Folate supplementation
  • Blood transfusion for severe anaemia to keep HbS<30%
  • Bone marrow transplant can be curative
  • Education on prevention, for example avoiding excessive alcohol consumption or strenuous exercise,
43
Q

What are some examples of sickle cell crises and some triggers for this?

A
  • Vaso-occlusive Crisis (AKA painful crisis): priapism
  • Splenic Sequestration
  • Aplastic
  • Acute Chest syndrome
44
Q

How are sickle cell crises managed in general terms?

(image is important)

A

SUPPORTIVELY

  • Pain relief every 30 minutes
  • Refer to haematology
  • Treat any infection
  • Keep warm
  • Keep well hydrated (IV fluids may be required)
45
Q

What investigations are done for all sickle cell crises?

A
  • FBC reticulocyte count
  • Group and save
  • Biochemistry: LDH, U&Es, LFTs, Bone
  • Septic screen: blood cultures (if fever), chest x-ray, MSU
  • Bone x-rays: rarely needed, for suspected osteomyelitis
46
Q

How are vasoocclusive crises managed?

A

Due to sickle cells blocking capillaries and causing distal ischaemia

  • Analgesia: review regularly
  • Oxygen
  • IV fluids
  • Antibiotics if infection
  • Aspiration if priapism
47
Q

How is splenic sequestration managed as a sickle cell crisis? (NOT DONE)

A
  • Sickle cells block blood flow in spleen so becomes painful and enlarged
  • Pooling of blood can cause severe anaemia and hypovolaemic shock
  • Do FBC and urgent cross match
  • Blood transfusions and Fluid resuscitation
  • Splenectomy if recurrent crises
48
Q

What is an aplastic crisis in sickle cell and how is it managed?

A
  • Temporary loss of the creation of new blood cells
  • Triggered by Parvovirus B19 so do Parvovirus PCR
  • Do FBC and crossmatch
  • Blood transfusions and resolves within a week
49
Q

How is acute chest syndrome diagnosed and managed?

A

Usually have fever, chest pain, wheezing, hyperaemia, cough, respiratory distress

Ix

  • CXR: new infiltrates
  • ABG
  • Infection screen
  • FBC, G+S, CRP, U+Es

Management (Medical Emergency)

  • Antibiotics or antivirals for infections
  • Blood transfusions via Red Cell exchange urgently
  • Incentive spirometry encourages effective deep breathing to prevent atelectasis
  • Artificial ventilation with NIV or intubation may be required
50
Q

What vaccines are given to patients with sickle cell, how often and why?

A

Spleen damage by auto-infarction can increased susceptibility to infections

  • Seasonal influenza vaccines – yearly
  • Pneumococcal vaccines – every 5 years
  • Hepatitis B vaccine – if receiving regular blood transfusions
  • Men C and HiB

Also given prophylactic penicillin V

51
Q

What is the prognosis with sickle cell disease?

A
  • Life expectancy of 58
  • Poor prognosis if high frequency of recurrent vaso-occlusive crises
  • Infection (sepsis, meningitis and pneumonia) and stroke are commonest causes of death in children
  • Acute chest syndrome commonest cause of death in adults
52
Q

What are some causes of hyposplenism?

A
  • Splenectomy
  • Autosplenism e.g sickle cell or coeliac’s

(learn image)

53
Q

What are some investigations to diagnose hyposplenism?

A
  • Blood film: Howell-Jolly bodies and target cells
  • Imaging: ultrasound, CT, and MRI
54
Q

How long should someone who is asplenic be on prophylactic antibiotics?

A

At least 2 years after surgery

Lifelong if high risk (children)

55
Q

What education do you need to give to parents/children who are hyposplenic?

A
  • Need to carry splenectomy card
  • Must contact GP if become unwell or go to A and E if deteriorate
  • Must keep up to date with vaccines and have annual flu jab
  • Must have chemoprophylaxis in malaria areas
  • Risks with mosquito and animal bites
56
Q

What supplementation do all haemolytic anaemias need?

A

Folate!

57
Q

What is the main indication for hydroxycarbamide in sickle cell?

A

Increases the level of fetal haemoglobin so less sickling

58
Q

What monoclonal antibody is used in sickle cell anaemia and what is it used to treat?

A

Crizanlizumab

Prevention of vaso-occlusive crises

IV infusion

59
Q

How are children with sickle cell disease screened for their stroke risk and if high risk how is this managed?

