15 - Neoplasia 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the commonest types of cancer in adults and children?

A

Adults –> breast, lung, prostate and bowel

Children (under 14) –> leukaemias, CNS tumours and lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the biggest cause of cancer-related death in the UK?

A

LUNG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do the survival rates from different malignant neoplasms vary?

A

5 year survival:

  • Testicular and Melanoma (90-98%)
  • Breast (87%)
  • Lung (10%)
  • Pancreatic (3%)
  • Oesophageal (15%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When predicting the outcome of having a malignant neoplasm, what do you need to take into consideration?

A
  • Availability of effective treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the commonest way to assess the extent of a solid tumour?

A

TNM staging system

T: size of primary tumour T1 to T4

N: extent of regional node metastases via lymphatics N0 to N3

M: extent of distant metastatic spread via blood M0 to M1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is the TNM staging converted into a stage?

A

T, N, M score converted into stage I to IV

Stage I: early local disease

Stage II: advanced local disease

Stage III: regional metastasis

Stage IV: advanced disease with distant metastasis

EACH CANCER HAS ITS OWN STAGING SYSTEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is lymphoma staged?

A

Ann Arbor Staging

Stage I: lymphoma in single node region

Stage II: two separate regions on one side of the diaphragm

Stage III: spread to both sides of the diaphragm

Stage IV: disseminated involvement of one or more extra-lymphatic organs e.g bone marrow or lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is staging important?

A

Critical to predict outcome/survival and decide method of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you stage colorectal carcinoma?

A

Dukes staging (but TNM preferred)

A: invasion into but not through the bowel

B: invasion through the bowel wall

C: involvement of lymph nodes

D: distant metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the grading system for cancer?

A

G1: well differentiated

G2: moderately differentiated

G3: poorly differentiated

G4: undifferentiated or anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is breast carcinoma graded?

A

Modified Bloom-Richardson system

Assess tubule formation, nuclear variation and numer of mitoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Normally staging is more important than grading for carcinomas, what are the exceptions to this?

A

Grading is important for prognosis of:

  • Soft tissue sarcoma
  • Primary brain tumours
  • Lymphomas
  • Breast cancer
  • Prostate cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the different ways of treating cancer?

A
  • Radio
  • Chemo
  • Hormone therapy
  • Targeted molecular therapies
  • SURGERY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is adjuvant and neoadjuvant treatment?

A

Adjuvant: treatment given after surgical removement to eliminate subclinical disease and rellapse

Neoadjuvant: treatment given to reduce size of primary tumour and make it operable prior to surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does radiation therapy work?

A

- High dose radiation targeted at a tumour whilst shielding the surrounding healthy tissue

  • Given in fractionated doses to minimise tissue damage
  • X rays or ionising radiation kill dividing cells, normally in G2, due to DNA damage and apoptosis
  • Double stranded DNA breakages prevent M phase completing so apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the different types of chemotherapy drugs?

A

All target the proliferating cells and there are non-specific

- Antimetabolites: mimic DNA substrates in replication so cancer cannot replicate e.g fluorouracil

- Alkylating and Platinum-based agents: cross link DNA helix so cannot replicate, e.g cisplasin (testicular) and cyclophosphamide

- Antibiotics: work in lots of ways, doxorubicin inhibits DNA topoisomerase needed for DNA synthesis, bleomycin causes double stranded DNA break

- Plant Derived drugs: e.g vincristine which blocks microtubule assembly and interferes with mitotic spindle formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the least toxic way to treat cancer and how does it work?

A

Hormone therapy

- Lots of cancers have upregulation of receptors and these can be targeted

- SERMs: e.g tamoxifen binds to oestrogen receptor preventing oestrogen binding. On hormone receptor positive breast cancer

- Androgen blockade: prostate cancer

18
Q

How can you test if a cancer can be targeted with hormone therapy?

A
19
Q

How can you target oncogene mutations in breast cancer to target drugs to?

A
  • Trastuzumab (Herceptin) and Imatinib (Gleevec)
  • Block HER2 receptors as they are overexpresed in breast cancer. HER2 gene is the oncogene
  • Easier to block the oncogene than replace TSG protein
20
Q

How can you target oncogene mutations in chronic myeloid leukaemia to target drugs to?

A
  • BCR-ABL fusion protein oncogene
  • Imatinib can inhibit the fusion protein causing CML
21
Q

How can the cancer immunity cycle be targeted to destroy cancer?

