14. KFP: Emergency Flashcards

1
Q

What is a management for anaphylaxis?

A

IM adrenaline 1:1000 0.01mL/kg [or 10microg/kg] (Max 0.5mL) in the lateral thigh
* it should be repeated after 5 minutes if not improving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the clinical features of an anorectal abscess?

A
  • Severe pain in the anal or rectal area, with fever or malaise
  • Superficial: perianal erythema and a palpable, fluctuant mass
  • Deep: tender, often fluctuant mass internally on digital rectal exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of an anorectal abscess?

A
  • Surgical drainage
  • All skin incisions should be made as close to the anal verge as possible to minimise the length of a potential fistula while still providing adequate drainage of the abscess
  • Give antibiotics to all patients after incision and drainage
  • Mild infection: augmentin DF (875/125mg) BD for 5 days
  • Severe infection: Gentamicin IV + metronidazole 500mg IV BD + Amoxicillin/Ampicillin 2g IV Q6hourly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the management for a patella fracture that is non-displaced or minimally displaced with an intact extensor mechanism (patient able to perform straight leg raise)?

A
  • Immobilise in knee extension with a Zimmer knee splint for four to six weeks
  • The patient is usually allowed to weight bear in the splint during this time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the initial management for a snakebite?

A
  • Apply a pressure bandage over the bite site and whole affected limb, and completely immobilised limb and the patient
  • Arrange urgent hospital transfer - hospital must have adequate anti venom and critical care facilities in which the anti venom can be safely administered and anaphylaxis can be treated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the clinical features of serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Neuromuscular excitation - hyperreflexia, clonus, ocular clonus, myoclonus, shivering, tremor, hypertonia, rigidity
  • Autonomic effects - hyperthermia, sweating, flushing, mydriasis (pupil dilation), tachycardia
  • Central nervous system effects - agitation, anxiety, confusion, altered conscious state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the hunter serotonin toxicity criteria

A

Clinical diagnosis of surat synergic toxidrome can be made if the patient has taken a service allergic drug and meets one of the following criteria
* Spontaneous clonus
* Inducible clonus plus either agitation or sweating
* Ocular clonus plus either agitation or sweating
* Tremor plus hyperreflexia
* Hypertonia plus Temperature more than 38°c plus either inducible clonus or ocular clonus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the clinical features of mild serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Tremor
  • Mild tachycardia
  • Inducible clonus
  • Lower limb hyperreflexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical features of moderate serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Agitation
  • Sustained clonus
  • Tachycardia
  • Hyperthermia less than 39°c
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical features of severe serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Rapidly progressive hyperthermia
  • Muscle rigidity with sustained clonus
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management for moderate serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Cease the offending medication
  • If distressed by symptoms: 5 to 20 mg PO; repeat after 30 minutes if required; usually no more than 120 mg is required in 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management for severe serotonin syndrome?

A
  • Urgent transfer to hospital
  • Seek advice from a clinical toxicologist
  • For rapidly progressive hyperthermia: rapid cooling techniques eg cold IV fluid
  • For muscle rigidity was sustained clonus: sedate the patient
  • For seizures: benzodiazepines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should silver sulphadiazine (Flamazine) cream be used for wound management?

A
  • Initial short term use only as it only provides antimicrobial activity for 8 hours
  • May delay healing compared to other antiseptics
  • Can impair reassessment of the wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is silver dressing (Acticoat) indicated in wound care?

A

Indicated if wounds are contaminated or deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is a silicone foam dressing (Mepilex) indicated?

A
  • Moderately exudative wound
  • Useful in the first 72 hours when superficial dermal burns often produce significant exudate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is combine (cellulose blend within fabric) dressing used?

A

It is highly absorbent but not usually used as burns dressing

17
Q

When is hydrocolloid dressing (Duoderm) indicated?

A

Useful for wounds with low exudate

18
Q

When is silver based silicone foam dressing (Mepilex Ag) indicated?

A

Moderately to highly exudative burns that are contaminated or deep

19
Q

Why is blister debridement indicated in the management of burns?

A
  • The build up of fluid under the intact blister can put pressure on the underlying dermis, which in turn can reduce perfusion and potentially deepen burns
  • Blister skin is dead and should be removed as it is a potential focus for infection
  • Intact blisters are painful
20
Q

What is recommended for different severities of pain when managing burns?

A

Mild (pain score 0-3):
* Paracetamol 1g Q6hourly PRN and Naproxen 250mg TDS PO PRN (+/- gut protection)

Moderate (pain score 4-7):
* Add tapentadol 100-250mg BD OR IR opioid 5-10mg Q2-4hourly

Severe (pain score 8-10):
* Add SR opioid & IR opioid
* Add pregabalin 75mg BD
* Consider admission for IV analgesia

21
Q

What are examples of high risk ingested foreign bodies?

A
  • Button batteries in the oesophagus
  • Large objects (>6cm long or >2.5cm wide)
  • Two magnets OR one magnet + metal object
  • Sharp object in the oesophagus
  • Toxic objects e.g. lead
22
Q

What constitutes high risk community acquired needle stick injury?

A
  • Source known to be infected with a bloodborne virus
  • Community acquired needle stick injury from a deliberate assault
  • Deep, large volume injection with hollow bore needle
  • Personal history of injecting drug use
  • Needle directly placed into vein or artery
  • Device visibly contaminated with blood
23
Q

In the work up for community acquired needle stick injury, what is the minimum investigation required?

A

Take blood for hepatitis b surface antibody and serum storage (for consideration of Hep C and HIV testing in high risk situations)

24
Q

What is the management of community acquired needle stick injury?

A
  • Assess for high risk factors
  • Take blood for hepatitis B surface antibody and serum to store (BUT do not routinely test for Hep C or HIV)
  • First aid: wash site with soap and water
  • Dispose of needles safely
  • Give tetanus booster if not updated (if >5 years since last booster)
  • Consideration for HIV post-exposure prophylaxis if high risk and on discussion with Infectious Diseases
  • Consider referral to Infectious Disease outpatient clinic to provide an opportunity for questions and to plan follow up investigations and immunizations, if required
25
Q

What is the management for a seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or of unknown duration?

A

Commence active treatment:
* Continuous monitoring, oxygen
* Obtain venous access
* Check BSL
* Give benzodiazepine (If IV access is difficult, use IM/buccal midazolam)

26
Q

When should active seizure management be started?

A
  • After 5 minutes of continuous seizure activity
  • When the patient has repeated seizures without full recovery of consciousness between attacks
27
Q

What are the pharmacological options for management of acute seizures?

A

IV access available:
* 1st: Midazolam 10mg IV; over at least 2 minutes
* 2nd: Diazepam 10mg IV; over at least 2 minutes
* 3rd: Clonazepam 1mg IV; over at least 2 minutes

IV access NOT available:
* 1st: Midazolam 10mg IM (adult >40kg)
* 1st: Midazolam 5mg IM (adult <40kg)
* 2nd: 5-10mg buccal or intranasal

28
Q

Where does epistaxis usually occur in children?

A

Little’s area (on the anterior septal wall)

29
Q

What is the first line treatment for epistaxis?

A

Simple measures:
* Sitting up in comfortable position
* Tilt head forward slightly
* Apply continuous pressure on the anterior portion (cartilage) of the nose with thumb and forefinger for 10 minutes
* Breathe through the mouth and allow any blood to run into a kidney dish rather than swallowing

30
Q
A