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*Crozer-Keystone > 13. Special Studies > Flashcards

13. Special Studies Flashcards

1
Q

what must you discontinue before an angiogram?

A

glucophage

(patient may develop metabolic acidosis)

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2
Q

what are the phases of a bone scan?

A

4 phases

  1. immediate, early, flow, or angiogram (may be referred to by any of these names)
  2. pool
  3. delayed
  4. fourth phase
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3
Q

what is the fourth phase of a bone scan used for?

A

bone uptake for a patient with PVD

peripheral vascular disease

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4
Q

when are the phases of a bone scan imaged?

A
  1. immediate: 2-3 seconds
  2. pool: 2-3 minutes
  3. delayed: 2-3 hours
  4. fourth: 24 hours
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5
Q

what does each phase of the bone scan represent?

A
  1. immediate: blood flow
  2. pool: soft tissue
  3. delayed: bone activity
  4. fourth: bone uptake in PVD patient
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6
Q

what structures normally light up on a bone scan?

A
  • epiphysis of growing child
  • fracture
  • tips of scapula
  • bladder
  • sternum
  • intercostals (ribs)
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7
Q

what is the half-life of technetium-9?

A

6 hours

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8
Q

what is a likely diagnosis if bone scan lights up in the first and second stages, but not the third?

A

cellulitis

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9
Q

name a way to test between charcot disease and osteomyelitis?

A
  • ceretec scan (tagged wbc)
  • indium-111
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10
Q

what does gallium-67 test for?

A

acute inflammation and infection

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11
Q

how long does it take for gallium-67 to work?

A

2-3 days (it’s very expensive)

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12
Q

why would you use a technetium and gallium scan together?

A
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13
Q

what cell is tagged with indium-111 test?

A

white blood cells

(as does the Ceretec scan)

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14
Q

why is indium-111 used?

A

highly sensitive and specific

for acute soft tissue and osseous infection

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15
Q

what causes increased signal intensity on T1 MRI image?

A

fat

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16
Q

what causes increased signal intensity on T2 MRI image?

A

(FIIT)

  • fluid
  • infection
  • inflammation
  • tumor
17
Q

for MRI, what are the main indications for STIR imaging?

A
  • edema in high lipid regions (ie bone marrow)
  • cartilage evaluation
18
Q

what is fat-saturated MRI used for?

A

evaluation of fat

19
Q

what is “gradient echo” also known as?

A

steady state magnetization

20
Q

what is gradient echo used for?

A

joint imaging

21
Q

what are two uses for gadolinium?

A
  • intravenous: quickly distributed into ECF; distributed to places with increased vascularity, such as neoplasms and inflammation; cellulitis and walls of abscesses will enhance, pus will not
  • intra-articular: tests cartilage integrity
22
Q

how will a stress fracture appear on each MRI image?

A
  • T1: linear zone of decreased signal intensity surrounded by a less defined area of signal intensity
  • T2: linear zone of decreased signal intensity surrounded by an increased SI due to edema
  • STIR: increased SI because fatty bone marrow is suppressed
23
Q

how will osteomyelitis show up on MRI?

A
  • T1: break in cortex, decreased signal intensity in bone marrow
  • T2: break in cortex, increased signal in bone marrow
24
Q

how will avascular necrosis appear on MRI?

A
  • decreased signal intensities on T1 and T2
  • double rim sign on STIR and long T2 (inner margin will show increased SI, as granulation tissue; outer margin will show decreased SI, as mineralization)
25
Q

what does MRA stand for?

A

magnetic resonance angiography

26
Q

what is MRA used for in the lower extremity?

A
  • PVD
  • DVT
  • neoplasm
  • anatomic studies
27
Q

what are the three planes of a CT scan?

A

coronal, axial, sagittal

28
Q

which of the three CT planes is computer reconstructed?

A

sagittal plane

29
Q

what does the coronal plane of a CT scan represent?

A

frontal plane

30
Q

what does the axial plane or a CT scan represent?

A

transverse plane

31
Q

what are some tests for sickle cell anemia?

A
  • microscope and observe
  • hemoglobin electrophoresis
32
Q

how many phases are in a ceretec scan?

A

one

33
Q

what does HMPAO stand for?

A

hexylmethyl propylene amine oxime (it is ceretec scan)

34
Q

what does MDP stand for?

A

methyldiphosphate

*Crozer-Keystone (14 decks)

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