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3DX7X > 1509 > Flashcards

1509 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

A

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

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2
Q 
What is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
A. Transmission security
B. Technical security
C. Emission security
D. Physical security
A

Technical Security

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3
Q

What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organization skills inherent to a particular career field?

A

Core Competency

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4
Q 
Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?
A. Fixed cable systems
B. Voice Network systems
C. Application software systems
D. Client-server database systems
A

Voice network systems

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5
Q

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

A

AF Form 457

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6
Q 
What is not one of the four major types of hazards?
A. Biological
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Nuclear
A

Nuclear

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7
Q

What hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A

Stress

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8
Q

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more that how many pounds?

A

25

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9
Q

When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the…

A

Supervisor

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10
Q

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if…

A

They are secured with a nonmetallic cord

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11
Q

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply

A

All personnel

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12
Q

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

A

Risk Management

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13
Q 
Which is a principle of Risk Management?
A. Accept unnecessary risk
B. Apply RM process continuously
C. Train and adhere to safety guidelines
D. Make risk decisions at the lowest level
A

Apply the RM process continuously

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14
Q

How many steps are in the risk management process?

A

5

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15
Q

An enclave that does not have a firewall and IDS is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

A

Category I

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16
Q

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSCs) does the Air Force have?

A

Two

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17
Q

The Integrated Network and Operation Security Center (INOSC) has several responsibilities except…
A. Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall
B. Standardize, configure, backup, and otherwise maintain the firewall
C. Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices
D. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)

A

Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall

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18
Q

What term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol?

A

IP Telephony

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19
Q

What security feature should you not implement to help defend IP telephony systems from attackers?
A. enabling ACLs on firewalls, routers, and switches
B. deploying protection from DHCP spoofing
C. consolidating your voice with your data using VLANs
D. enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client

A

consolidating your voice with your data using VLANs

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20
Q

At which OSI layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

A

3 (Network)

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21
Q

At which OSI layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

A

4 (Transport)

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22
Q

At which OSI layer does an application-level firewall operate?

A

7 (Application)

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23
Q

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it…
A. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host
B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
C. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords
D. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed

A

Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

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24
Q 
One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it...
A. can decrypt data
B. uses very few network resources
C. Monitors logs for policy violations
D. Can analyze encrypted network traffic
A

uses very few network resources

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25
Q

Which intrusion detection system uses software sensors?

A

Host-based

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26
Q

Which intrusion detection system monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

A

Network-based

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27
Q 
Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are...
A. Active only
B. Passive only
C. Passive or active
D. Neither passive nor active
A

Passive and active

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28
Q 
Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are...
A. Active only
B. Passive only
C. Passive or active
D. Neither passive nor active
A

Passive only

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29
Q

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

A

Open

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30
Q

What type of certificate authenticates the identify of a user?

A

Digital

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31
Q

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

A

Set a login ID and password combination for access

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32
Q

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is…
A. having information ready when needed
B. not being able to deny who performed network actions.
C. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.
D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

A

the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission

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33
Q

What Air Force Systems Security Instructions (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

A

7000

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34
Q

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?

A

7700

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35
Q

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

A

Zoning

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36
Q

A facility with and inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone…

A

B

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37
Q

Equipment with an equipment radation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone…

A

C

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38
Q

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

A

It is expensive

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39
Q

What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

A

Distance and angle

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40
Q

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

A

Equipment processing clear-text classified information

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41
Q

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

A

Equipment processing encrypted classified information

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42
Q

Which type of separation ensure that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

A

Electrical

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43
Q

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

A

10 ohms or less

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44
Q

What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

A

Lightning protection

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45
Q

What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

A

Fault protection

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46
Q

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

A

Signal reference

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47
Q

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of…

A

1 milliohm

48
Q

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

A

Mechanical

49
Q

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

A

Shielding

50
Q

What type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

A

Cable

51
Q

What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

A

Protection from lightning

52
Q

Which ESD sensitive class has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts?

A

Class I

53
Q 
Which activity generates the most electrostatic current?
A: Working at a bench
B: Walking across carpet
C: Walking across a vinyl floor
D: Picking up a common plastic bag
A

Walking across carpet

54
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

A

Blackout

55
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

A

Spike

56
Q

What power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

A

Noise

57
Q

What type of UPS is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

A

Passive Standby

58
Q

What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection?

