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3DX7X > 1604 > Flashcards

1604 Flashcards

1
Q

Which AFSC requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

A

Computer Systems Programing (3D0X4)

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2
Q

What is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
A. Minimum rank of SSgt
B. 6 months OJT for retrainees
C. Completion of the AFSC specific requirements
D. Completion of the AETC Supplemental training courses

A

Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses.

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3
Q

What function is primarily staffed by Client Systems (3D1X1) personnel but may have a variety of AFSCs based upon the unit mission?

A

Communications Focal Point

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4
Q

What documents the CFP key processes?

A

MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

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5
Q

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

A

at HAF

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6
Q

What is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

A

Unit Manpower Document

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7
Q

What is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
A. Program Element Code (PEC)
B. Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
C. Authorization Change Request (ACR)
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

A

Program Element Code(PEC)

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8
Q

What is not a responsibility of the AFCFM?
A. Construct career paths
B. Manage skill-level training requirements
C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective MAJCOM

A

Distribute personnel throughout their respective MAJCOM

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9
Q

Who serves as the MAJCOM voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team and Utilization and Training Workshop (STRT/U&TW)?
A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager
C. CFM
D. SAF/CIO A6

A

MAJCOM Functional Manager

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10
Q

Which segment of the Specialty Training Requirements Team and Utilization and Training Workshop (STRT/U&TW) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

A

Segment 2

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11
Q

What is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
A. Draft and sign minutes
B. Finalize part 1 of the CFETP
C. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

A

Finalize Specialty Training Standards(STS)/Course Training Standards(CTS) for all courses.

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12
Q 
Who is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop(U&TW)?
A. AETC/Training Pipeline Manager
B. AETC CDC Writer
C. AFCFM
D. MAJCOM Functional Manager
A

AETC CDC Writer

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13
Q 
What is used as a starting point to develop the CFETP and STS during the Specialty Training Requirements Team and Utilization and Training Workshop (STRT/U&TW)?
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
B. Quality Training Package (QTP)
C. Subject Matter Experts (SME)
D. Job Quality Standards (JQS)
A

Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

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14
Q

What AIS is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

A

IMDS

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15
Q

What is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
A. Review IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
B. Ensure equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions

A

Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)

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16
Q

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

A

Fight Commander/Chief

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17
Q

What is included in the MTP only if applicable to the work center?

A

JQS

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18
Q

Special Personnel Evaluations are required on a sampling of the Air Reserve Component within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

A

120 Days

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19
Q

What is not a goal of ORM?
A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, basing decisions upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all on- and off-duty activities.
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

A

ID opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in operational aerospace environment.

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20
Q

How many steps are in ORM?

A

6 steps

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21
Q

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on…

A

AF Form 55

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22
Q 
What is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
A. Job Safety Training (JTS)
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
A

Job Safety Training

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23
Q

What information is not contained in TO 00-5-1?

A

TCTO Procedures

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24
Q

Recommended TO changes are required to be submitted on…

A

AFTP Form 22

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25
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

A

Flight Commander/Chief

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26
Q

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

A

American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

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27
Q

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

A

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

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28
Q

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

A

The authoring OPR’s supervisor

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29
Q

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

A

COTS

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30
Q

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code Title…

A

10

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31
Q

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code Title…

A

32

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32
Q

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

A

Wing Commander

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33
Q

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called…

A

misuse of position

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34
Q

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

A

Military Construction (MILCON)

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35
Q

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

A

$750,000

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36
Q

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in AFI…

A

64-117

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37
Q

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the GPC Program?

A

Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)

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38
Q

What is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders?

A

Funds Accountability

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39
Q

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in…

A

AFI 10-401

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40
Q

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

A

Air Force Chief of Staff

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41
Q

What is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

A

Wing

42
Q

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in AFI…

A

36-2845

43
Q

What re the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

A

1 Oct - 30 Sep

44
Q

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to…

A

63

45
Q

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

A

Keyboard

46
Q

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

A

No more than 20

47
Q

What is not a type of UNIX pathname

A

Positive

48
Q

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

A

Norton Utilities

49
Q

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the OSI Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

50
Q

Network switches and bridges operate at what OSI layer?

A

Data Link

51
Q

Routers operate at what OSI layer?

A

Network

52
Q

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what OSI layer?

A

Transport

53
Q

What is the combat IT communication support agency of the DOD called?

A

Defense Information Systems Agency

54
Q

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol Data service?

A

The customer

55
Q

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

A

Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

56
Q

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as TCP, what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

A

Connection establishment

57
Q

What regulates how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving hose must send an acknowledgement?

A

Sliding Window

58
Q

What are the fields in the UDP Segment?

A

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

59
Q

How many bits are in the IPv4 address?

A

32

60
Q

What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address?

A

Class A

61
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A

Class C

62
Q

What IPv4 Class address is used for multicast addressing?

A

Class D

63
Q

What IPv4 Reserved address is used for loop back?

A

127.0.0.1

64
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A

Colon Hexadecimal Format

65
Q

The range of well-known port numbers is…

A

0-1023

66
Q

Which common ort contains HTTP servers and proxies?

A

Port 8080

67
Q

The design of communications network is known as…

A

Network architecture

68
Q

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

A

LAN

69
Q

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

A

MAN

70
Q

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz freq?

A

802.11b

71
Q

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

A

802.11n

72
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

A

Physical

73
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A

Star

74
Q

Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of…

A

144 Kbps

75
Q

A modem is a device that…

A

Modulates and demodulates data signals

76
Q

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A

Bridge

77
Q

Two basic routing activities are; determining optimal routing paths and…

A

transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork

78
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A

2

79
Q

What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

A

Link encryption

80
Q

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet Standard?

A

Coaxial cable

81
Q

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A

Twisted pair cable

82
Q

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

A

802.11

83
Q

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

A

Law, Authority, Policy

84
Q

What United States Code title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

A

Title 10

85
Q

Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

A

Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

86
Q

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

A

Information Superiority

87
Q

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

A

Careful Planning

88
Q

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

A

Electronic Attack

89
Q

What is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

A

EW Concerns radiated energy

90
Q

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System Sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

A

Incident Response

91
Q

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

A

Proactive Defense

92
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

A

Supervisory System

93
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

A

Remote Terminal Unit

94
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

A

Spam

95
Q

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

A

Patches

96
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

A

Biometrics

97
Q

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

A

Knowledge-based

98
Q

What system monitoring concepts uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

A

Capacity Planning

99
Q

Who provides the formal declaration that in information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

A

Authorizing Official (AO)

100
Q

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes…

A

Full cost and recommended course of action

3DX7X (3 decks)

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