13 Respiratory infections Flashcards

1
Q

what is CAP

A

community acquired pneumonia:

pneumonia contracted by a person with little contact with the healthcare system

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2
Q

CAP is more common in (4)

A

males
the elderly
alcoholics and smokers- due to neutrophil response
chronic disease

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3
Q

what’s a preventative strategy for CAP

A

pneumococcal vaccination

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4
Q

describe the aetiology of CAP

A

conventional bacteria= 60-80% of all cases
atypical= 10-20%
viruses= 10-20%

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5
Q

give 2 examples of conventional bacteria causing CAP and 3 examples of atypical

A
c= S. Pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
a= M. Pneumonia, C. Pneumoniae and L. Pneumophila
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6
Q

4 key stages in investigating CAP

A

confirm diagnosis
assess severity of disease
define aetiological agent (microbiological samples)
identify complications (like organ failure)

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7
Q

state 4 microbiological investigations in CAP

A

1 sputum analysis and culture
2 immunofluorescence on sputum samples
3 blood cultures
4 urinary pneumococcal and legionella antigen

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8
Q

severe CAP criteria

A

CRUB-65
confusion (mini-mental test score of 8 or less, new confusion)
urea >7mmol/l (since severe infection tends to impair renal function)
respiratory rate >30 per minute
blood pressure, systolic <90 or diastolic <60
65 or more years old
1 point for each that is present

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9
Q

scores of low-severity, moderate and severe CAP

A
low= 0 or 1
mod= 2
severe= 3 or more
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10
Q

describe low-severity CAP treatment

A

amoxicillin (500 mgs 4x a day for 5 days) or doxycycline (200 mgs then 100mg once a day)
if can’t take it orally= iv amoxicillin 500 mgs 3x a day
if severe penicillin allergy give ciprofloxacin 400 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin

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11
Q

describe moderate-severity CAP treatment

A

amoxicillin 500 mgs 4x a day for a week and clarithromycin 500 mgs 2x a day for a week OR doxycycline 200 mgs then 100 mg 1x a day
if can’t take orally= iv benzylpenicillin
if severe penicillin allergy give ciprofloxacin 400 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin

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12
Q

describe severe CAP treatment

A

co-amoxiclav 1.2g 3x a day and clarithromycin 500 mgs 2x a day iv for 10 days
IF severe penicillin allergy or suspected MRSA give levofloxacin 500 mgs 2x a day and vancomycin 1g 2x a day
treat for 10 days, extending to 14-21 for legionella, staphylococcal or gram negative pneumonia

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13
Q

describe mycoplasma and legionella

A

mycoplasma- in 45 years or less it occurs in epidemics, skin rashes appear before respiratory symptoms
legionella- occurs sporadically, usually middle aged men who smoke, can be transmitted through water systems, any severe pneumonia could be legionella, be suspicious

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14
Q

signs of pneumonia with influenza and treatment

A

hypoxaemia, severe dyspnoea (difficulty breathing)

oseltamavir 75 mgs 2x a day for 5 days, start without PCR results and can stop if negative

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15
Q

describe the TB life cycle

A

abscess produces aerosol, enters respiratory system, transmitted
invades into macrophages in respiratory tract, established intracellular infection
becomes a hypoxic environment, can’t sustain itself so in response to hypoxia genetic changes make it dormant
cytokines from inflammatory response can resuscitate TB after many years, leading to extracellular growth->high load
can’t eradicate dormant TB

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16
Q

where does TB reactivate

A

spine and kidneys

17
Q

what are antimycobacterial agents

A

a diverse group of compounds, which are used either alone or in combination to treat Mycobacterium infections, including tuberculosis and leprosy

18
Q

list 5 antimycobacterial agents

A
rifampin
isoniazid
ethambutol
streptomycin
pyrazinamide
19
Q

describe rifampicin

A

mycobacterial RNA polymerase
bactericidal
quite toxic, affects contraceptive pill

20
Q

describe isoniazid

A

inhibits cell wall mycolic acid synthesis
rapid and bactericidal effect
pyridoxine supplements can prevent peripheral neuropathy

21
Q

describe pyrazinamide

A

mechanism of action entirely unknown

plays a key role in sterilising inflammatory tissue

22
Q

describe ethambutol

A

inhibits synthesis of cell wall polysaccharides
side effect= optic neuritis
4th commonly used
only give to someone who understands and can report optic neuritis- colour changes etc

23
Q

describe streptomycin

A

binds to mycobacterial ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
bactericidal
side effect= ototoxicity
given parenterally (not oral)

24
Q

describe 2-phase therapy

A

therapy can be divided into
1 an initial bactericidal phase in which the majority of organisms are killed
2 and a sterilising phase in which persisting organisms are eliminated

25
describe duration of therapy to cover phases of infection and resistance
4 agents for 2 months | then 2 agents for 4 months
26
standard anti TB therapy
rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamine and ethambutol for 2 months then rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 months RIPE
27
what's the biggest driver of drug resistance and how can it be combated
patients not completing the whole course | DOT programmes use a nurse or surrogate to directly observe all doses being taken
28
most common pattern of drug resistant TB
isolated isoniazid resistance
29
those at risk of drug resistant TB (5)
previously treated for TB known contact with a case of drug resistant TB acquisition of infection in a country of group with a high prevalence of drug resistance patients who fail to make a satisfactory response to conventional treatment co-existing HIV infection
30
treatment in drug resistant TB
4 drugs which the organism is likely to be sensitive to continue until 3-6 months after the sputum becomes culture negative continued with 3 drugs for 15-18 months surgery may be necessary
31
what pressure should the side room be in TB
negatively ventilated