A

Double conversion

59
Q

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

A

Three

60
Q

Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?
A. Facility power requirements
B. Facility power reserve time
C. Number of AC converters required for the facility
D. Amount of current and future floor space available

A

Number of AC converters required for the facility

61
Q

What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial AC power available)?

A

Act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power

62
Q

What publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

A

TO 31-10 series

63
Q

How are connectorized cables labeled?

A

First label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is placed within 2 inches of the first label and marked “FROM”

64
Q

What section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A

Upper

65
Q

Support intervals for cables required surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

A

5

66
Q 
The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable...
A. is less expensive 
B. is easier to install
C. does not radiate energy
D. has a low frequency range.
A

does not radiate energy

67
Q

What type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

A

Shielded

68
Q

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a…

A

Binder

69
Q

What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

A

Tip and Ring

70
Q

What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

A

RJ-45

71
Q

Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

A

White/orange

72
Q

What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the OSI model?

A

Crossover

73
Q

What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

A

Use of light-emitting diodes

74
Q

What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

A

1000 Degrees C

75
Q

What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

A

Core, cladding, jacket

76
Q

What type of cable is the easiest to splice?

A

Multimode step index fiber

77
Q

How long do most fiber optic epoxies take to set?

A

12-24 hours

78
Q

What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

A

Scribe

79
Q

When using polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly…

A

flat and level

80
Q

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

A

Common

81
Q

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

A

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested

82
Q

The purpose of a breakout box is to…
A. provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable
B. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors
C. measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance
D. locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.

A

allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors

83
Q

What is the purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box?

A

Allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

84
Q

What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

A

Cross-patching of individual interface conductors

85
Q

What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

A

Distortion

86
Q

Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as…

A

waveform points

87
Q

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

A

Microprocessor

88
Q

What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

A

Real-time

89
Q

What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

A

Sample mode

90
Q

Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

A

CURSORS control

91
Q

Which section of a bit error test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

A

Receiver

92
Q

What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

A

Number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern

93
Q

What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

A

Bipolar violation

94
Q

When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

A

Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested

95
Q

What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

A

Filter

96
Q

What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame rate error that are related to a specific protocol?

A

Protocol statistics

97
Q

What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequences (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

A

Media access control (MAC) node statistics

98
Q

What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

A

Node discovery

99
Q

What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

A

PING

100
Q

What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?

A

Trace route

101
Q

Which 3D career field will develop, govern and monitor processes, technologies, and practices that support organizations to identify, capture, organize, and employ information in both fixed and deployed environments

A

Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1)

102
Q

What 3D career field Installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations. Administers server-based networked systems, distributed applications, network storage, messaging and application monitoring required to provision, sustain, operate and integrate cyber networked systems and applications in garrison and at deployed locations.

A

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)

103
Q

Supervises or operates fixed and deployed information technology (IT) and telecommunications resources to monitor, evaluate, and maintain systems, policy and procedures to protect clients, networks, data/voice systems, and databases from unauthorized activity

A

Cyber Surety (3D0X3)

104
Q

Supervises and performs as computer analyst, coder, tester and manager in the design, development, maintenance, testing, configuration management and documentation of application software systems, client-server and web-enabled software and relational database systems critical to warfighting capabilities.

A

Computer Systems Programming (3D0X4)

105
Q

Deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs standard voice, data, video network and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments. Sustains and operates systems through effective troubleshooting, repair, and system performance analysis.

A

Client Systems (3D1X1)

106
Q

Analyzes requirements and requests frequencies to support terrestrial, aircraft and space systems and coordinates radio, radar, land and other electromagnetic radiating or receiving requirements.

A

Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)

107
Q

Provides command and control (C2) capabilities through installation, maintenance, fault isolation and reconstitution of fixed cable and wireless distribution systems, local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN) in support of tactical and strategic operations. Monitors and analyzes performance of underground, buried and aerial cable and antenna networks.

A

Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7)

108
Q

Knowledge Operations Management

A

3D0X1

109
Q

Cyber Systems Operations

A

3D0X2

110
Q

Cyber Surety

A

3D0X3

111
Q

Computer Systems Programming

A

3D0X4

112
Q

Client Systems

A

3D1X1

113
Q

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems

A

3D1X3

114
Q

Spectrum Operations

A

3D1X4

115
Q

Cable and Antenna Systems

A

3D1X7

3DX7X (3 decks)

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