A

Block immune checkpoints

- Ipilmumab: tumour cells normally bind to Tcells and stop them being activated but ipilmumab block this

- Nivolumab: binds to PD-1 so it cannot inactivate T cells. unmasks the cancer cell

22
Q

Why are tumour markers important?

A
  • Possibly help in diagnosis
  • Useful for measuring tumour burden to see if treatment is effective and to follow up to see if there is a relapse
23
Q

What are some examples of tumour markers?

A

- Hormones: e.g human chorioic gondotrophin (HCG) from testicular tumour

- Oncofetal antigens: e.g alpha fetoprotein (AFP) released by hepatocellar carcinoma and carcinoembryonic antigen from GI cancer (CEA)

- Specific proteins: prostate-specific antigen (PSA) released by prostate carcinoma

- Mucins/Glycoproteins: CA-125 released by ovarian cancer

24
Q

What are oncofetal antigens?

A
25
Q

What does cancer screening involve and what are the established screening programs in the UK?

A
  • Looking for early signs of disease in healthy people
  • Detecting cancer as early as possible when the chance of cure is highest
  • Cervical, breast and bowel cancer screening well established
26
Q

What are the problems with cancer screening?

A

- Lead time bias: artefactual improvement

- Length bias: screening only really detects slow growing cancers

- Overdiagnosis: detects tumours that would never grow fast enough to kill

27
Q

Describe the screening programs for cervical, breast and colorectal cancer.

A

Breast: Women aged 50 to 71 and registered with a GP every 3 years, high risk or family history may have earlier. Done by X-ray mammogram

Cervical: smear test over age 25 to 49 every 3 years, 50 to 64 every 5 years and over 65 only if one of your last three tests was abnormal

Colerectal: Bowel scope men and women age 55 one off and if polyps found maybe colorectomy. Age 60-74 bowel screening test at home every two years

28
Q

What factors contribute to tumour dormancy?

A
  • Hostile secondary site
  • Reduced angiogenesis
  • Immune attack
29
Q

How does nivolumab work?

A

Binds to receptors on the T-cells that would normally induce apoptosis so T-cells dont die, and can become hyperactive to destroy more cancer cells

30
Q

What kind of tumours can occur in the testis?

A

- Seminoma: common in 15 to 30 year olds

- Non-seminoma: embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac carcinooma, teratoma, choriocarcinoma (women)

Look for hCG, AFP

31
Q

A man has a lump removed from his testicle and a histology report is done, what would you name this lump?

A

Fibrous septae with lymphocytes within the septae. Fried egg seminoma cells

32
Q

What are B symptoms in Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and what is their significance?

A
  • Paraneoplastic syndrome
  • Pruitis is sometimes included, helps to determine staging of the lymphoma.
33
Q

What are the major side effects of tamoxifen?

A
  • DVT
  • Endometrial proliferation and cancer
  • Liver changes
  • Tumor flare
34
Q

What does it mean if a breast tumour tests HER2 positive?

A
  • HER2 is a receptor that stimulates growth of the cell
  • If positive means there is an upregulation of this receptor
  • Can use herceptin that blocks receptor
35
Q

Why should you be concerned if you suspect rectal adenocarcinoma in a patient and they have bloody stool?

A
  • Means it has ulcerated and therefore more likely to be malignant
  • Ulceration occurs due to necrosis as the surface of the tumour as tumour is growing so fast it is outgrowing it’s blood supply before angiogenesis can occur
36
Q

What tumour markers can be used for the following cancers:

  • Breast
  • Colorectal
  • Pancreatic
  • Germ cell
  • Ovarian
  • Prostate
A
37
Q

What is the significance of a raised PSA?

A

Shows prostate is inflammed

38
Q

How is a prostatic adenocarcinoma graded and why is it usually caught late stage?

A
  • Benign prostate cancers grow on inner prostate so impinge on urethra quickly
  • Malignant usually grow on outskirts so has to grow large before causes symptoms. Also, back pain can be first symptom and this is a sign of metastasis to the spine
39
Q

How does cervical carcinoma become invasive and what are the risk factors for developing this?

A
  • CIN1
  • CIN2
  • CIN3 (in situ but will invade at next stage)

Any factors predisposing to HPV infection, e.g multiple sexual partners and sexual activity from young age

40
Q

Is castration helpful in treating prostatic carcinoma?

A

Yes

41
Q

Match up the following descriptions

A