A
  • Transcranial Doppler US annually from age 2-16 to determine risk
  • If high risk give regular blood transfusion to decrease amount of HbS
  • Children who develop strokes can be offered exchange transfusion programme as part of secondary prevention
60
Q

What is the only ‘curative’ treatment for sickle cell?

A

Bone Marrow Transplant

61
Q

What is DIC and how may it present in a child?

A

Activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors

  • Septic signs
  • Petechiae
  • Venepuncture oozings
  • GI bleeding
  • Haematuria
62
Q

What are some causes of DIC in children?

A
63
Q

What investigations should you do to diagnose DIC and what will they show?

A
  • Platelet count: low
  • INR: raised
  • Fibrinogen: low
  • PT: raised
  • D-Dimer
64
Q

How is DIC managed in children?

A
  • Refer to haematology
  • Treat cause e.g NEC, Sepsis
  • Give Vit K
  • Platelet transfusion
  • Fresh plasma (FFP) and cryoprecipitate
  • Heparin or Protein C depending on if thrombotic or fibrinolytic

If bleeding still continues, consider exchange transfusion.

65
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura and how does it present?

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction where antibodies are made against platelets. Often triggered by viral illness

  • Non blanching rash (purpura) over 24-48h
  • Bleeding (gums, epistaxis, menorraghia)
  • Bruising
  • History of viral illness
  • Under 10
66
Q

What investigations need to be done for ITP diagnosis?

A

IT IS A DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION

  • FBC/blood film for platelet count – thrombocytopenia should ONLY abnormality
  • Coagulation screen – normal
  • Bone marrow examination

Need to rule of meningitis, heparin induced thrombocytopenia and leukaemia

67
Q

What is the prognosis of ITP?

A
  • 75% resolve spontaneously within three months
  • 5‐15% becomes persistent or chronic (lasting > 12 months), especially if over 10
  • Intracranial haemorrhage is a rare but serious consequence
68
Q

What is some general advice to give to a parent/child with mild ITP?

A

Safe to live with petechiae and low platelet count

  • Avoid contact sports with high risk of head injury and trauma
  • Helmets for scooters and bikes
  • Avoid IM injections and lumbar punctures
  • Avoid NSAIDs, aspirin and blood thinning medications
  • Advice on managing nosebleeds
  • OCP for menstruating girls
  • Seek help after any injury that may cause internal bleeding e.g car accident
69
Q

What are the complications of ITP?

A
  • Chronic ITP
  • Anaemia
  • Intracranial and subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding
70
Q

When does ITP need treatment?

A
  • Actively bleeding: GI, epistaxis, SAH

or

  • Severe thrombocytopenia: platelets below 10, monitor FBC weekly until over 10 then monthly
71
Q

What is the treatment for acute ITP?

A
  • Prednisolone
  • IVIG if life threatening bleeding
  • Blood transfusions if required
  • Platelet transfusions only work temporarily because antibodies against platelets will begin destroying the transfused platelets
72
Q

When does ITP not need to be treated?

A
  • No active bleeding
  • Controlled epistaxis (stops in <20mins with gentle pressure)
  • Bruising
  • Petechiae
73
Q

got to henoch!!!

A
74
Q

In anaemia what is the direct coombs test for?

A

To work out if haemolytic is due to immune mediated or non-immune mediated reaction

75
Q

What are some causes of haemolytic anaemia in children?

A
76
Q

What are the causes of megaloblastic anaemia in children?

A
77
Q
A
78
Q

What are causes of the following on a blood film:

  • Target cells
  • Anisocytosis
  • Howell-Jolly Bodies
A

Target cells: post-splenectomy, haemoglobinopathy, severe iron deficiency

Anisocytosis: iron deficiency anaemia, beta-thalassaemia, megaloblastic anaemia

Howell-Jolly bodies: Beta-thalassaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, post-splenectomy

79
Q

What are some causes of the following on blood films:

  • Poikilocytosis
  • Heinz bodies
  • Spherocytes
  • Basophillic stippling
A

Poikilocytosis: Beta-thalassaemia, severe iron deficiency

Heinz bodies: Red cell enzyme defects

Spherocytes: Hereditary spherocytosis, immune haemolytic anaemia, severe burns, posttransfusion

Basophilic stippling: Lead poisoning, beta-thalassaemia