13 Respiratory infections Flashcards

1
Q

what is CAP

A

community acquired pneumonia:

pneumonia contracted by a person with little contact with the healthcare system

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2
Q

CAP is more common in (4)

A

males
the elderly
alcoholics and smokers- due to neutrophil response
chronic disease

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3
Q

what’s a preventative strategy for CAP

A

pneumococcal vaccination

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4
Q

describe the aetiology of CAP

A

conventional bacteria= 60-80% of all cases
atypical= 10-20%
viruses= 10-20%

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5
Q

give 2 examples of conventional bacteria causing CAP and 3 examples of atypical

A
c= S. Pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
a= M. Pneumonia, C. Pneumoniae and L. Pneumophila
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6
Q

4 key stages in investigating CAP

A

confirm diagnosis
assess severity of disease
define aetiological agent (microbiological samples)
identify complications (like organ failure)

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7
Q

state 4 microbiological investigations in CAP

A

1 sputum analysis and culture
2 immunofluorescence on sputum samples
3 blood cultures
4 urinary pneumococcal and legionella antigen

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8
Q

severe CAP criteria

A

CRUB-65
confusion (mini-mental test score of 8 or less, new confusion)
urea >7mmol/l (since severe infection tends to impair renal function)
respiratory rate >30 per minute
blood pressure, systolic <90 or diastolic <60
65 or more years old
1 point for each that is present

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9
Q

scores of low-severity, moderate and severe CAP

A
low= 0 or 1
mod= 2
severe= 3 or more
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10
Q

describe low-severity CAP treatment

A

amoxicillin (500 mgs 4x a day for 5 days) or doxycycline (200 mgs then 100mg once a day)
if can’t take it orally= iv amoxicillin 500 mgs 3x a day
if severe penicillin allergy give ciprofloxacin 400 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin

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11
Q

describe moderate-severity CAP treatment

A

amoxicillin 500 mgs 4x a day for a week and clarithromycin 500 mgs 2x a day for a week OR doxycycline 200 mgs then 100 mg 1x a day
if can’t take orally= iv benzylpenicillin
if severe penicillin allergy give ciprofloxacin 400 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin

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12
Q

describe severe CAP treatment

A

co-amoxiclav 1.2g 3x a day and clarithromycin 500 mgs 2x a day iv for 10 days
IF severe penicillin allergy or suspected MRSA give levofloxacin 500 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin 1g 2x a day
treat for 10 days, extending to 14-21 for legionella, staphylococcal or gram negative pneumonia

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13
Q

describe mycoplasma and legionella

A

mycoplasma- in 45 years or less it occurs in epidemics, skin rashes appear before respiratory symptoms
legionella- occurs sporadically, usually middle aged men who smoke, can be transmitted through water systems, any severe pneumonia could be legionella, be suspicious

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14
Q

signs of pneumonia with influenza and treatment

A

hypoxaemia, severe dyspnoea (difficulty breathing)

oseltamavir 75 mgs 2x a day for 5 days, start without PCR results and can stop if negative

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15
Q

describe the TB life cycle

A

abscess produces aerosol, enters respiratory system, transmitted
invades into macrophages in respiratory tract, established intracellular infection
becomes a hypoxic environment, can’t sustain itself so in response to hypoxia genetic changes make it dormant
cytokines from inflammatory response can resuscitate TB after many years, leading to extracellular growth->high load
can’t eradicate dormant TB

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16
Q

where does TB reactivate

A

spine and kidneys

17
Q

what are antimycobacterial agents

A

a diverse group of compounds, which are used either alone or in combination to treat Mycobacterium infections, including tuberculosis and leprosy

18
Q

list 5 antimycobacterial agents

A
rifampin
isoniazid
ethambutol
streptomycin
pyrazinamide
19
Q

describe rifampicin

A

mycobacterial RNA polymerase
bactericidal
quite toxic, affects contraceptive pill

20
Q

describe isoniazid

A

inhibits cell wall mycolic acid synthesis
rapid and bactericidal effect
pyridoxine supplements can prevent peripheral neuropathy

21
Q

describe pyrazinamide

A

mechanism of action entirely unknown

plays a key role in sterilising inflammatory tissue

22
Q

describe ethambutol

A

inhibits synthesis of cell wall polysaccharides
side effect= optic neuritis
4th commonly used
only give to someone who understands and can report optic neuritis- colour changes etc

23
Q

describe streptomycin

A

binds to mycobacterial ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
bactericidal
side effect= ototoxicity
given parenterally (not oral)

24
Q

describe 2-phase therapy

A

therapy can be divided into
1 an initial bactericidal phase in which the majority of organisms are killed
2 and a sterilising phase in which persisting organisms are eliminated

25
Q

describe duration of therapy to cover phases of infection and resistance

A

4 agents for 2 months

then 2 agents for 4 months

26
Q

standard anti TB therapy

A

rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamine and ethambutol for 2 months
then rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 months
RIPE

27
Q

what’s the biggest driver of drug resistance and how can it be combated

A

patients not completing the whole course

DOT programmes use a nurse or surrogate to directly observe all doses being taken

28
Q

most common pattern of drug resistant TB

A

isolated isoniazid resistance

29
Q

those at risk of drug resistant TB (5)

A

previously treated for TB
known contact with a case of drug resistant TB
acquisition of infection in a country of group with a high prevalence of drug resistance
patients who fail to make a satisfactory response to conventional treatment
co-existing HIV infection

30
Q

treatment in drug resistant TB

A

4 drugs which the organism is likely to be sensitive to
continue until 3-6 months after the sputum becomes culture negative
continued with 3 drugs for 15-18 months
surgery may be necessary

31
Q

what pressure should the side room be in TB

A

negatively ventilated