1.7 Cytokinesis and Cell Growth Control Flashcards

1
Q

Cytokinesis is the [ ] in M phase, as well as the cell cycle.

A

Final step

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2
Q

In animal cell, cytokinesis begins in [ ] and ends shortly after [ ].

A
  1. anaphase
  2. telophase
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3
Q

Telophase begins with appearance of [ ] on the cell surface.

A

cleavage furrow

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4
Q

Cleavage furrow development is the result of the [ ].

A

contractile ring

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5
Q

The contractile ring is made of [ ], as well as structural proteins.

A

actin & myosin

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6
Q

Actin and myosin make up the cell [ ].

A

cortex (under plasa ebrane)

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7
Q

The cell cortex begins to [ ] when the cell enters mitosis.

A

disassemble

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8
Q

During anaphase, actin and myosin reorganize as parallel linear filaments, producing [ ].

A

contractile ring

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9
Q

The filaments of the ring are [ ], with the number of subunits [ ] as the ring constricts.

A
  1. dynamic
  2. decreasing
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10
Q

Eventually, the cleavage furrow narrows to the point where it fors the structure called the [ ].

A

midbody, which tethers together the two daughter cells

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11
Q

Cytokinesis is completed by [ ], where membranes are [ ] and [ ].

A
  1. abscission
  2. constricted
  3. severed
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12
Q

Assembly of the contractile ring is dependent upon [ ].

A

RhoA

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13
Q

RhoA is attached at the [ ] on the inner cell membrane. Here it promotes the formation of [ ], [ ], and [ ].

A
  1. division site
  2. actin filaments
  3. myosin activation
  4. ring contraction
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14
Q

[ ] activates RhoA.

A

Rho GEF

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15
Q

What are the functions of activated RhoA?

A
  1. activates formins
  2. activates Rho-associated kinases (ex: ROCK) which promotes myosin assembly and activation
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16
Q

What is the right time for cytokinesis?

A

division occurs only after two sets of chromosomes have segregated from each other

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17
Q

What is the right place for cytokinesis?

A

division occurs between sets of segregating chromosomes

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18
Q

[ ] helps determine the timing and placement of cytoplasmic division.

A

mitotic spindle

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19
Q

During anaphase, [ ] initiate furrow formation at the [ ].

A
  1. signals originating from the spindle
  2. midway point between spindle poles
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20
Q

What is the function of Aurora-B?

A

localized around the spindle midzone during anaphase. Aurora-B promotes assembly of the centralspindlin dimer.

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21
Q

What is the function of centralspindlin?

A

a key regulatory protein in this process that concentrates around the antiparallel microtubules at the spindle midzone.

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22
Q

Centralspindlin promotes the [ ].

A

activation of RhoA through Rho GEF (Ect2)

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23
Q

Astral microtubules are able to [ ].

A

prevent centralspindlin outside of equatorial region

24
Q

Other organelles, such as mitochrondria, ER, and chloroplasts require [ ].

A

replication from pre-existing organelles

25
Q

Some organelles, like mitochrondria, are produced in [ ].

A

large numbers

26
Q

In cytokinesis, the ER is [ ], and daughter cells inherit a [ ].

A
  1. broken down
  2. portion
27
Q

Golgi is [ ] during mitosis. [ ] associate with [ ], and are then [ ] by daughter cells.

A
  1. fragmented
    1. fragments
    1. spindle poles
  2. inherited
28
Q

What are the three classes of signal types?

A
  1. mitogens
  2. growth factors
  3. survival factors
29
Q

Mitogens stimulated [ ]. Primarily work by promoted [ ] activity.

A
  1. cell division
  2. C1/S-Cdk activity
30
Q

What are the two factors that influence the rate of cell division?

A
  1. Division of unicellular organisms is more dependent on availability of nutrients
  2. Division in multicellular organisms, however, is more complex
31
Q

What are the two characteristics of mitogens?

A
  1. 50+ proteins
  2. most with broad specificity, some with narrow specificity
32
Q

When there is an absence of mitogenic signals, [ ] is maintaing in [ ]. It is possible for cells to withdraw from cell cycle entireley into [ ].

A
  1. Cdk inhibition
  2. G1
  3. specialized non-dividing state called G0.
33
Q

Most cells in our body are in [ ].

34
Q

Neurons and skeletal muscle are in [ ], and cell-cycle control mechanisms are [ ]. Cells rarely undergo mitosis.

A
  1. terminally differentiated G0 state
  2. compeltely dismantled
35
Q

Liver cells are normally in [ ]. However, they can [ ] in response to liver damage.

A
  1. G0 state
  2. re-enter cell cycle
36
Q

Control over rate of cell division depends on [ ].

A

mitogen influence on G1 phase

37
Q

What are the three functions of Myc?

A
  1. promote entry into cell cycle through severeal echanisms
  2. promote synthesis of G1-cyclins, thereby increasing G-1Cdk activity
  3. promote transcription of genes that increase cell growth
38
Q

What is the primary function of G1-Cdk?

A

to activate E2F gene regulatory proteins

39
Q

E2F proteins bind to [ ] of various genes required for [ ].

A
  1. bind to promoter and promote expression
  2. entry into S phase
40
Q

What is the function of feedback loops?

A

help ensure irreversible activation and entry into the cell cycle

41
Q

A key intracellular regulator of cell division is the [ ].

A

damage of DNA

42
Q

The cell cycle can detect damage and halt cell cycle at either the [ ] or the [ ].

A
  1. Start Transition
  2. G1/Transition
43
Q

[ ] promotes the activation of either the [ ] or [ ].

A
  1. DNA damage
  2. ATM
  3. ATR Kinase
44
Q

The activated kinase [ ] with the site of [ ] and [ ]. This results in downstream [ ].

A
  1. associates
  2. DNA damage
  3. phoshporylates target proteins
  4. activation of p53
45
Q

What is replicated cell senescence?

A

many cells have a limited number of replicative cycles before they undergo a permanent cell cycle arrest

46
Q

Senescence appears to be caused by [ ].

A

a change in telomere structure.

47
Q

What are telomeres?

A

replicated DNA sequences at the end of chromosomes

48
Q

DNA in telomeres are replicated by [ ], which is involved in the formation of the protein cap.

A

enzyme telomerase

49
Q

Telomerase is not expressed in [ ]. This causes telomeres to [ ] with every cell cycle.

A
  1. somatic cells
  2. shorten
50
Q

Eventual exposure of chromosome ends is recognized as [ ], and triggers [ ] to initiate [ ].

A
  1. DNA damage
  2. p53
  3. cell cycle arrest
51
Q

Growth factors are [ ] that promote [ ].

A
  1. extracellular signals
  2. increases in cellular mass
52
Q

What are the two functions of growth factors?

A
  1. promote synthesis of macromolecules
  2. inhibit degradation of macromolecules
53
Q

What is the function of mTORC1?

A

promotes protein synthesis, lipid synthesis, and decreased protein degradation

54
Q

Rate of growth must ensure [ ].

A

dividing cells are not too small or too large

55
Q

Size must double through cell cycle to ensure [ ].

A

consistent cellular mass

56
Q

What are the three mechanisms of coordination of cell growth.

A
  1. single extracellular factor promotes growth, and growth promotes division
  2. separate growth factors and mitogens influencing cell growth/division in a cell type
  3. extracellular factor simultaneously affects both growth and division
57
Q

Survival factors work by [ ].

A

surppressing apoptosis